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Question Bank

Question for OPSC Assistant Professor Biochemistry - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 180 · Questions: 200 · Max Marks: 200

View OPSC Assistant Professor (Biochemistry) 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in OPSC Assistant Professor Biochemistry exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in OPSC Assistant Professor Biochemistry exams.

Latest OPSC Assistant Professor Biochemistry Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Concerned Subject (Biochemistry)

Question Bank OPSC Assistant Professor (Biochemistry) Exam - English

Concerned Subject (Biochemistry)

Q 1 :
Which structural feature is uniquely associated with eukaryotic chromatin organization?
  1. A.Presence of operons
  2. B.Absence of introns
  3. C.Single origin of replication
  4. D.Association of DNA with histone octamers
Q 2 :
The cytoskeletal element that resists tensile stress and maintains cell integrity is?
  1. A.Intermediate filaments
  2. B.Actin filaments
  3. C.Microtubules
  4. D.Myosin fibers
Q 3 :
Which organelle is the primary site of phospholipid and steroid synthesis?
  1. A.Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  2. B.Golgi apparatus
  3. C.Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  4. D.Lysosome
Q 4 :
Dynein differs from kinesin mainly in its directionality of movement toward the?
  1. A.Plus end of microtubule
  2. B.Actin filament end
  3. C.Minus end of microtubule
  4. D.Centrosome independent pathway
Q 5 :
Cardiolipin is predominantly localized in which membrane?
  1. A.Outer mitochondrial membrane
  2. B.Endoplasmic reticulum membrane
  3. C.Plasma membrane
  4. D.Inner mitochondrial membrane
Q 6 :
Which junction provides mechanical strength by anchoring intermediate filaments between adjacent cells?
  1. A.Desmosome
  2. B.Gap junction
  3. C.Tight junction
  4. D.Adherens junction
Q 7 :
Integrins primarily mediate which type of cellular interaction?
  1. A.Cell–matrix adhesion
  2. B.Cell–cell adhesion
  3. C.Tight junction sealing
  4. D.Ion channel formation
Q 8 :
Which extracellular matrix component provides tensile strength to tissues?
  1. A.Elastin
  2. B.Collagen
  3. C.Proteoglycans
  4. D.Fibronectin
Q 9 :
The G1 checkpoint of the cell cycle primarily ensures?
  1. A.Adequate cell size and DNA integrity
  2. B.Proper spindle formation
  3. C.Completion of DNA replication
  4. D.Cytokinesis
Q 10 :
Which cyclin–CDK complex is critical for the G1 to S phase transition?
  1. A.Cyclin E–CDK2
  2. B.Cyclin D–CDK4
  3. C.Cyclin A–CDK2
  4. D.Cyclin B–CDK1
Q 11 :
The spindle assembly checkpoint monitors the?
  1. A.Chromosome alignment at metaphase plate
  2. B.DNA damage
  3. C.Completion of cytokinesis
  4. D.Initiation of transcription
Q 12 :
Which tissue type is specialized for rapid electrical signal transmission?
  1. A.Connective tissue
  2. B.Nervous tissue
  3. C.Epithelial tissue
  4. D.Muscle tissue
Q 13 :
Actin polymerization is directly regulated by which nucleotide?
  1. A.UTP
  2. B.GTP
  3. C.CTP
  4. D.ATP
Q 14 :
The Golgi apparatus modifies proteins mainly by?
  1. A.Proteolysis
  2. B.Glycosylation and sulfation
  3. C.Phosphorylation
  4. D.Deamination
Q 15 :
Which protein links actin filaments to transmembrane proteins in adherens junctions?
  1. A.Cadherin
  2. B.Integrin
  3. C.Catenin
  4. D.Claudin
Q 16 :
Which organelle lacks its own DNA?
  1. A.Mitochondria
  2. B.Peroxisome
  3. C.Chloroplast
  4. D.Nucleus
Q 17 :
Which cytoskeletal component is absent in plant cells?
  1. A.Actin
  2. B.Microtubules
  3. C.Intermediate filaments
  4. D.Cellulose fibers
Q 18 :
The observable expression of a gene is termed as?
  1. A.Genotype
  2. B.Phenotype
  3. C.Allele
  4. D.Locus
Q 19 :
An organism possessing two identical alleles for a gene is described as?
  1. A.Hybrid
  2. B.Heterozygous
  3. C.Homozygous
  4. D.Hemizygous
Q 20 :
Mendel’s law of segregation is best explained by separation of alleles during?
  1. A.Fertilization
  2. B.Meiosis II
  3. C.Meiosis I
  4. D.Mitosis
Q 21 :
A test cross is performed to determine the?
  1. A.Genotype of a dominant individual
  2. B.Phenotype
  3. C.Allelic frequency
  4. D.Mutation rate
Q 22 :
In incomplete dominance, the heterozygote exhibits?
  1. A.Dominant phenotype
  2. B.Recessive phenotype
  3. C.Lethal phenotype
  4. D.Intermediate phenotype
Q 23 :
The ABO blood group system is an example of?
  1. A.Codominance and multiple alleles
  2. B.Epistasis
  3. C.Polygenic inheritance
  4. D.Pleiotropy
Q 24 :
Polytene chromosomes are characteristically found in?
  1. A.Salivary glands of Diptera
  2. B.Germ cells
  3. C.Liver cells
  4. D.Neurons
Q 25 :
Lampbrush chromosomes are typically observed during?
  1. A.Spermatogenesis
  2. B.Mitosis
  3. C.Oogenesis
  4. D.Fertilization
Q 26 :
A Robertsonian translocation involves?
  1. A.Fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes
  2. B.Exchange between homologous chromosomes
  3. C.Inversion of chromosome segment
  4. D.Duplication of chromosome arm
Q 27 :
The presence of an extra chromosome resulting in 2n+1 condition is termed?
  1. A.Euploidy
  2. B.Aneuploidy
  3. C.Polyploidy
  4. D.Haploidy
Q 28 :
Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of which chromosome?
  1. A.18
  2. B.13
  3. C.21
  4. D.X
Q 29 :
Karyotyping is most useful for detecting?
  1. A.Chromosomal number and structural abnormalities
  2. B.Point mutations
  3. C.Gene expression levels
  4. D.Protein folding errors
Q 30 :
A pericentric inversion includes the?
  1. A.Telomere only
  2. B.q arm only
  3. C.p arm only
  4. D.Centromere
Q 31 :
Which genetic cross reveals independent assortment?
  1. A.Monohybrid cross
  2. B.Dihybrid cross
  3. C.Test cross
  4. D.Back cross
Q 32 :
The Hardy–Weinberg principle assumes all except?
  1. A.Random mating
  2. B.No mutation
  3. C.Large population size
  4. D.Natural selection present
Q 33 :
In Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of heterozygotes is represented by?
  1. A.p²
  2. B.2pq
  3. C.q²
  4. D.p + q
Q 34 :
Epistasis refers to interaction between?
  1. A.Alleles of same gene
  2. B.Chromosomes
  3. C.Non-allelic genes
  4. D.Codons
Q 35 :
Which chromosomal deletion is typically lethal?
  1. A.Terminal deletion
  2. B.Interstitial deletion
  3. C.Microdeletion
  4. D.Large segment deletion
Q 36 :
Wild-type allele refers to the allele that is?
  1. A.Mutated
  2. B.Most common in population
  3. C.Recessive
  4. D.Lethal
Q 37 :
Back cross is performed between hybrid and?
  1. A.Another hybrid
  2. B.Any recessive individual
  3. C.Either parent
  4. D.Any homozygous individual
Q 38 :
Which ratio is expected in a monohybrid cross involving complete dominance in F2 generation?
  1. A.3:1
  2. B.1:1
  3. C.9:3:3:1
  4. D.1:2:1
Q 39 :
A cross between an individual of unknown genotype and a homozygous recessive individual is called?
  1. A.Back cross
  2. B.Reciprocal cross
  3. C.Test cross
  4. D.Dihybrid cross
Q 40 :
Which chromosomal abnormality results from unequal crossing over?
  1. A.Translocation
  2. B.Duplication
  3. C.Inversion
  4. D.Aneuploidy
Q 41 :
Euploidy refers to variation in chromosome number involving?
  1. A.Gain or loss of one chromosome
  2. B.Structural rearrangement
  3. C.Gain or loss of whole chromosome sets
  4. D.Partial chromosome deletion
Q 42 :
Turner syndrome is an example of?
  1. A.Monosomy X
  2. B.Polyploidy
  3. C.Trisomy
  4. D.Autosomal aneuploidy
Q 43 :
Barr body represents?
  1. A.Inactive X chromosome
  2. B.Active X chromosome
  3. C.Y chromosome
  4. D.Autosomal heterochromatin
Q 44 :
Which structure ensures correct segregation of chromosomes during mitosis?
  1. A.Telomere
  2. B.Nucleolus
  3. C.Kinetochore
  4. D.Chromatin loop
Q 45 :
The centromere is composed mainly of?
  1. A.Euchromatin
  2. B.Histone H1
  3. C.rRNA genes
  4. D.Satellite DNA
Q 46 :
Which type of epistasis modifies the classical 9:3:3:1 ratio to 12:3:1?
  1. A.Complementary epistasis
  2. B.Recessive epistasis
  3. C.Dominant epistasis
  4. D.Duplicate genes
Q 47 :
Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium will be disturbed by which factor?
  1. A.Random mating
  2. B.Large population size
  3. C.Absence of mutation
  4. D.Migration
Q 48 :
Alleles occupying the same position on homologous chromosomes are called?
  1. A.Linked genes
  2. B.Codominant genes
  3. C.Homologous genes
  4. D.Gene loci
Q 49 :
A hybrid individual contains?
  1. A.Identical alleles
  2. B.Only recessive alleles
  3. C.Lethal alleles
  4. D.Dissimilar alleles
Q 50 :
Structural variation involving reversal of a chromosome segment is termed?
  1. A.Translocation
  2. B.Duplication
  3. C.Inversion
  4. D.Deletion

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