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Question for OPSC Assistant Professor General Medicine - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 12, 2026

Duration: 180 · Questions: 200 · Max Marks: 200

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To boost your performance in OPSC Assistant Professor General Medicine exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in OPSC Assistant Professor General Medicine exams.

Latest OPSC Assistant Professor General Medicine Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Concerned Subject (General Medicine)

Question Bank OPSC Assistant Professor (General Medicine) Exam - English

Concerned Subject (General Medicine)

Q 1 :
What symptom is most commonly associated with the cardiovascular system?
  1. A.Shortness of breath
  2. B.Nausea
  3. C.Rash
  4. D.Fever
Q 2 :
Which of the following symptoms suggests gastrointestinal involvement?
  1. A.Chest pain
  2. B.Nausea and vomiting
  3. C.Fatigue
  4. D.Dizziness
Q 3 :
For the respiratory system, which symptom is critical to document?
  1. A.Cough duration
  2. B.Appetite changes
  3. C.Skin rashes
  4. D.Hearing loss
Q 4 :
Which system review focuses on muscle pain and joint stiffness?
  1. A.Neurological system
  2. B.Gastrointestinal system
  3. C.Musculoskeletal system
  4. D.Endocrine system
Q 5 :
What question is commonly asked during a genitourinary system review?
  1. A."Do you have any difficulty urinating?"
  2. B."Are you experiencing headaches?"
  3. C."Do you have shortness of breath?"
  4. D."Do you have fatigue?"
Q 6 :
What is the focus of endocrine system review?
  1. A.Headache and fever
  2. B.Weight changes and heat intolerance
  3. C.Chest pain and palpitations
  4. D.Muscle weakness
Q 7 :
Which symptom is most relevant for a neurological review?
  1. A.Dizziness or vertigo
  2. B.Constipation
  3. C.Night sweats
  4. D.Hair loss
Q 8 :
Which of the following symptoms might suggest a hematological issue?
  1. A.Easy bruising
  2. B.Dry skin
  3. C.Joint pain
  4. D.Nausea
Q 9 :
What is the first step of any physical examination?
  1. A.Observation
  2. B.Palpation
  3. C.Percussion
  4. D.Auscultation
Q 10 :
Why is hand hygiene important before performing a physical examination?
  1. A.To prevent spreading infections
  2. B.To warm up the hands
  3. C.To reduce patient discomfort
  4. D.To make the examination quicker
Q 11 :
In which order are examination techniques usually performed in the abdominal exam?
  1. A.Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
  2. B.Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
  3. C.Percussion, palpation, auscultation, inspection
  4. D.Auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation
Q 12 :
What is the purpose of auscultation during a cardiovascular exam?
  1. A.To assess heart rate
  2. B.To listen for abnormal heart sounds or murmurs
  3. C.To determine blood pressure
  4. D.To evaluate the pulse rhythm
Q 13 :
What is the technique used to test for pleural effusion during a respiratory exam?
  1. A.Percussion
  2. B.Inspection
  3. C.Auscultation
  4. D.Palpation
Q 14 :
What is Murphy’s sign used to evaluate?
  1. A.Appendicitis
  2. B.Cholecystitis
  3. C.Hepatitis
  4. D.Pancreatitis
Q 15 :
Which tool is essential for examining the retina during an eye exam?
  1. A.Otoscope
  2. B.Ophthalmoscope
  3. C.Stethoscope
  4. D.Reflex hammer
Q 16 :
Why is documentation of clinical findings critical?
  1. A.For legal purposes
  2. B.To ensure continuity of care
  3. C.To communicate with other healthcare providers
  4. D.All of the above
Q 17 :
What is SOAP format in medical documentation?
  1. A.Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
  2. B.Signs, Observations, Assessment, Plan
  3. C.Symptoms, Objective, Analysis, Procedure
  4. D.Subjective, Observations, Assessment, Problem
Q 18 :
Which of the following best describes "palpation" in physical examination?
  1. A.The use of a stethoscope to listen to internal sounds
  2. B.The act of observing the patient’s appearance
  3. C.The process of feeling the body for abnormalities
  4. D.The assessment of reflexes
Q 19 :
When examining the respiratory system, which technique is used to listen for lung sounds?
  1. A.Percussion
  2. B.Palpation
  3. C.Inspection
  4. D.Auscultation
Q 20 :
During an abdominal exam, what is the primary concern when performing palpation?
  1. A.To assess the size of the liver
  2. B.To check for muscle tone
  3. C.To determine areas of tenderness or guarding
  4. D.To count bowel sounds
Q 21 :
In a neurological exam, what does the "Romberg test" assess?
  1. A.The integrity of the visual system
  2. B.Balance and proprioception
  3. C.Reflex activity
  4. D.The ability to follow commands
Q 22 :
What is the purpose of checking a patient's pulse rate during a physical exam?
  1. A.To measure blood pressure
  2. B.To assess cardiovascular health and rhythm
  3. C.To determine body temperature
  4. D.To evaluate respiratory rate
Q 23 :
What should be noted when performing a cardiovascular exam?
  1. A.Heart rate, rhythm, and any murmurs
  2. B.Skin color and temperature
  3. C.Respiratory rate and effort
  4. D.All of the above
Q 24 :
When performing an abdominal examination, what is the first step?
  1. A.Palpation
  2. B.Percussion
  3. C.Inspection
  4. D.Auscultation
Q 25 :
What is the "Tinel's sign" used to detect?
  1. A.Carpal tunnel syndrome
  2. B.Appendicitis
  3. C.Gallbladder disease
  4. D.Foot drop
Q 26 :
What should be checked during a physical examination of the skin?
  1. A.Color, moisture, temperature, and turgor
  2. B.Reflexes and sensation
  3. C.Lungs and breathing patterns
  4. D.Eye movement and pupils
Q 27 :
What does the "Heberden's node" indicate during a musculoskeletal examination?
  1. A.Rheumatoid arthritis
  2. B.Osteoarthritis
  3. C.Gout
  4. D.Lupus
Q 28 :
When performing a cardiac exam, which of the following findings would indicate a possible heart murmur?
  1. A.A loud, continuous sound
  2. B.A high-pitched sound between beats
  3. C.A distinct "swishing" sound during the heartbeat
  4. D.No sound at all
Q 29 :
During a neurological exam, which test is used to assess the sensation of vibration?
  1. A.Reflex hammer test
  2. B.Tuning fork test
  3. C.Romberg test
  4. D.Babinski sign
Q 30 :
What is "bruits" during auscultation most likely associated with?
  1. A.Abnormal heart sounds
  2. B.Turbulent blood flow in blood vessels
  3. C.Respiratory distress
  4. D.Decreased bowel sounds
Q 31 :
What physical examination technique is most appropriate to evaluate the size of the spleen?
  1. A.Percussion
  2. B.Palpation
  3. C.Inspection
  4. D.Auscultation
Q 32 :
When documenting a patient's findings, what is the most important consideration?
  1. A.Clarity and accuracy
  2. B.Speed of documentation
  3. C.Length of the notes
  4. D.Using medical jargon for precision
Q 33 :
What is an example of an abnormal finding that must be documented in a physical exam?
  1. A.A non-tender abdomen
  2. B.Symmetrical pupils
  3. C.Decreased breath sounds in one lung
  4. D.Clear and equal breath sounds bilaterally
Q 34 :
Why is patient consent important before performing a physical examination?
  1. A.To maintain ethical standards and respect for patient autonomy
  2. B.To fulfill legal obligations
  3. C.To avoid liability in case of a misunderstanding
  4. D.All of the above
Q 35 :
How should abnormal findings from a physical exam be recorded?
  1. A.In a subjective, unstructured manner
  2. B.Using detailed and objective language
  3. C.In a narrative form only
  4. D.Only mentioning symptoms that are easy to detect
Q 36 :
What is one key benefit of using electronic health records (EHR) for documenting physical exam findings?
  1. A.Greater patient privacy
  2. B.Easier access and sharing of patient data across providers
  3. C.Reduces the need for face-to-face patient interactions
  4. D.Makes physical exams faster to perform
Q 37 :
What is the primary purpose of the SOAP note format in documentation?
  1. A.To make documentation faster and easier
  2. B.To provide a structured way of documenting patient encounters
  3. C.To ensure patients are billed correctly
  4. D.To reduce legal liability for healthcare providers
Q 38 :
Which of the following is a key aspect of "objective" data in a medical note?
  1. A.Patient’s description of pain
  2. B.Physical findings, such as blood pressure
  3. C.Family history of illness
  4. D.Patient's mental state
Q 39 :
In which part of a SOAP note would the clinician document their clinical impression of the patient’s condition?
  1. A.Subjective
  2. B.Objective
  3. C.Assessment
  4. D.Plan
Q 40 :
Which of the following best describes "signs" in clinical documentation?
  1. A.Subjective symptoms reported by the patient
  2. B.Objective findings observable by the examiner
  3. C.Emotional responses of the patient
  4. D.Historical information provided by family members
Q 41 :
What should be included in the "Plan" section of a SOAP note?
  1. A.A list of potential diagnoses
  2. B.A summary of the patient’s history
  3. C.The diagnostic tests and treatments planned for the patient
  4. D.A list of medications prescribed
Q 42 :
What is the first step in clinical reasoning?
  1. A.Developing a treatment plan
  2. B.Gathering patient history and data
  3. C.Generating differential diagnoses
  4. D.Initiating therapy
Q 43 :
Which of the following best defines clinical reasoning?
  1. A.Using patient symptoms to create a diagnosis and treatment
  2. B.A structured method of examining physical findings
  3. C.The process of integrating knowledge, evidence, and patient information to make decisions
  4. D.A systematic approach to patient education
Q 44 :
Clinical reasoning involves which of the following?
  1. A.Identifying key features of the patient’s presentation
  2. B.Excluding unlikely causes
  3. C.Prioritizing critical diagnoses
  4. D.All of the above
Q 45 :
What is pattern recognition in clinical reasoning?
  1. A.Following strict protocols
  2. B.Identifying diseases based on previously seen cases
  3. C.Conducting unnecessary tests
  4. D.Ignoring atypical presentations
Q 46 :
Which of the following is a key characteristic of clinical reasoning?
  1. A.Memorization of textbook cases
  2. B.Analytical and reflective thinking
  3. C.Relying solely on diagnostic tests
  4. D.Avoiding complexity in decision-making
Q 47 :
What is differential diagnosis?
  1. A.The list of all possible diseases a patient might have
  2. B.A singular diagnosis based on initial symptoms
  3. C.A step-by-step plan for treating a patient
  4. D.The process of ruling out unrelated conditions
Q 48 :
When is the process of differential diagnosis most useful?
  1. A.In complex cases with multiple symptoms
  2. B.In routine wellness exams
  3. C.In patients with no apparent symptoms
  4. D.In emergency situations only
Q 49 :
Which step is most critical in narrowing down a differential diagnosis?
  1. A.Performing additional diagnostic tests
  2. B.Understanding the patient’s social history
  3. C.Considering epidemiological factors
  4. D.Correlating clinical findings with likely conditions
Q 50 :
In creating a differential diagnosis, what does the term “most likely diagnosis” refer to?
  1. A.The rarest condition that fits the symptoms
  2. B.The condition supported by the highest probability
  3. C.The first condition thought of by the clinician
  4. D.The diagnosis that requires the least testing

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