AComplete or incomplete break in the continuity of a bone
BPartial displacement of a joint
CTearing of a ligament
DOverstretching of a muscle
Question 2Single Answer
A dislocation is best described as?
APartial loss of contact between articular surfaces
BA tear in a tendon
CComplete loss of contact between articular surfaces
DA bone break with soft tissue injury
Question 3Single Answer
What is the term for partial displacement of a joint?
ADislocation
BSubluxation
CSprain
DStrain
Question 4Single Answer
A sprain involves injury to which structure?
ABone
BTendon
CMuscle
DLigament
Question 5Single Answer
What is the definition of a strain?
AInjury to a ligament
BComplete bone break
CInjury to a muscle or tendon
DJoint dislocation
Question 6Single Answer
Which type of trauma involves a direct blow to the bone?
AIndirect trauma
BHigh-energy trauma
CDirect trauma
DLow-energy trauma
Question 7Single Answer
Indirect trauma is characterized by?
AForce applied directly to the injury site
BPenetrating injury
CLow-velocity impact
DForce transmitted through the body to cause injury
Question 8Single Answer
A high-energy trauma is most likely to cause?
AComplex fractures or dislocations
BSimple sprain
CMinor soft tissue injury
DStress fracture
Question 9Single Answer
Low-energy trauma typically results in?
AComminuted fractures
BSimple fractures or sprains
CPolytrauma
DOpen fractures
Question 10Single Answer
Which force causes a spiral fracture?
ACompression
BTorsion
CTension
DShear
Question 11Single Answer
A transverse fracture is most commonly caused by which force?
ATorsion
BShear
CCompression
DBending
Question 12Single Answer
What type of force is primarily responsible for a crush fracture?
ATension
BCompression
CTorsion
DBending
Question 13Single Answer
Which force stretches a bone, leading to a possible avulsion fracture?
ATension
BShear
CCompression
DTorsion
Question 14Single Answer
Shear force in fractures results in?
ABone surfaces sliding past each other
BBone compression
CSpiral fractures
DBone elongation
Question 15Single Answer
The stress-strain curve of a bone represents?
ABone density
BBone mineral content
CBoneβs response to applied force
DBone growth rate
Question 16Single Answer
In the stress-strain curve, the elastic region indicates?
AReversible deformation
BPermanent deformation
CBone fracture
DBone necrosis
Question 17Single Answer
The plastic deformation region of a boneβs stress-strain curve leads to?
AComplete bone failure
BReversible bone changes
CBone regeneration
DPermanent deformation without breaking
Question 18Single Answer
What is the first step in clinical evaluation of a suspected fracture?
AAssess pain, swelling, and deformity
BOrder an MRI
CApply a cast
DPerform surgical reduction
Question 19Single Answer
Which clinical sign is specific to fractures?
ASwelling
BBruising
CPain
DCrepitus
Question 20Single Answer
What is the minimum number of X-ray views required to evaluate a fracture?
AOne
BThree
CTwo
DFour
Question 21Single Answer
Why are two joints included in X-rays for fracture evaluation?
ATo assess soft tissue injury
BTo evaluate muscle injury
CTo measure bone density
DTo rule out associated dislocations or fractures
Question 22Single Answer
Which imaging modality is best for detecting stress fractures?
AX-ray
BCT
CUltrasound
DMRI
Question 23Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of fracture reduction?
ATo immobilize the bone
BTo prevent infection
CTo restore anatomical alignment
DTo promote early mobilization
Question 24Single Answer
Closed reduction of a fracture involves?
ASurgical intervention
BManual manipulation without surgery
CInternal fixation
DExternal fixation
Question 25Single Answer
Open reduction is indicated when?
APatient prefers non-surgical treatment
BFracture is stable
CSoft tissue injury is absent
DClosed reduction fails
Question 26Single Answer
Which method is used for temporary immobilization of a fracture?
ACast or splint
BInternal fixation
CIntramedullary nailing
DPlate fixation
Question 27Single Answer
Traction is primarily used for?
APermanent fracture fixation
BJoint replacement
CSoft tissue repair
DTemporary alignment and stabilization
Question 28Single Answer
External fixators are most commonly used in?
AStable fractures
BPediatric fractures
CStress fractures
DOpen fractures with soft tissue damage
Question 29Single Answer
Which device is used for internal fixation of a fracture?
ACast
BIntramedullary nail
CSplint
DTraction
Question 30Single Answer
What is the role of physiotherapy in fracture management?
ATo restore function and strength
BTo reduce the fracture
CTo perform surgical fixation
DTo diagnose the fracture
Question 31Single Answer
Occupational therapy in fracture rehabilitation focuses on?
APain management
BInfection control
CBone alignment
DRestoring daily functional activities
Question 32Single Answer
What is an early complication of a fracture?
ACompartment syndrome
BMalunion
CNon-union
DAvascular necrosis
Question 33Single Answer
Fat embolism syndrome is most commonly associated with?
ALong bone fractures
BPelvic fractures
CSkull fractures
DRib fractures
Question 34Single Answer
Which early fracture complication is characterized by increased intracompartmental pressure?
AFat embolism
BInfection
CCompartment syndrome
DShock
Question 35Single Answer
What is a common symptom of compartment syndrome?
AFever
BBone deformity
CSevere pain out of proportion to injury
DJoint stiffness
Question 36Single Answer
Which nerve injury is commonly associated with humeral shaft fractures?
AMedian nerve
BUlnar nerve
CRadial nerve
DAxillary nerve
Question 37Single Answer
Vascular injury is most likely to occur in which type of fracture?
ADisplaced supracondylar humerus fracture
BStress fracture
CSimple rib fracture
DHairline tibial fracture
Question 38Single Answer
What is a late complication of a fracture?
AShock
BFat embolism
CCompartment syndrome
DNon-union
Question 39Single Answer
Delayed union of a fracture is defined as?
AComplete bone healing
BFailure to heal within expected time
CMalaligned bone healing
DInfection at fracture site
Question 40Single Answer
Hypertrophic non-union is characterized by?
ABone resorption
BNo callus formation
CExcessive callus formation
DAvascular necrosis
Question 41Single Answer
Atrophic non-union is caused by?
AExcessive bone growth
BInfection
COveruse of the limb
DInadequate blood supply
Question 42Single Answer
Malunion refers to?
AInfection at the fracture site
BFailure of bone to heal
CBone healing in an incorrect position
DBone necrosis
Question 43Single Answer
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is most commonly associated with which fracture?
ADistal radius fracture
BClavicle fracture
CTibial shaft fracture
DScaphoid fracture
Question 44Single Answer
Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is characterized by?
ABone deformity
BBone infection
CSevere pain, swelling, and skin changes
DJoint dislocation
Question 45Single Answer
Myositis ossificans is a complication involving?
AHeterotopic bone formation in soft tissue
BBone infection
CBone resorption
DJoint stiffness
Question 46Single Answer
Growth disturbances in pediatric fractures are caused by?
AMalunion
BSoft tissue injury
CInfection
DInjury to the growth plate
Question 47Single Answer
Polytrauma is defined as?
AA single severe injury
BMultiple severe injuries in multiple body regions
CA fracture with soft tissue injury
DA dislocation with nerve injury
Question 48Single Answer
What is the first step in the primary survey of a polytrauma patient?
AControl bleeding
BCheck neurological status
CPerform X-rays
DAssess airway
Question 49Single Answer
According to ATLS, what does the "C" in ABCDE stand for?
AConsciousness
BCirculation
CCervical spine
DCompression
Question 50Single Answer
The secondary survey in polytrauma involves?
AImmediate life-saving interventions
BDetailed head-to-toe examination
CAirway management
DChest decompression
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Question 51Single Answer
Damage Control Orthopaedics is primarily used to?
APermanently fix all fractures
BMinimize secondary injury in unstable patients
CPromote early rehabilitation
DPrevent infection
Question 52Single Answer
Which injury is commonly associated with polytrauma?
AStress fracture
BSimple sprain
CPelvic fracture
DMuscle strain
Question 53Single Answer
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess?
AFracture severity
BNeurological status
CBlood loss
DSoft tissue injury
Question 54Single Answer
What is the maximum score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
A12
B20
C18
D15
Question 55Single Answer
The Injury Severity Score (ISS) is used to?
AAssess fracture type
BQuantify the severity of multiple injuries
CMeasure pain levels
DEvaluate bone healing
Question 56Single Answer
The Revised Trauma Score (RTS) includes which parameters?
AGCS, blood pressure, respiratory rate
BHeart rate, oxygen saturation, temperature
CPain score, GCS, blood loss
DFracture type, ISS, GCS
Question 57Single Answer
Which type of fracture is most likely to cause fat embolism syndrome?
AClavicle fracture
BDistal radius fracture
CFemoral shaft fracture
DScaphoid fracture
Question 58Single Answer
The most common cause of shock in polytrauma is?
ANeurogenic shock
BHypovolemic shock
CCardiogenic shock
DSeptic shock
Question 59Single Answer
Which imaging is most useful for evaluating spinal injuries in polytrauma?
AX-ray
BUltrasound
CCT
DMRI
Question 60Single Answer
Which fracture is most likely to cause compartment syndrome?
AClavicle fracture
BTibial shaft fracture
CScaphoid fracture
DMetatarsal fracture
Question 61Single Answer
The most common site for myositis ossificans is?
ASpine
BForearm
CNeck
DThigh
Question 62Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of hypertrophic non-union?
ALack of callus formation
BBone resorption
CExcessive callus formation
DInfection at the fracture site
Question 63Single Answer
What is the primary treatment for compartment syndrome?
AFasciotomy
BAntibiotics
CCast immobilization
DTraction
Question 64Single Answer
Which bone is most commonly associated with avascular necrosis after fracture?
ATibia
BClavicle
CRadius
DScaphoid
Question 65Single Answer
The primary goal of damage control orthopaedics is to?
AStabilize the patient and prevent further damage
BAchieve definitive fracture fixation
CPromote early weight-bearing
DPrevent infection
Question 66Single Answer
Which of the following is a hallmark of complex regional pain syndrome?
ABone deformity
BJoint dislocation
CBone infection
DDisproportionate pain and swelling
Question 67Single Answer
Which type of fracture is most likely to result in growth plate injury in children?
AComminuted fracture
BSpiral fracture
CGreenstick fracture
DStress fracture
Question 68Single Answer
The most common cause of delayed union is?
AAdequate blood supply
BEarly weight-bearing
CPoor immobilization
DProper alignment
Question 69Single Answer
Which of the following is a contraindication for closed reduction?
AStable fracture
BSimple fracture
CNeurovascular compromise
DPediatric fracture
Question 70Single Answer
The most common nerve injured in a supracondylar humerus fracture is?
ARadial nerve
BMedian nerve
CUlnar nerve
DAxillary nerve
Question 71Single Answer
Which imaging modality is best for detecting soft tissue injuries in polytrauma?
AX-ray
BCT
CUltrasound
DMRI
Question 72Single Answer
The primary purpose of a splint in fracture management is?
APermanent fixation
BInfection prevention
CBone alignment
DTemporary immobilization
Question 73Single Answer
Which type of fracture is most likely to cause a vascular injury?
AClavicle fracture
BMetatarsal fracture
CDistal radius fracture
DSupracondylar humerus fracture
Question 74Single Answer
The most common cause of non-union is?
AAdequate blood supply
BEarly mobilization
CPoor vascularity
DProper immobilization
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of atrophic non-union?
AExcessive callus formation
BBone deformity
CLack of callus formation
DJoint stiffness
Question 76Single Answer
The most common site for stress fractures is?
AFemur
BTibia
CScaphoid
DClavicle
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following is a principle of ATLS?
APrioritize life-threatening conditions
BTreat minor injuries first
CPerform definitive fracture fixation immediately
DAvoid imaging studies
Question 78Single Answer
The most common cause of death in polytrauma patients is?
AHypovolemic shock
BInfection
CFat embolism
DCompartment syndrome
Question 79Single Answer
Which fracture is most likely to cause a spinal injury?
AClavicle fracture
BMetatarsal fracture
CDistal radius fracture
DPelvic fracture
Question 80Single Answer
The most common complication of pelvic fractures is?
AHemorrhage
BAvascular necrosis
CNon-union
DMyositis ossificans
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a greenstick fracture?
AComplete break through the bone
BBone displacement
CMultiple bone fragments
DIncomplete break with bending
Question 82Single Answer
The most common site for a greenstick fracture is?
AForearm
BFemur
CTibia
DSpine
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following is a contraindication for external fixation?
AOpen fracture
BSevere soft tissue infection
CComminuted fracture
DUnstable fracture
Question 84Single Answer
The most common cause of myositis ossificans is?
ABone infection
BTrauma to muscle
CBone resorption
DJoint dislocation
Question 85Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a comminuted fracture?
AMultiple bone fragments
BSingle clean break
CIncomplete break
DBone bending
Question 86Single Answer
The most common site for a comminuted fracture is?
ARadius
BScaphoid
CClavicle
DFemur
Question 87Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a spiral fracture?
AStraight break across the bone
BMultiple bone fragments
CTwisting pattern of the break
DIncomplete break
Question 88Single Answer
The most common cause of a spiral fracture is?
ACompression
BTorsion
CTension
DShear
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a transverse fracture?
AStraight break across the bone
BDiagonal break
CTwisting break
DMultiple fragments
Question 90Single Answer
The most common cause of a transverse fracture is?
ABending
BTorsion
CCompression
DTension
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of an avulsion fracture?
ATwisting break
BMultiple bone fragments
CStraight break across the bone
DBone fragment pulled off by a tendon or ligament
Question 92Single Answer
The most common site for an avulsion fracture is?
APelvis
BScaphoid
CClavicle
DRadius
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a stress fracture?
ACaused by a single high-energy trauma
BComplete break through the bone
CCaused by repetitive microtrauma
DMultiple bone fragments
Question 94Single Answer
The most common site for a stress fracture in athletes is?
AFemur
BClavicle
CScaphoid
DTibia
Question 95Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a pathological fracture?
AOccurs in diseased or weakened bone
BOccurs in healthy bone
CCaused by high-energy trauma
DAlways involves multiple fragments
Question 96Single Answer
The most common cause of a pathological fracture is?
AOsteoporosis
BInfection
CTrauma
DMuscle strain
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of an open fracture?
ASkin remains intact
BIncomplete break
CBone penetrates the skin
DNo soft tissue injury
Question 98Single Answer
The Gustilo-Anderson classification is used for?
AClosed fractures
BPathological fractures
CStress fractures
DOpen fractures
Question 99Single Answer
Which Gustilo-Anderson type indicates an open fracture with extensive soft tissue damage?
AType I
BType II
CType III
DType IV
Question 100Single Answer
The most common complication of an open fracture is?
AAvascular necrosis
BMalunion
CNon-union
DInfection
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following is a principle of open fracture management?
AAvoid antibiotics
BImmediate definitive fixation
CDelayed wound closure
DAvoid debridement
Question 102Single Answer
The most common organism causing infection in open fractures is?
APseudomonas aeruginosa
BEscherichia coli
CStaphylococcus aureus
DStreptococcus pneumoniae
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a closed fracture?
ABone penetrates the skin
BExtensive soft tissue damage
CSkin remains intact
DAlways requires surgery
Question 104Single Answer
The most common site for a closed fracture is?
ADistal radius
BScaphoid
CPelvis
DSpine
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Salter-Harris fracture?
AOccurs in adults
BAlways requires surgery
CInvolves the growth plate in children
DOccurs in diseased bone
Question 106Single Answer
The most common type of Salter-Harris fracture is?
AType I
BType II
CType III
DType IV
Question 107Single Answer
Which Salter-Harris fracture type involves a fracture through the growth plate and metaphysis?
AType I
BType III
CType II
DType IV
Question 108Single Answer
The most common complication of a Salter-Harris fracture is?
AInfection
BMalunion
CNon-union
DGrowth disturbance
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Monteggia fracture?
AFracture of the radius with ulnar dislocation
BFracture of the humerus
CFracture of both radius and ulna
DFracture of the ulna with radial head dislocation
Question 110Single Answer
The most common nerve injured in a Monteggia fracture is?
ARadial nerve
BMedian nerve
CUlnar nerve
DAxillary nerve
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Galeazzi fracture?
AFracture of the ulna with radial head dislocation
BFracture of the humerus
CFracture of both radius and ulna
DFracture of the radius with distal radioulnar joint dislocation
Question 112Single Answer
The most common complication of a Galeazzi fracture is?
ANon-union
BInfection
CMalunion
DCompartment syndrome
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Collesβ fracture?
AProximal radius fracture
BDistal radius fracture with volar displacement
CDistal radius fracture with dorsal displacement
DScaphoid fracture
Question 114Single Answer
The most common complication of a Collesβ fracture is?
AAvascular necrosis
BNon-union
CInfection
DMalunion
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Smithβs fracture?
ADistal radius fracture with dorsal displacement
BDistal radius fracture with volar displacement
CProximal radius fracture
DScaphoid fracture
Question 116Single Answer
The most common cause of a Smithβs fracture is?
AFall on an outstretched hand
BDirect blow to the wrist
CFall on a flexed wrist
DTorsion injury
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Bartonβs fracture?
AExtra-articular fracture of the distal radius
BIntra-articular fracture of the distal radius
CScaphoid fracture
DProximal radius fracture
Question 118Single Answer
The most common treatment for a Bartonβs fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BOpen reduction and internal fixation
CClosed reduction
DTraction
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a scaphoid fracture?
AHigh risk of avascular necrosis
BLow risk of avascular necrosis
CAlways heals without complications
DNever requires surgery
Question 120Single Answer
The most common site for a scaphoid fracture is?
AProximal pole
BDistal pole
CWaist
DTubercle
Question 121Single Answer
Which imaging modality is best for detecting a scaphoid fracture?
AMRI
BCT
CX-ray
DUltrasound
Question 122Single Answer
The most common treatment for a non-displaced scaphoid fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BOpen reduction and internal fixation
CTraction
DExternal fixation
Question 123Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Bennettβs fracture?
AFracture of the proximal phalanx
BExtra-articular fracture of the thumb
CIntra-articular fracture of the base of the thumb metacarpal
DScaphoid fracture
Question 124Single Answer
The most common treatment for a Bennettβs fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BClosed reduction
COpen reduction and internal fixation
DTraction
Question 125Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Rolando fracture?
AProximal phalanx fracture
BExtra-articular fracture of the thumb
CScaphoid fracture
DComminuted intra-articular fracture of the thumb metacarpal
Question 126Single Answer
The most common complication of a Rolando fracture is?
ANon-union
BInfection
CArthritis
DCompartment syndrome
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a boxerβs fracture?
AFracture of the proximal phalanx
BFracture of the fifth metacarpal neck
CScaphoid fracture
DDistal radius fracture
Question 128Single Answer
The most common cause of a boxerβs fracture is?
AFall on an outstretched hand
BPunching a hard surface
CTorsion injury
DCompression injury
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a tibial plateau fracture?
AExtra-articular fracture
BIntra-articular fracture of the proximal tibia
CDistal tibia fracture
DFibula fracture
Question 130Single Answer
The most common complication of a tibial plateau fracture is?
AArthritis
BAvascular necrosis
CNon-union
DInfection
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a pilon fracture?
AIntra-articular fracture of the distal tibia
BFracture of the proximal tibia
CFibula fracture
DPatella fracture
Question 132Single Answer
The most common treatment for a pilon fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BOpen reduction and internal fixation
CClosed reduction
DTraction
Question 133Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a calcaneal fracture?
AHigh-energy intra-articular fracture
BLow-energy injury
CExtra-articular fracture
DStress fracture
Question 134Single Answer
The most common complication of a calcaneal fracture is?
AAvascular necrosis
BInfection
CNon-union
DArthritis
Question 135Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Lisfranc injury?
AFracture of the calcaneus
BFracture-dislocation of the tarsometatarsal joint
CAnkle fracture
DMetatarsal stress fracture
Question 136Single Answer
The most common treatment for a Lisfranc injury is?
ACast immobilization
BOpen reduction and internal fixation
CClosed reduction
DTraction
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Jones fracture?
AFracture of the distal fifth metatarsal
BFracture of the proximal fifth metatarsal
CStress fracture of the tibia
DCalcaneal fracture
Question 138Single Answer
The most common complication of a Jones fracture is?
AArthritis
BNon-union
CInfection
DCompartment syndrome
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Maisonneuve fracture?
ADistal fibula fracture
BProximal fibula fracture with ankle syndesmosis injury
CTibial plateau fracture
DCalcaneal fracture
Question 140Single Answer
The most common treatment for a Maisonneuve fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BClosed reduction
COpen reduction and internal fixation
DTraction
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Chance fracture?
ATransverse fracture through the vertebral body
BCompression fracture of the lumbar spine
CStress fracture of the spine
DFracture of the cervical spine
Question 142Single Answer
The most common cause of a Chance fracture is?
AFall from height
BTorsion injury
CDirect blow to the spine
DSeatbelt injury in a motor vehicle accident
Question 143Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a Jefferson fracture?
ALumbar spine fracture
BFracture of the axis (C2)
CFracture of the atlas (C1)
DThoracic spine fracture
Question 144Single Answer
The most common cause of a Jefferson fracture is?
AAxial compression
BTorsion injury
CFlexion injury
DExtension injury
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a hangmanβs fracture?
AFracture of the atlas (C1)
BThoracic spine fracture
CLumbar spine fracture
DFracture of the axis (C2) pedicles
Question 146Single Answer
The most common cause of a hangmanβs fracture is?
AFlexion injury
BAxial compression
CExtension injury
DTorsion injury
Question 147Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a burst fracture?
AFracture of the entire vertebral body with retropulsion
BCompression of the anterior vertebral body
CStress fracture of the spine
DTransverse fracture of the spine
Question 148Single Answer
The most common treatment for a stable burst fracture is?
AOpen reduction and internal fixation
BBracing
CTraction
DImmediate surgery
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a compression fracture?
ACollapse of the anterior vertebral body
BFracture of the posterior vertebral elements
CTransverse fracture through the spine
DFracture-dislocation of the spine
Question 150Single Answer
The most common cause of a compression fracture is?
AHigh-energy trauma
BOsteoporosis
CTorsion injury
DInfection
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a fracture-dislocation of the spine?
ADisruption of vertebral alignment with fracture
BStable injury
CCompression of the anterior vertebral body
DStress fracture
Question 152Single Answer
The most common treatment for a fracture-dislocation of the spine is?
AOpen reduction and internal fixation
BCast immobilization
CClosed reduction
DTraction
Question 153Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a pelvic ring fracture?
ADisruption of the pelvic ring with potential instability
BStable injury
CStress fracture of the pelvis
DIsolated iliac wing fracture
Question 154Single Answer
The most common complication of a pelvic ring fracture is?
AAvascular necrosis
BNon-union
CHemorrhage
DArthritis
Question 155Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of an acetabular fracture?
AIntra-articular fracture of the hip joint
BExtra-articular fracture
CStress fracture of the pelvis
DIsolated iliac wing fracture
Question 156Single Answer
The most common treatment for an acetabular fracture is?
AOpen reduction and internal fixation
BCast immobilization
CClosed reduction
DTraction
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a femoral neck fracture?
ALow risk of avascular necrosis
BNever requires surgery
CAlways heals without complications
DHigh risk of avascular necrosis
Question 158Single Answer
The most common treatment for a displaced femoral neck fracture in a young patient is?
AOpen reduction and internal fixation
BCast immobilization
CClosed reduction
DTraction
Question 159Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of an intertrochanteric fracture?
AIntra-articular fracture
BPathological fracture
CStress fracture
DExtra-articular fracture of the proximal femur
Question 160Single Answer
The most common treatment for an intertrochanteric fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BDynamic hip screw or intramedullary nailing
CClosed reduction
DTraction
Question 161Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a subtrochanteric fracture?
AIntra-articular fracture
BPathological fracture
CStress fracture
DFracture below the lesser trochanter
Question 162Single Answer
The most common treatment for a subtrochanteric fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BIntramedullary nailing
CClosed reduction
DTraction
Question 163Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a femoral shaft fracture?
AHigh-energy injury
BLow-energy injury
CIntra-articular fracture
DStress fracture
Question 164Single Answer
The most common treatment for a femoral shaft fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BTraction
CClosed reduction
DIntramedullary nailing
Question 165Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a distal femur fracture?
AExtra-articular fracture
BStress fracture
CIntra-articular fracture
DPathological fracture
Question 166Single Answer
The most common treatment for a distal femur fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BTraction
CClosed reduction
DOpen reduction and internal fixation
Question 167Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a patellar fracture?
AExtra-articular fracture
BStress fracture
CIntra-articular fracture of the knee
DPathological fracture
Question 168Single Answer
The most common treatment for a displaced patellar fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BClosed reduction
COpen reduction and internal fixation
DTraction
Question 169Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of a tibial shaft fracture?
ALow risk of compartment syndrome
BIntra-articular fracture
CHigh risk of compartment syndrome
DStress fracture
Question 170Single Answer
The most common treatment for a tibial shaft fracture is?
ACast immobilization
BTraction
CClosed reduction
DIntramedullary nailing
Question 171Single Answer
What is the most common site of clavicle fracture?
AMiddle third
BProximal third
CDistal third
DAcromial end
Question 172Single Answer
What is a common complication of a distal clavicle fracture?
ANon-union
BMalunion
CRadial nerve palsy
DAvascular necrosis
Question 173Single Answer
What is the preferred initial management for a midshaft clavicle fracture in adults?
ATotal shoulder arthroplasty
BOpen reduction and internal fixation
CIntramedullary nailing
DFigure-of-eight brace
Question 174Single Answer
Which structure is at risk in a scapula body fracture?
ARadial nerve
BSuprascapular nerve
CUlnar nerve
DMedian nerve
Question 175Single Answer
What is the typical management for an acromioclavicular joint dislocation (Rockwood Type III)?
AIntramedullary nailing
BSurgical fixation
CConservative with sling
DArthroscopy
Question 176Single Answer
What is a feature of a sternoclavicular joint dislocation?
ACommon in children
BAlways treated conservatively
CAssociated with radial nerve injury
DPosterior dislocation may compress trachea
Question 177Single Answer
According to Neer's classification, what defines a two-part proximal humerus fracture?
ADisplacement of one fragment
BInvolvement of all four parts
CNo displacement
DComminuted fracture
Question 178Single Answer
What is a common complication of proximal humerus fractures?
ACompartment syndrome
BAvascular necrosis
CUlnar nerve injury
DMalunion
Question 179Single Answer
What is the most common nerve injured in humeral shaft fractures?
AMedian nerve
BUlnar nerve
CRadial nerve
DAxillary nerve
Question 180Single Answer
According to Gartland classification, what characterizes a Type III supracondylar humerus fracture?
AComplete displacement
BNon-displaced
CPartial displacement
DGreenstick fracture
Question 181Single Answer
What is a potential complication of supracondylar humerus fractures in children?
AVolkmann's ischemic contracture
BAvascular necrosis
CNon-union
DRadial nerve palsy
Question 182Single Answer
What is the preferred treatment for a displaced lateral condyle fracture of the humerus?
AArthroscopic repair
BClosed reduction and casting
CSling immobilization
DOpen reduction and internal fixation
Question 183Single Answer
What is the most common type of radial head fracture in adults?
AMason Type I
BMason Type II
CMason Type III
DMason Type IV
Question 184Single Answer
What is the treatment for a non-displaced olecranon fracture?
APlate fixation
BTension band wiring
CLong arm cast
DArthroscopy
Question 185Single Answer
What defines a Monteggia fracture-dislocation?
ADistal radius fracture with ulnar dislocation
BProximal ulna fracture with radial head dislocation
CBoth bones forearm fracture
DRadial head fracture with elbow dislocation
Question 186Single Answer
What is a feature of a Galeazzi fracture-dislocation?
ADistal radius fracture with DRUJ dislocation
BProximal ulna fracture with radial head dislocation
CBoth bones forearm fracture
DOlecranon fracture with elbow dislocation
Question 187Single Answer
What is the preferred treatment for displaced both bones forearm fractures in adults?
AOpen reduction and plate fixation
BClosed reduction and casting
CIntramedullary nailing
DExternal fixation
Question 188Single Answer
What is a common feature of both bones forearm fractures in children?
AFrequent non-union
BHigh remodeling potential
CAvascular necrosis
DCompartment syndrome
Question 189Single Answer
What is a potential complication of forearm fractures?
AAvascular necrosis
BCompartment syndrome
CNon-union
DRadial nerve palsy
Question 190Single Answer
What is the characteristic feature of a Colles' fracture?
ADorsal angulation of distal radius
BVolar angulation of distal radius
CIntra-articular fracture
DProximal radius fracture
Question 191Single Answer
What is the hallmark of a Smith's fracture?
AIntra-articular fracture
BDorsal angulation of distal radius
CVolar angulation of distal radius
DScaphoid involvement
Question 192Single Answer
What is a feature of a Barton's fracture?
AScaphoid fracture
BExtra-articular fracture
CIntra-articular distal radius fracture
DLunate dislocation
Question 193Single Answer
What is a common complication of scaphoid fractures?
AAvascular necrosis
BMalunion
CCompartment syndrome
DUlnar nerve injury
Question 194Single Answer
What is the preferred imaging for suspected scaphoid fracture with normal X-rays?
ABone scan
BCT scan
CUltrasound
DMRI
Question 195Single Answer
What is a characteristic of lunate dislocation?
ARadial nerve injury
BDorsal angulation
CSpilled teacup sign on X-ray
DNon-displaced fracture
Question 196Single Answer
What is the treatment for a displaced metacarpal fracture?
AClosed reduction and casting
BOpen reduction and internal fixation
CBuddy taping
DSplinting alone
Question 197Single Answer
According to Tile classification, what characterizes a Type A pelvic fracture?
AVertically unstable
BRotationally unstable
CStable fracture
DComminuted fracture
Question 198Single Answer
What is a common associated injury with unstable pelvic fractures?
ARadial nerve palsy
BUrethral injury
CAvascular necrosis
DCompartment syndrome
Question 199Single Answer
According to Young & Burgess classification, what defines a lateral compression pelvic fracture?
AAnterior-posterior compression
BVertical shear
CSacral compression
DCombined mechanism
Question 200Single Answer
What is the initial management for an unstable pelvic fracture?