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Latest OPSC Assistant Professor Orthopaedic Surgery Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Concerned Subject (Orthopaedic Surgery)

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Concerned Subject (Orthopaedic Surgery)

Question 1Single Answer
What is the definition of a fracture?
  1. AComplete or incomplete break in the continuity of a bone
  2. BPartial displacement of a joint
  3. CTearing of a ligament
  4. DOverstretching of a muscle
Question 2Single Answer
A dislocation is best described as?
  1. APartial loss of contact between articular surfaces
  2. BA tear in a tendon
  3. CComplete loss of contact between articular surfaces
  4. DA bone break with soft tissue injury
Question 3Single Answer
What is the term for partial displacement of a joint?
  1. ADislocation
  2. BSubluxation
  3. CSprain
  4. DStrain
Question 4Single Answer
A sprain involves injury to which structure?
  1. ABone
  2. BTendon
  3. CMuscle
  4. DLigament
Question 5Single Answer
What is the definition of a strain?
  1. AInjury to a ligament
  2. BComplete bone break
  3. CInjury to a muscle or tendon
  4. DJoint dislocation
Question 6Single Answer
Which type of trauma involves a direct blow to the bone?
  1. AIndirect trauma
  2. BHigh-energy trauma
  3. CDirect trauma
  4. DLow-energy trauma
Question 7Single Answer
Indirect trauma is characterized by?
  1. AForce applied directly to the injury site
  2. BPenetrating injury
  3. CLow-velocity impact
  4. DForce transmitted through the body to cause injury
Question 8Single Answer
A high-energy trauma is most likely to cause?
  1. AComplex fractures or dislocations
  2. BSimple sprain
  3. CMinor soft tissue injury
  4. DStress fracture
Question 9Single Answer
Low-energy trauma typically results in?
  1. AComminuted fractures
  2. BSimple fractures or sprains
  3. CPolytrauma
  4. DOpen fractures
Question 10Single Answer
Which force causes a spiral fracture?
  1. ACompression
  2. BTorsion
  3. CTension
  4. DShear
Question 11Single Answer
A transverse fracture is most commonly caused by which force?
  1. ATorsion
  2. BShear
  3. CCompression
  4. DBending
Question 12Single Answer
What type of force is primarily responsible for a crush fracture?
  1. ATension
  2. BCompression
  3. CTorsion
  4. DBending
Question 13Single Answer
Which force stretches a bone, leading to a possible avulsion fracture?
  1. ATension
  2. BShear
  3. CCompression
  4. DTorsion
Question 14Single Answer
Shear force in fractures results in?
  1. ABone surfaces sliding past each other
  2. BBone compression
  3. CSpiral fractures
  4. DBone elongation
Question 15Single Answer
The stress-strain curve of a bone represents?
  1. ABone density
  2. BBone mineral content
  3. CBone’s response to applied force
  4. DBone growth rate
Question 16Single Answer
In the stress-strain curve, the elastic region indicates?
  1. AReversible deformation
  2. BPermanent deformation
  3. CBone fracture
  4. DBone necrosis
Question 17Single Answer
The plastic deformation region of a bone’s stress-strain curve leads to?
  1. AComplete bone failure
  2. BReversible bone changes
  3. CBone regeneration
  4. DPermanent deformation without breaking
Question 18Single Answer
What is the first step in clinical evaluation of a suspected fracture?
  1. AAssess pain, swelling, and deformity
  2. BOrder an MRI
  3. CApply a cast
  4. DPerform surgical reduction
Question 19Single Answer
Which clinical sign is specific to fractures?
  1. ASwelling
  2. BBruising
  3. CPain
  4. DCrepitus
Question 20Single Answer
What is the minimum number of X-ray views required to evaluate a fracture?
  1. AOne
  2. BThree
  3. CTwo
  4. DFour
Question 21Single Answer
Why are two joints included in X-rays for fracture evaluation?
  1. ATo assess soft tissue injury
  2. BTo evaluate muscle injury
  3. CTo measure bone density
  4. DTo rule out associated dislocations or fractures
Question 22Single Answer
Which imaging modality is best for detecting stress fractures?
  1. AX-ray
  2. BCT
  3. CUltrasound
  4. DMRI
Question 23Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of fracture reduction?
  1. ATo immobilize the bone
  2. BTo prevent infection
  3. CTo restore anatomical alignment
  4. DTo promote early mobilization
Question 24Single Answer
Closed reduction of a fracture involves?
  1. ASurgical intervention
  2. BManual manipulation without surgery
  3. CInternal fixation
  4. DExternal fixation
Question 25Single Answer
Open reduction is indicated when?
  1. APatient prefers non-surgical treatment
  2. BFracture is stable
  3. CSoft tissue injury is absent
  4. DClosed reduction fails
Question 26Single Answer
Which method is used for temporary immobilization of a fracture?
  1. ACast or splint
  2. BInternal fixation
  3. CIntramedullary nailing
  4. DPlate fixation
Question 27Single Answer
Traction is primarily used for?
  1. APermanent fracture fixation
  2. BJoint replacement
  3. CSoft tissue repair
  4. DTemporary alignment and stabilization
Question 28Single Answer
External fixators are most commonly used in?
  1. AStable fractures
  2. BPediatric fractures
  3. CStress fractures
  4. DOpen fractures with soft tissue damage
Question 29Single Answer
Which device is used for internal fixation of a fracture?
  1. ACast
  2. BIntramedullary nail
  3. CSplint
  4. DTraction
Question 30Single Answer
What is the role of physiotherapy in fracture management?
  1. ATo restore function and strength
  2. BTo reduce the fracture
  3. CTo perform surgical fixation
  4. DTo diagnose the fracture
Question 31Single Answer
Occupational therapy in fracture rehabilitation focuses on?
  1. APain management
  2. BInfection control
  3. CBone alignment
  4. DRestoring daily functional activities
Question 32Single Answer
What is an early complication of a fracture?
  1. ACompartment syndrome
  2. BMalunion
  3. CNon-union
  4. DAvascular necrosis
Question 33Single Answer
Fat embolism syndrome is most commonly associated with?
  1. ALong bone fractures
  2. BPelvic fractures
  3. CSkull fractures
  4. DRib fractures
Question 34Single Answer
Which early fracture complication is characterized by increased intracompartmental pressure?
  1. AFat embolism
  2. BInfection
  3. CCompartment syndrome
  4. DShock
Question 35Single Answer
What is a common symptom of compartment syndrome?
  1. AFever
  2. BBone deformity
  3. CSevere pain out of proportion to injury
  4. DJoint stiffness
Question 36Single Answer
Which nerve injury is commonly associated with humeral shaft fractures?
  1. AMedian nerve
  2. BUlnar nerve
  3. CRadial nerve
  4. DAxillary nerve
Question 37Single Answer
Vascular injury is most likely to occur in which type of fracture?
  1. ADisplaced supracondylar humerus fracture
  2. BStress fracture
  3. CSimple rib fracture
  4. DHairline tibial fracture
Question 38Single Answer
What is a late complication of a fracture?
  1. AShock
  2. BFat embolism
  3. CCompartment syndrome
  4. DNon-union
Question 39Single Answer
Delayed union of a fracture is defined as?
  1. AComplete bone healing
  2. BFailure to heal within expected time
  3. CMalaligned bone healing
  4. DInfection at fracture site
Question 40Single Answer
Hypertrophic non-union is characterized by?
  1. ABone resorption
  2. BNo callus formation
  3. CExcessive callus formation
  4. DAvascular necrosis
Question 41Single Answer
Atrophic non-union is caused by?
  1. AExcessive bone growth
  2. BInfection
  3. COveruse of the limb
  4. DInadequate blood supply
Question 42Single Answer
Malunion refers to?
  1. AInfection at the fracture site
  2. BFailure of bone to heal
  3. CBone healing in an incorrect position
  4. DBone necrosis
Question 43Single Answer
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is most commonly associated with which fracture?
  1. ADistal radius fracture
  2. BClavicle fracture
  3. CTibial shaft fracture
  4. DScaphoid fracture
Question 44Single Answer
Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is characterized by?
  1. ABone deformity
  2. BBone infection
  3. CSevere pain, swelling, and skin changes
  4. DJoint dislocation
Question 45Single Answer
Myositis ossificans is a complication involving?
  1. AHeterotopic bone formation in soft tissue
  2. BBone infection
  3. CBone resorption
  4. DJoint stiffness
Question 46Single Answer
Growth disturbances in pediatric fractures are caused by?
  1. AMalunion
  2. BSoft tissue injury
  3. CInfection
  4. DInjury to the growth plate
Question 47Single Answer
Polytrauma is defined as?
  1. AA single severe injury
  2. BMultiple severe injuries in multiple body regions
  3. CA fracture with soft tissue injury
  4. DA dislocation with nerve injury
Question 48Single Answer
What is the first step in the primary survey of a polytrauma patient?
  1. AControl bleeding
  2. BCheck neurological status
  3. CPerform X-rays
  4. DAssess airway
Question 49Single Answer
According to ATLS, what does the "C" in ABCDE stand for?
  1. AConsciousness
  2. BCirculation
  3. CCervical spine
  4. DCompression
Question 50Single Answer
The secondary survey in polytrauma involves?
  1. AImmediate life-saving interventions
  2. BDetailed head-to-toe examination
  3. CAirway management
  4. DChest decompression
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