Which of the following is a common cause of hypoxia?
A
Increased oxygen tension
B
Anemia
C
Hypernatremia
D
Acidosis
Question 2Single Answer
Which cellular component is most sensitive to hypoxia?
A
Lysosome
B
Ribosome
C
Mitochondria
D
Endoplasmic reticulum
Question 3Single Answer
Which is an example of chemical injury to a cell?
A
Ionizing radiation
B
Cyanide poisoning
C
Ischemia
D
Hypoglycemia
Question 4Single Answer
Free radical injury is most commonly associated with which process?
A
Hyperplasia
B
Apoptosis
C
Lipid peroxidation
D
Protein phosphorylation
Question 5Single Answer
Which enzyme neutralizes superoxide anions?
A
Catalase
B
Glutathione peroxidase
C
Superoxide dismutase
D
Peroxidase
Question 6Single Answer
Which condition is a cause of ischemic cell injury?
A
Septicemia
B
Myocardial infarction
C
Anemia
D
Polycythemia
Question 7Single Answer
The earliest manifestation of reversible cell injury is:
A
Fatty change
B
Cell membrane damage
C
Cell swelling
D
Nuclear fragmentation
Question 8Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a free radical scavenger?
A
Vitamin E
B
Superoxide dismutase
C
Glutathione
D
Carbon tetrachloride
Question 9Single Answer
ATP depletion is most critical to which cellular function?
A
DNA replication
B
NaK ATPase pump
C
Lipid synthesis
D
Ribosome function
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following is a morphological hallmark of irreversible cell injury?
A
Ribosomal detachment
B
Plasma membrane blebbing
C
Nuclear fragmentation (karyorrhexis)
D
Cellular swelling
Question 11Single Answer
An increase in cell size due to increased workload is called:
A
Hyperplasia
B
Atrophy
C
Metaplasia
D
Hypertrophy
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of physiological hyperplasia?
A
Endometrial proliferation during menstrual cycle
B
Benign prostatic enlargement
C
Psoriasis
D
Cushing syndrome
Question 13Single Answer
A decrease in cell size and function due to reduced workload is known as:
A
Hyperplasia
B
Atrophy
C
Metaplasia
D
Dysplasia
Question 14Single Answer
Replacement of one adult cell type by another is called:
A
Dysplasia
B
Hyperplasia
C
Metaplasia
D
Anaplasia
Question 15Single Answer
Which of the following is a premalignant condition?
A
Hypertrophy
B
Hyperplasia
C
Metaplasia
D
Dysplasia
Question 16Single Answer
Barrett’s esophagus is an example of:
A
Squamous metaplasia
B
Intestinal metaplasia
C
Dysplasia
D
Hypertrophy
Question 17Single Answer
In which condition is physiological atrophy normally seen?
A
Muscle in hypertensive heart disease
B
Thymus in old age
C
Brain in cerebral infarction
D
Limb in immobilization
Question 18Single Answer
Which of the following is most likely to undergo hyperplasia rather than hypertrophy?
A
Skeletal muscle
B
Cardiac muscle
C
Hepatocytes
D
Neurons
Question 19Single Answer
Reversible change from one adult epithelial type to another is called:
A
Dysplasia
B
Metaplasia
C
Anaplasia
D
Neoplasia
Question 20Single Answer
Which adaptation is most commonly associated with chronic irritation?
A
Hyperplasia
B
Metaplasia
C
Atrophy
D
Hypertrophy
Question 21Single Answer
Apoptosis is best described as:
A
Pathologic cell death due to external injury
B
Uncontrolled cell lysis
C
Genetically programmed cell death
D
Inflammatory cell destruction
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of necrosis?
A
Cell shrinkage
B
Inflammatory response
C
Chromatin condensation
D
Formation of apoptotic bodies
Question 23Single Answer
Which type of necrosis is typically seen in tuberculosis?
A
Coagulative
B
Liquefactive
C
Caseous
D
Fat
Question 24Single Answer
Which protein is central to the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
A
Bcl-2
B
p53
C
Caspase-8
D
Fas ligand
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following types of necrosis is most commonly associated with hypoxia in solid organs?
A
Liquefactive
B
Caseous
C
Coagulative
D
Gangrenous
Question 26Single Answer
Which enzyme family is activated during apoptosis?
A
Caspases
B
Polymerases
C
Kinases
D
ATPases
Question 27Single Answer
In fat necrosis, the key microscopic finding is:
A
Caseation
B
Ghost cells
C
Saponification
D
Fibrinoid material
Question 28Single Answer
Liquefactive necrosis is typically seen in:
A
Heart infarction
B
Brain infarction
C
Tuberculosis
D
Fat necrosis
Question 29Single Answer
Which process involves DNA fragmentation without inflammation?
A
Necrosis
B
Autophagy
C
Apoptosis
D
Pyknosis
Question 30Single Answer
Which of the following statements about necrosis is true?
A
It is a physiological process
B
Cell membrane remains intact
C
Always involves inflammation
D
No leakage of cell contents
Question 31Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of autophagy?
A
Cellular swelling
B
Digestion of own cytoplasmic components in autophagic vacuoles
C
Apoptotic body formation
D
Lipid peroxidation
Question 32Single Answer
Which organelle is primarily involved in autophagy?
A
Golgi apparatus
B
Ribosomes
C
Lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 33Single Answer
Cytoskeletal abnormalities often lead to:
A
Increased protein synthesis
B
Membrane blebbing
C
Accumulation of intermediate filaments
D
Apoptosis
Question 34Single Answer
Which substance is most commonly accumulated in Mallory bodies?
A
Actin
B
Keratin
C
Glycogen
D
Lipofuscin
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of reversible subcellular injury?
A
Mitochondrial swelling
B
Nuclear fragmentation
C
Rupture of plasma membrane
D
Lysosomal rupture
Question 36Single Answer
Fatty change is most commonly seen in the:
A
Brain
B
Kidney
C
Liver
D
Pancreas
Question 37Single Answer
Which pigment is known as the "wear and tear" pigment?
A
Hemosiderin
B
Lipofuscin
C
Melanin
D
Bilirubin
Question 38Single Answer
Hemosiderin accumulation occurs in:
A
Hypoxia
B
Iron deficiency anemia
C
Hemochromatosis
D
Lead poisoning
Question 39Single Answer
In glycogen storage disease, glycogen accumulates mainly in:
A
Smooth muscle
B
Liver and muscle
C
Brain and lungs
D
Bone marrow and thymus
Question 40Single Answer
Russell bodies are accumulations of:
A
Lipids
B
DNA
C
Immunoglobulins
D
Glycogen
Question 41Single Answer
Which pigment is responsible for the yellow color in jaundice?
A
Bilirubin
B
Hemosiderin
C
Melanin
D
Lipofuscin
Question 42Single Answer
The accumulation of cholesterol esters in macrophages is characteristic of:
A
Atherosclerosis
B
Wilson’s disease
C
Alzheimer’s disease
D
Niemann-Pick disease
Question 43Single Answer
Which intracellular accumulation is PAS-positive?
A
Lipid
B
Glycogen
C
Calcium
D
Iron
Question 44Single Answer
Dystrophic calcification occurs in:
A
Normal tissues with hypercalcemia
B
Normal tissues with normal calcium
C
Damaged tissues with normal calcium levels
D
Damaged tissues with hypocalcemia
Question 45Single Answer
Metastatic calcification is associated with:
A
Tuberculosis
B
Malignancy
C
Hyperparathyroidism
D
Atherosclerosis
Question 46Single Answer
Dystrophic calcification is typically seen in:
A
Healthy myocardium
B
Normal lungs
C
Atherosclerotic plaques
D
Normal kidneys
Question 47Single Answer
Psammoma bodies are seen in all EXCEPT:
A
Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
B
Meningioma
C
Serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
D
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Question 48Single Answer
Which type of calcification occurs in necrotic tissue?
A
Dystrophic
B
Metastatic
C
Idiopathic
D
Systemic
Question 49Single Answer
Calcium deposits in normal tissues due to hypercalcemia is:
A
Dystrophic calcification
B
Metastatic calcification
C
Physiologic calcification
D
Idiopathic calcification
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following causes metastatic calcification?
A
Trauma
B
Dead parasites
C
Chronic renal failure
D
Fat necrosis
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Pathology
Question 51Single Answer
Which enzyme helps maintain telomere length?
A
DNA polymerase
B
RNA polymerase
C
Telomerase
D
Caspase
Question 52Single Answer
Which factor contributes to cellular aging?
A
Decreased mitochondrial free radicals
B
Shortening of telomeres
C
Enhanced DNA repair
D
Increased stem cell regeneration
Question 53Single Answer
The most accepted theory of aging involves:
A
Apoptosis
B
Free radical damage
C
Increased protein synthesis
D
Enhanced DNA stability
Question 54Single Answer
Senescence is defined as:
A
Programmed cell death
B
Pathologic cell injury
C
Permanent loss of cell division capacity
D
Neoplastic transformation
Question 55Single Answer
Which protein plays a role in DNA damage response and aging?
A
Ras
B
Bcl-2
C
p53
D
Akt
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following is associated with increased cellular lifespan?
A
Increased ROS
B
Decreased caloric intake
C
Increased mTOR activity
D
Enhanced insulin signaling
Question 57Single Answer
Cell swelling is best described as:
A
Necrotic and reversible
B
Apoptotic and irreversible
C
Irreversible damage
D
A nuclear change
Question 58Single Answer
The process of cell death that typically does not elicit inflammation is:
A
Necrosis
B
Gangrene
C
Apoptosis
D
Caseation
Question 59Single Answer
Hydropic change is seen in:
A
Apoptosis
B
Fatty liver
C
Reversible cell injury
D
Nuclear pyknosis
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following is a nuclear change associated with irreversible injury?
A
Karyolysis
B
Cell swelling
C
Mitochondrial edema
D
Cytoplasmic vacuolization
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following is common to both apoptosis and necrosis?
A
Cell swelling
B
ATP depletion
C
DNA fragmentation
D
Inflammation
Question 62Single Answer
Which process is seen in physiologic endometrial shedding?
A
Necrosis
B
Fat necrosis
C
Apoptosis
D
Liquefaction
Question 63Single Answer
A cell with condensed, dense nucleus and intact membrane is undergoing:
A
Apoptosis
B
Karyolysis
C
Necrosis
D
Liquefaction
Question 64Single Answer
Myocardial infarction leads to:
A
Liquefactive necrosis
B
Coagulative necrosis
C
Fat necrosis
D
Caseous necrosis
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following accumulations is seen in Niemann-Pick disease?
A
Glycogen
B
Sphingomyelin
C
Cholesterol
D
Iron
Question 66Single Answer
In aging, accumulation of which pigment is common?
A
Melanin
B
Hemosiderin
C
Lipofuscin
D
Bilirubin
Question 67Single Answer
Nuclear fragmentation is also called:
A
Pyknosis
B
Karyolysis
C
Karyorrhexis
D
Autolysis
Question 68Single Answer
A liver biopsy shows intracellular clear vacuoles that stain positive with Oil Red O. What is the likely diagnosis?
A
Glycogen storage
B
Fatty change
C
Apoptosis
D
Necrosis
Question 69Single Answer
A typical biochemical feature of necrosis is:
A
Increased ATP
B
Increased calcium influx
C
Reduced calcium influx
D
Increased protein synthesis
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following is most characteristic of dystrophic calcification?
A
Occurs in normal tissue
B
Occurs only in hyperparathyroidism
C
Normal serum calcium
D
Found only in neonates
Question 71Single Answer
Which is the first vascular change in acute inflammation?
A
Vasodilation
B
Increased vascular permeability
C
Transmigration
D
Margination
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following cells is predominant in early acute inflammation?
A
Lymphocytes
B
Plasma cells
C
Neutrophils
D
Macrophages
Question 73Single Answer
Which chemical mediator causes pain in inflammation?
A
Histamine
B
Bradykinin
C
Interleukin-1
D
Thromboxane A2
Question 74Single Answer
Histamine is released from:
A
Neutrophils
B
Mast cells
C
Lymphocytes
D
Macrophages
Question 75Single Answer
The primary function of selectins is in:
A
Chemotaxis
B
Firm adhesion
C
Rolling of leukocytes
D
Phagocytosis
Question 76Single Answer
Which is the most potent chemotactic agent for neutrophils?
A
IL-1
B
TNF-alpha
C
C5a
D
Bradykinin
Question 77Single Answer
Which arachidonic acid product causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation?
A
Leukotriene B4
B
Prostaglandin I2
C
Thromboxane A2
D
Platelet activating factor
Question 78Single Answer
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency is due to defect in:
A
CD14
B
Integrins
C
Complement C3
D
Selectins
Question 79Single Answer
A hallmark of acute inflammation is:
A
Fibrosis
B
Granuloma formation
C
Neutrophilic infiltration
D
Lymphocyte predominance
Question 80Single Answer
Which mediator is responsible for fever in acute inflammation?
A
Histamine
B
IL-1
C
Nitric oxide
D
Bradykinin
Question 81Single Answer
Which is the earliest event in acute inflammation?
A
Exudation
B
Margination
C
Vasodilation
D
Emigration
Question 82Single Answer
Serous inflammation is seen in:
A
Tuberculosis
B
Burns and viral infections
C
Rheumatoid arthritis
D
Ulcerative colitis
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following leads to pus formation in acute inflammation?
A
Lymphocyte accumulation
B
Plasma cell activation
C
Neutrophil infiltration and tissue necrosis
D
Eosinophilic infiltration
Question 84Single Answer
Which chemical mediator increases vascular permeability?
A
Thromboxane A2
B
Histamine
C
Prostaglandin D2
D
Leukotriene A4
Question 85Single Answer
Fibrinous inflammation is most commonly seen in:
A
Pericarditis
B
Pneumonia
C
Ulcerative colitis
D
Hepatitis
Question 86Single Answer
Chronic inflammation is characterized by the presence of:
A
Neutrophils
B
Eosinophils
C
Lymphocytes and macrophages
D
Mast cells
Question 87Single Answer
Granuloma formation involves:
A
Neutrophils
B
Multinucleated giant cells
C
Plasma cells only
D
Basophils
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with granulomatous inflammation?
A
Tuberculosis
B
Leprosy
C
Rheumatoid arthritis
D
Acute appendicitis
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following cytokines is essential for granuloma formation?
A
IL-1
B
TNF-alpha
C
IL-6
D
IL-2
Question 90Single Answer
Epithelioid cells are derived from:
A
Neutrophils
B
Macrophages
C
Fibroblasts
D
Plasma cells
Question 91Single Answer
In foreign body granuloma, the central area contains:
A
Caseous necrosis
B
Collagen
C
Indigestible material
D
Fibrin
Question 92Single Answer
Langhans giant cells are typically found in:
A
Sarcoidosis
B
Tuberculosis
C
Crohn’s disease
D
Foreign body granuloma
Question 93Single Answer
Which chronic inflammatory disease is characterized by non-caseating granulomas?
A
Tuberculosis
B
Sarcoidosis
C
Leprosy
D
Histoplasmosis
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following is a macrophage activation cytokine?
A
IL-10
B
IL-4
C
IFN-gamma
D
IL-13
Question 95Single Answer
Which type of cell dominates in parasitic granulomatous inflammation?
A
Neutrophils
B
Eosinophils
C
Plasma cells
D
Mast cells
Question 96Single Answer
Chronic inflammation leads to:
A
Caseous necrosis
B
Fibrosis and angiogenesis
C
Acute tissue damage
D
Only neutrophilic infiltration
Question 97Single Answer
Which immunoglobulin is associated with chronic inflammation?
A
IgM
B
IgE
C
IgG
D
IgA
Question 98Single Answer
Plasma cells are derived from:
A
B lymphocytes
B
Monocytes
C
T lymphocytes
D
Macrophages
Question 99Single Answer
Which of the following is not a feature of chronic inflammation?
A
Fibrosis
B
Angiogenesis
C
Exudation of fluid
D
Mononuclear infiltration
Question 100Single Answer
Granulomas are most likely seen in response to:
A
Viral infections
B
Persistent microbes or foreign bodies
C
Immediate hypersensitivity
D
Acute trauma
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following tissues has the highest regenerative capacity?
A
Cardiac muscle
B
Neurons
C
Liver
D
Skeletal muscle
Question 102Single Answer
Healing by primary intention occurs when:
A
The wound is infected
B
There is significant tissue loss
C
Edges of the wound are closely apposed
D
There is delayed suturing
Question 103Single Answer
Which growth factor is most important for angiogenesis during tissue repair?
A
EGF
B
VEGF
C
TGF
D
PDGF
Question 104Single Answer
The earliest step in wound healing is:
A
Fibroblast migration
B
Angiogenesis
C
Clot formation
D
Collagen deposition
Question 105Single Answer
Granulation tissue primarily consists of:
A
Collagen and plasma cells
B
Fibroblasts, capillaries, and inflammatory cells
C
Necrotic debris and neutrophils
D
Epithelioid cells and giant cells
Question 106Single Answer
Which type of collagen is predominantly laid down in early wound healing?
A
Type I
B
Type II
C
Type III
D
Type IV
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following cells plays a key role in tissue remodeling during wound healing?
A
Neutrophils
B
Macrophages
C
Mast cells
D
Natural killer cells
Question 108Single Answer
Wound healing by secondary intention differs from primary intention in that it involves:
A
Less scarring
B
Faster healing
C
Large tissue loss and granulation tissue
D
No inflammation
Question 109Single Answer
TGF promotes:
A
Neutrophil migration
B
Fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis
C
Vasodilation
D
Hemostasis
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following best describes fibrosis?
A
Proliferation of neurons
B
Proliferation of endothelial cells
C
Excessive deposition of collagen
D
Increased vascular permeability
Question 111Single Answer
Which phase of wound healing involves new blood vessel formation?
A
Inflammatory phase
B
Proliferative phase
C
Remodeling phase
D
Hemostasis phase
Question 112Single Answer
The enzyme important in collagen cross-linking is:
A
Elastase
B
Lysyl oxidase
C
Matrix metalloproteinase
D
Collagenase
Question 113Single Answer
Which type of collagen replaces type III collagen during wound remodeling?
A
Type II
B
Type IV
C
Type I
D
Type V
Question 114Single Answer
Contraction of a wound is mainly due to the action of:
A
Endothelial cells
B
Myofibroblasts
C
Macrophages
D
Neutrophils
Question 115Single Answer
Complete tensile strength of a healed wound is usually restored in:
A
1 week
B
2 weeks
C
1 month
D
Several months
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT delay wound healing?
A
Vitamin C deficiency
B
Diabetes mellitus
C
Infection
D
Increased oxygenation
Question 117Single Answer
Vitamin C helps in wound healing by:
A
Stimulating platelet aggregation
B
Acting as an antioxidant
C
Helping in collagen hydroxylation
D
Enhancing neutrophil function
Question 118Single Answer
Zinc is important in wound healing because it is a cofactor for:
A
Lysyl oxidase
B
DNA polymerase
C
Superoxide dismutase
D
Matrix metalloproteinases
Question 119Single Answer
Which systemic disease is most commonly associated with delayed wound healing?
A
Hypertension
B
Diabetes mellitus
C
Hyperthyroidism
D
Asthma
Question 120Single Answer
Which of the following conditions leads to keloid formation?
