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Latest OPSC APP Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and Bharatiya Nagarika Surakhya Sanhita, 2023, The Indian Penal Code, 1860 and Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; and, The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
Question Bank OPSC Assistant Public Prosecutor Preliminary Exam - English
The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and Bharatiya Nagarika Surakhya Sanhita, 2023
Q 1 :
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
A.Only (i) is correct
B.Only (ii) is correct
C.Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
D.Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Q 2 :
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
A.Chapter VIII
B.Chapter IX
C.Chapter X
D.Chapter XI
Q 3 :
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
A.State of Tripura
B.State of Assam
C.State of Meghalya
D.State of Nagaland
Q 4 :
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
A.State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
B.Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
C.Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
D.State of Nagaland v. Chung
Q 5 :
What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
A.Municipal area of Shilong
B.Municipal area of Mizoram
C.Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
D.Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Q 6 :
Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 7 :
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?
A.On April 1, 1973
B.On April 1, 1974
C.On January 1, 1974
D.On March 1, 1974
Q 8 :
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?
A.25-12-1973
B.25-01-1974
C.25-02-1974
D.25-05-1974
Q 9 :
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :
A.21st July, 2005
B.23rd June, 2005
C.22nd August, 2005
D.20th September, 2005
Q 10 :
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on
A.6th April, 2013
B.3rd February, 2013
C.7th January, 2013
D.5th March, 2013
Q 11 :
Consider the following statements -
1. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
2. The provisions relating to Chapters VIII, X, XI under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall not apply to the State of Nagaland and to the Tribal Areas
3. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall came into force on 25th January, 1974
4. Chapter II of Cr.P.C. deals with Constitution of Criminal Courts and Offices
Which of the statements given below is correct ?
A.(1), (2), (3) and (4)
B.(2), (3) and (4)
C.(2) and (3) only
D.(1) and (4) only
Q 12 :
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
A.Police report : Section 2(r)
B.Cognizable offence : Section 2(c)
C.Bailable offence : Section 2(b)
D.Investigation : Section 2(h)
Q 13 :
'Bailable offence' means and offence which is shown as bailable in
A.the First Schedule of Cr.P.C
B.the Second Schedule of Cr.P.C
C.Section 425 Cr.P.C
D.Section 426 Cr.P.C.
Q 14 :
What offence is bailable ?
A.Mentioned as bailable offence in I Schedule of Cr.P.C
B.All cases of summon's trial
C.All non-cognizable offences
D.All cases which are not triable by session
Q 15 :
Non-bailable offence means -
A.Only those offence which are shown non bailable in the first schedule
B.All those offence which are not shown as bailable under first schedule or any other laws for the time being inforce
C.Such kind of offence for which police may arrest any person without warrant
D.Such kind of offence for which police cannot arrest any person without warrant
Q 16 :
Who can frame the 'charge' according to the Criminal Procedure Code ?
A.Court
B.Public Prosecutor
C.Office-in-charge of the concerned police station
D.All of the above
Q 17 :
A precise formulation of a specific accusation is called
A.Bailable offence
B.Cognizable offence
C.Charge
D.Non-compoundable offence
Q 18 :
Under which Section of Cr.P.C. cognizable offence has been defined ?
A.Section 2(a)
B.Section 2(c)
C.Section 2(i)
D.Section 2(1)
Q 19 :
Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines -
A.Bailable offence
B.Non- Bailable offence
C.Cognizable offence
D.Non-cognizable offence
Q 20 :
In a cognizable offence a police officer :
A.Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
B.May arrest an accused without warrant
C.Can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
D.Is not required to produce the accused before a Magistrate
Q 21 :
Cognizable offence means an offence
A.For which a police officer may arrest without warrant
B.For which a police officer may arrest if warrant of arrest is issued
C.For which a police officer above the rank of Sub-Inspector may arrest
D.None of the above
Q 22 :
In a cognizable case the police will have powers to :
A.investigate except the power to arrest without warrant
B.investigate and power to arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the Magistrate
C.investigate including the power the arrest without warrant
D.investigate and arrest without warrant, only afer informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence
Q 23 :
In a cognizable case, the police has authority
A.to arrest without warrant
B.to investigate the offence without the permission of the magistrate
C.Both (A) and (B)
D.either (A) or (B)
Q 24 :
Point out the incorrect statement -
A.In cognizable offence any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
B.A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
C.An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
D.None of the above is correct
Q 25 :
What is the main objective of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
A.Regulate traffic rules
B.Control vehicle emissions
C.Ensure citizen safety and security
D.Promote insurance policies
Q 26 :
Who is primarily responsible for implementing the Sanhita at district level?
A.District Judge
B.Superintendent of Police
C.State Government
D.Local Municipal Authority
Q 27 :
Which authority can impose penalties under the Sanhita?
A.Any Magistrate
B.Police Officer empowered under Sanhita
C.District Collector
D.Municipal Commissioner
Q 28 :
Which authority under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sahita, 2023 has the power to issue a proclamation for a person absconding from justice?
A.Judicial Magistrate
B.Sessions Court
C.Executive Magistrate
D.District Collector
Q 29 :
Under BNSS, which procedure must generally be followed before conducting a personal search of an arrested female?
A.Search by any police officer in the presence of witnesses
B.Search only after court permission
C.Search only during daytime
D.Search by another female with strict regard to decency
Q 30 :
Which provision under BNSS emphasizes the use of electronic communication and digital records in criminal proceedings?
A.Preventive detention provision
B.Revenue recovery provision
C.Digital evidence recognition provision
D.Administrative tribunal provision
The Indian Penal Code, 1860 and Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; and
Q 31 :
The draft of the Indian Penal Code was prepared by ?
A.First Law Commission
B.Second Law Commission
C.Third Law Commission
D.Sixteen Law Commission
Q 32 :
Who is associated with drafting of Indian Penal Code ?
A.Lord Macaulay
B.Mullah
C.Sir H.S. Mayne
D.Frederock Pollock
Q 33 :
Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code ?
A.Lord William Bentick
B.Lord Macaulay
C.Lord Macaulay
D.Lord Macaulay
Q 34 :
What is the correct definition of offence ?
A.Act punishable by law
B.Act prohibited by law
C.Immoral act
D.Act punishable by law and also prohibited by law
Q 35 :
Who among the following defined crime as "an act committed or omitted in violation of pulic law either forbidding or commanding it" ?
A.Russel
B.Kenny
C.Blackstone
D.J.F. Stephen
Q 36 :
Fill in the gap :
Disobedience of law is not ordinarily a crime unless that act is declared as crime by some……….
A.law
B.method
C.society
D.All the above
Q 37 :
Assertion (A) : Crime is punishable because it is provided in the law.
Reason (R) : Crime is revolting to the jmoral sense of society.
Code -
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 38 :
Observe the statements given below and mark the answer as correct -
1. Tort and crime are neither exactly different nor exactly the same
2. Murder is outright crime
3. Trespass without intention is only tort
A.Statement 1 and 2 are true
B.Statement 2 and 3 are true
C.All the statement are true
D.All the statement are false
Q 39 :
Which in the following is not inchoate crime ?
A.Attempt
B.Criminal conspiracy
C.Abetment
D.Kidnapping
Q 40 :
Which one of the following is not an essential element of crime ?
A.Mens rea
B.Actus reu
C.Injury
D.Motive
Q 41 :
The Essential and chief ingredients of 'crime' are :
A.motive, mens rea and actus reus
B.motive, intention and knowledge
C.mens rea and actus reus
D.knowledge, intention and action
Q 42 :
Which of the following are not essential for offence.
A.Intention
B.Object
C.Prohibited act
D.Punishment for act
Q 43 :
The chief elements of crime are :
A.To act in a particular way otherwise to undergo punishment
B.An act committed or omitted in furtherance of criminal intent
C.An act causing injury to another individual or society
D.All of the above
Q 44 :
Which one of the following is not generally an essential element of crime ?
A.Actus reus
B.Mens rea
C.Motive
D.Human being
Q 45 :
In which one of the following offences 'mens rea' is not an essential element ?
A.Assault
B.Bigamy
C.Defamation
D.None of the above
Q 46 :
In which of the following offences 'Mens rea' is not an essential ingredient ?
A.Murder
B.Theft
C.Robbery
D.Bigamy
Q 47 :
In which of the following offence the "mens rea" is not necessary to make the offender criminally liable ?
A.Culpable Homicide
B.Wrongful Confinement
C.Kidnapping
D.Criminal Conspiracy
Q 48 :
In which of the following cases, doctrine of 'Mens rea' is NOT applicable ?
A.Theft
B.Murder
C.Public nuisance
D.Thug
Q 49 :
The maxim 'ream linguam non facit nisi mens rea' is propounded by :
A.Coke
B.Lord Kenyon
C.Augustine
D.Lord Arbinger
Q 50 :
If actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea is a cardinal principle of criminal law, then which one of the following statements correctly reflects the about principle ?
A.Mens rea is an essential elements of a crime and there cannot be a crime without mens rea
B.Criminal liability under Indian law always implies mens rea
C.To constitute a crime, there must be actus reus and mens rea
D.Actus reus is not always necessary to constitute a crime
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