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Latest OPSC Dental Surgeon Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
What is the outermost layer of the epidermis called?
A.Stratum basale
B.Stratum spinosum
C.Stratum corneum
D.Stratum granulosum
Q 2 :
Which layer of the skin contains melanocytes?
A.Stratum corneum
B.Stratum basale
C.Stratum lucidum
D.Stratum granulosum
Q 3 :
What is the primary function of the stratum corneum?
A.Production of melanin
B.Protection against water loss
C.Synthesis of vitamin D
D.Sensory reception
Q 4 :
Which cells in the epidermis produce keratin?
A.Melanocytes
B.Keratinocytes
C.Langerhans cells
D.Merkel cells
Q 5 :
What is the main structural protein found in the epidermis?
A.Collagen
B.Elastin
C.Keratin
D.Fibrin
Q 6 :
What is the term for the anatomical position where the body is standing upright with palms facing forward?
A.Supine
B.Prone
C.Lateral recumbent
D.Anatomical position
Q 7 :
Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts?
A.Coronal
B.Sagittal
C.Transverse
D.Oblique
Q 8 :
What does the term "proximal" refer to in anatomical terminology?
A.Away from the midline
B.Further from the point of attachment
C.Toward the midline
D.Closer to the point of attachment
Q 9 :
Which term describes a structure located closer to the midline of the body?
A.Medial
B.Lateral
C.Superior
D.Inferior
Q 10 :
What is the term for a movement that increases the angle between two bones?
A.Extension
B.Flexion
C.Abduction
D.Adduction
Physiology
Q 11 :
True about function of secretin
A.Antagonizes the action of CCK
B.Stimulates gastrin secretion
C.Delay gastric emptying
D.All of the above
Q 12 :
Nissl's granules are found in which part of nerve cell-
A.Axon hillock
B.Axons
C.Node of Ranvier
D.Body
Q 13 :
Action potential in cardiac muscles is due to which ions -
A.K+
B.Na+
C.Ca+2
D.Cl-
Q 14 :
Resting membrane potential in nerve is -
A.+70mv
B.-70 mv
C.+90 mv
D.- 90 mv
Q 15 :
Which cell in cerebellum produces feed-forward inhibition -
A.Golgy cell
B.Basket cell
C.Granule cell
D.Stellate cell
Q 16 :
What is the primary structural model of the cell membrane?
A.Unit membrane model
B.Fluid mosaic model
C.Sandwich model
D.Lattice model
Q 17 :
Which component of the cell membrane is primarily responsible for its fluidity?
A.Cholesterol
B.Integral proteins
C.Peripheral proteins
D.Glycoproteins
Q 18 :
What is the main function of carbohydrates in the cell membrane?
A.Structural support
B.Cell recognition
C.Ion transport
D.Energy storage
Q 19 :
Which type of protein spans the entire cell membrane?
A.Peripheral proteins
B.Lipid-anchored proteins
C.Integral proteins
D.Surface proteins
Q 20 :
What is the primary role of the cell membrane in cellular function?
A.Selective permeability
B.Protein synthesis
C.DNA replication
D.Energy production
Biochemistry
Q 21 :
Which of the following is a macromolecule composed of amino acids ?
A.Nucleic acid
B.Lipid
C.Carbohydrate
D.Protein
Q 22 :
​Which of the following is the primary energy currency of the cell ?
A.ATP
B.DNA
C.RNA
D.Glucose
Q 23 :
Enzymes are examples of which type of biomolecule ?
A.Carbohydrates
B.Nucleic acids
C.Proteins
D.Lipids
Q 24 :
What is the main function of DNA in cells ?
A.Energy storage
B.Enzyme synthesis
C.Genetic information storage
D.Cellular respiration
Q 25 :
Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide ?
A.Glucose
B.Sucrose
C.Lactose
D.Maltose
Q 26 :
Which property of water makes it an excellent solvent for polar molecules?
A.High dielectric constant
B.Low dielectric constant
C.Low boiling point
D.Non-polar nature
Q 27 :
The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:
A.5.0
B.7.0
C.9.0
D.14.0
Q 28 :
Which buffer system is primarily responsible for maintaining blood pH?
A.Bicarbonate buffer
B.Phosphate buffer
C.Acetate buffer
D.Tris buffer
Q 29 :
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:
A.Increased blood pH
B.Decreased blood pH
C.Increased bicarbonate levels
D.Decreased carbon dioxide levels
Q 30 :
Respiratory alkalosis is caused by:
A.Hyperventilation
B.Hypoventilation
C.Increased bicarbonate production
D.Decreased carbon dioxide production
Pharmacology
Q 31 :
Which of the following is a natural source of drugs?
A.Synthetic polymers
B.Plant-derived alkaloids
C.Recombinant DNA technology
D.Chemical synthesis
Q 32 :
What is an example of a semi-synthetic drug?
A.Amoxicillin
B.Morphine
C.Insulin
D.Paracetamol
Q 33 :
Which drug is produced using biotechnological methods?
A.Recombinant human insulin
B.Penicillin
C.Aspirin
D.Codeine
Q 34 :
What is a characteristic of synthetic drugs?
A.Chemically synthesized in laboratories
B.Derived directly from plants
C.Produced by genetic engineering
D.Extracted from animal tissues
Q 35 :
Which of the following is a natural drug?
A.Atorvastatin
B.Digoxin
C.Metformin
D.Omeprazole
Q 36 :
Which process is used to produce semi-synthetic penicillins?
A.Direct chemical synthesis
B.Recombinant DNA technology
C.Plant extraction
D.Chemical modification of natural penicillin
Q 37 :
What is an example of a drug derived from animal sources?
A.Aspirin
B.Morphine
C.Heparin
D.Diazepam
Q 38 :
Which of the following is a biotechnologically produced drug?
A.Ibuprofen
B.Codeine
C.Erythropoietin
D.Amoxicillin
Q 39 :
What is a key advantage of synthetic drugs over natural drugs?
A.Increased risk of impurities
B.Higher variability in composition
C.Greater reliance on natural resources
D.Lower cost and scalability
Q 40 :
Which drug is derived from a fungal source?
A.Atorvastatin
B.Penicillin
C.Insulin
D.Warfarin
Pathology
Q 41 :
Which of the following is a common cause of hypoxia?
A.Increased oxygen tension
B.Anemia
C.Hypernatremia
D.Acidosis
Q 42 :
Which cellular component is most sensitive to hypoxia?
A.Lysosome
B.Ribosome
C.Mitochondria
D.Endoplasmic reticulum
Q 43 :
Which is an example of chemical injury to a cell?
A.Ionizing radiation
B.Cyanide poisoning
C.Ischemia
D.Hypoglycemia
Q 44 :
Free radical injury is most commonly associated with which process?
A.Hyperplasia
B.Apoptosis
C.Lipid peroxidation
D.Protein phosphorylation
Q 45 :
Which enzyme neutralizes superoxide anions?
A.Catalase
B.Glutathione peroxidase
C.Superoxide dismutase
D.Peroxidase
Q 46 :
What is the study of pathology primarily concerned with?
A.Treatment of diseases
B.Causes and mechanisms of diseases
C.Surgical techniques
D.Drug development
Q 47 :
Which component of pathology involves the study of tissue changes?
A.Clinical pathology
B.Anatomic pathology
C.Molecular pathology
D.Immunopathology
Q 48 :
What is the primary goal of pathology in clinical practice?
A.To diagnose diseases accurately
B.To prescribe medications
C.To perform surgeries
D.To prevent infections
Q 49 :
Which of the following is a key aspect of pathology?
A.Understanding normal physiology
B.Developing vaccines
C.Studying disease processes
D.Administering chemotherapy
Q 50 :
What is the role of a pathologist in patient care?
A.Direct patient treatment
B.Surgical intervention
C.Physical examination of patients
D.Interpretation of diagnostic tests
Important Questions Package
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Micro Biology
Q 51 :
What is the primary function of a plasmid in a bacterial cell ?
A.Energy Production
B.Protein Synthesis
C.Genetic Exchange
D.Cell division
Q 52 :
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of plasmids ?
A.Single-stranded DNA
B.Circular DNA
C.Linear DNA
D.RNA genome
Q 53 :
Bacteriophages primarily infect which type of microorganism ?
A.Bacteria
B.Fungi
C.Protozoa
D.Archaea
Q 54 :
The protein coat of a bacteriophage is called ?
A.Capsid
B.Envelope
C.Nucleocapsid
D.Liposome
Q 55 :
Which of the following is a lytic cycle in bacteriophage replication ?
A.Lysogenic
B.Integration
C.Attachment
D.Bursting
Q 56 :
Who is known as the father of microbiology for his work on biogenesis?
A.Robert Koch
B.Alexander Fleming
C.Joseph Lister
D.Louis Pasteur
Q 57 :
Which scientist developed postulates to identify the causative agent of a disease?
A.Louis Pasteur
B.Joseph Lister
C.Robert Koch
D.Alexander Fleming
Q 58 :
Who discovered the antibiotic penicillin?
A.Robert Koch
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Alexander Fleming
D.Joseph Lister
Q 59 :
Which scientist introduced antiseptic surgery using carbolic acid?
A.Louis Pasteur
B.Joseph Lister
C.Robert Koch
D.Alexander Fleming
Q 60 :
What was Louis Pasteur’s key contribution to microbiology?
A.Development of Koch’s postulates
B.Disproving spontaneous generation
C.Discovery of penicillin
D.Introduction of antiseptic surgery
Dental Material
Q 61 :
Failure of descent of thyroid gland can be seen in the tongue
A.In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect
B.IN posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
C.Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum
D.In anterior 2/3 of inferior
Q 62 :
development of mandible is by
A.I branchial arch
B.II branchial arch
C.Iv branchial arch
D.III branchial arch
Q 63 :
which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle ?
A.Frontal
B.Parietal
C.Temporal
D.Occipital
Q 64 :
The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secret motor impulse involved in lacrimation is
A.Chorda tympani nerve
B.Deep pertosal nerve
C.Greater petrosal nerve
D.Lesser petrosal nerve
Q 65 :
Structure related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle include the following except
A.Glossopharyngeal nerve
B.Stylohyoid ligament
C.Lingual artert
D.Hypoglossal nerve
Q 66 :
Which dental material is commonly used for direct restorations and is composed of a mixture of powdered glass and an organic resin matrix?
A.Amalgam
B.Glass ionomer
C.Composite resin
D.Zinc oxide eugenol
Q 67 :
What is the primary component of dental amalgam?
A.Silver
B.Mercury
C.Copper
D.Tin
Q 68 :
Which dental material is known for its ability to release fluoride and is often used for restorations in primary teeth and as a luting agent for crowns and bridges?
A.Amalgam
B.Glass ionomer
C.Composite resin
D.Zinc phosphate cement
Q 69 :
What is the purpose of the liner in a dental restoration?
A.Provide strength
B.Insulate against temperature changes
C.Bond to tooth structure
D.Protect the pulp
Q 70 :
Which dental material is commonly used for provisional (temporary) restorations and is available in both self-cure and light-cure formulations?
A.Glass ionomer
B.Composite resin
C.Zinc phosphate cement
D.Polycarboxylate cement
Dental Anatomy
Q 71 :
What is the primary function of the skeletal system?
A.Transportation
B.Protection
C.Reproduction
D.Digestion
Q 72 :
Which tissue type lines the cavities and surfaces of structures throughout the body, providing a barrier?
A.Connective tissue
B.Epithelial tissue
C.Muscle tissue
D.Nervous tissue
Q 73 :
During embryonic development, the notochord gives rise to which structure in the adult human?
A.Spinal cord
B.Brain
C.Vertebrae
D.Muscles
Q 74 :
Which of the following is responsible for the production of red blood cells?
A.Liver
B.Kidneys
C.Spleen
D.Bone marrow
Q 75 :
What is the basic unit of the nervous system?
A.Neuron
B.Red blood cell
C.White blood cell
D.Osteocyte
Q 76 :
What is the hardest substance in the human body?
A.Dentin
B.Enamel
C.Cementum
D.Pulp
Q 77 :
Which tooth is also known as the "wisdom tooth"?
A.Canine
B.Premolar
C. Molar
D. Third molar
Q 78 :
Which part of the tooth is responsible for anchoring it to the jawbone?
A.Pulp
B.Crown
C.Root
D.Enamel
Q 79 :
What is the primary function of the periodontal ligament?
A.Nutrient supply to the tooth
B.Anchoring the tooth to the jawbone
C.Sensation of pain in the tooth
D. Production of saliva
Q 80 :
Which tooth is known as the "eye tooth"?
A.Incisor
B.Canine
C.Molar
D.Premolar
Medicine
Q 81 :
What is the hallmark feature of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
A.Ejection fraction 50%
B.Normal ventricular filling
C.Ejection fraction 40%
D.Absence of symptoms
Q 82 :
Which type of heart failure is characterized by impaired ventricular filling?
A.HFpEF
B.HFrEF
C.Right heart failure
D.Biventricular heart failure
Q 83 :
What defines acute heart failure?
A.Gradual onset of symptoms over months
B.Sudden onset or worsening of symptoms
C.Normal ejection fraction
D.Absence of pulmonary edema
Q 84 :
Which type of heart failure primarily affects the right ventricle?
A.Left heart failure
B.High-output heart failure
C.Biventricular heart failure
D.Right heart failure
Q 85 :
What is a characteristic feature of biventricular heart failure?
A.Isolated pulmonary edema
B.Normal jugular venous pressure
C.Symptoms of both left and right heart failure
D.Absence of peripheral edema
Q 86 :
What is the most common cause of heart failure in developed countries?
A.Valvular heart disease
B.High-output states
C.Congenital heart disease
D.Ischemic heart disease
Q 87 :
Which condition is a common cause of high-output heart failure?
A.Hypertension
B.Anemia
C.Dilated cardiomyopathy
D.Aortic stenosis
Q 88 :
Which type of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular wall thickening?
A.Dilated cardiomyopathy
B.Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
C.Restrictive cardiomyopathy
D.Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Q 89 :
What is a common cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
A.Coronary artery disease
B.Amyloidosis
C.Rheumatic heart disease
D.Hyperthyroidism
Q 90 :
Which condition is a common cause of left heart failure?
A.Pulmonary hypertension
B.Aortic stenosis
C.Tricuspid regurgitation
D.Cor pulmonale
Q 91 :
Which neurohormonal system is activated in heart failure to compensate for reduced cardiac output?
A.Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)
B.Parasympathetic nervous system
C.Thyroid hormone system
D.Growth hormone system
Q 92 :
What is the role of natriuretic peptides (ANP/BNP) in heart failure?
A.Increase sodium retention
B.Enhance ventricular remodeling
C.Promote vasodilation and natriuresis
D.Increase sympathetic activity
Q 93 :
What is a key feature of ventricular remodeling in heart failure?
A.Decreased ventricular wall thickness
B.Improved contractility
C.Reduced myocardial fibrosis
D.Ventricular hypertrophy and dilation
Q 94 :
Which system contributes to increased heart rate and contractility in heart failure?
A.Parasympathetic nervous system
B.Sympathetic nervous system (SNS)
C.Renin-angiotensin system
D.Natriuretic peptide system
Q 95 :
What is a consequence of chronic RAAS activation in heart failure?
A.Myocardial fibrosis and hypertrophy
B.Reduced blood pressure
C.Increased diuresis
D.Decreased afterload
Surgery
Q 96 :
What is a common indication for kidney transplantation?
A.End-stage renal disease
B.Acute kidney injury
C.Urinary Congregation infection
D.Renal artery stenosis
Q 97 :
Which immunosuppressant inhibits DNA synthesis?
A.Mycophenolate mofetil
B.Tacrolimus
C.Prednisolone
D.Sirolimus
Q 98 :
What is a key principle of surgical asepsis?
A.Using non-sterile instruments
B.Avoiding hand washing
C.Maintaining a sterile field
D.Increasing operative time
Q 99 :
Which suturing technique is used to close deep tissue layers?
A.Subcuticular suture
B.Continuous suture
C.Purse-string suture
D.Interrupted suture
Q 100 :
Which instrument is used for precise cutting?
A.Needle holder
B.Forceps
C.Retractor
D.Scalpel
Q 101 :
What is a common complication of liver transplantation?
A.Hepatic artery thrombosis
B.Urinary tract infection
C.Deep vein thrombosis
D.Paralytic ileus
Q 102 :
What is a key precaution during surgical gloving?
A.Touching non-sterile surfaces
B.Reducing scrubbing time
C.Using non-sterile gloves
D.Avoiding contact with bare skin
Q 103 :
Which type of rejection occurs within minutes to hours?
A.Acute rejection
B.Subacute rejection
C.Chronic rejection
D.Hyperacute rejection
Q 104 :
What is the purpose of a grounding pad in monopolar electrocautery?
A.To complete the electrical circuit
B.To increase power output
C.To sterilize the surgical field
D.To retract tissues
Q 105 :
Which knot is most secure for high-tension wounds?
A.Slip knot
B.Granny knot
C.Surgeon’s knot
D.Bowline knot
Q 106 :
What is a common side effect of mycophenolate mofetil?
A.Nephrotoxicity
B.Hyperglycemia
C.Gastrointestinal upset
D.Alopecia
Q 107 :
Which organ cannot be donated by a living donor?
A.Kidney
B.Heart
C.Liver segment
D.Pancreas segment
Q 108 :
What is a key principle of tissue handling in surgery?
A.Avoiding sterile gloves
B.Using excessive force
C.Maintaining tissue hydration
D.Increasing tissue tension
Q 109 :
Which suture material is commonly used for subcuticular sutures?
A.Nylon
B.Polyglactin (Vicryl)
C.Silk
D.Stainless steel
Q 110 :
Which instrument is used to expose deep tissues?
A.Retractor
B.Scalpel
C.Needle holder
D.Forceps
Oral Pathology
Q 111 :
Which bacterium is associated with the formation of dental plaque and caries?
A.Streptococcus mutans
B.Porphyromonas gingivalis
C.Treponema pallidum
D.Actinomyces israelii
Q 112 :
What is the primary cause of periodontal disease?
A.Staphylococcus aureus
B.Porphyromonas gingivalis
C.Escherichia coli
D.Streptococcus pyogenes
Q 113 :
Which bacterium is associated with the development of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?
A.Fusobacterium nucleatum
B.Prevotella intermedia
C.Actinomyces israelii
D.Streptococcus sanguinis
Q 114 :
Which organism is responsible for the majority of fungal infections in the oral cavity?
A.Candida albicans
B.Aspergillus fumigatus
C.Cryptococcus neoformans
D.Histoplasma capsulatum
Q 115 :
Which virus is associated with the development of herpetic stomatitis?
A.Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B.Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
C.Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
D.Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Q 116 :
Which of the following is a benign tumor of odontogenic origin?
A.Osteosarcoma
B.Squamous cell carcinoma
C.Ameloblastoma
D.Melanoma
Q 117 :
The most common site for oral squamous cell carcinoma is?
A.Hard palate
B.Lateral border of tongue
C.Upper lip
D.Floor of mouth
Q 118 :
Fordyce granules are?
A.Calcifications
B.Salivary gland tumors
C.Cysts
D.Ectopic sebaceous glands
Q 119 :
Which virus is associated with oral hairy leukoplakia?
A.Human papillomavirus
B.Epstein-Barr virus
C.Herpes simplex virus
D.Cytomegalovirus
Q 120 :
The characteristic feature of lichen planus is?
A.Vesicles
B.Wickham’s striae
C.Ulceration
D.Pustules
Oral Medicine& Radiology
Q 121 :
The most common cause of recurrent aphthous ulcers is?
A.Bacterial infection
B.Trauma
C.Fungal infection
D.Viral infection
Q 122 :
Minor aphthous ulcers commonly occur on?
A.Gingiva
B.Hard palate
C.Non-keratinized mucosa
D.Tongue dorsal surface
Q 123 :
Major aphthous ulcers are also called?
A.Sutton’s disease
B.Behçet’s disease
C.Herpetiform ulcers
D.Traumatic ulcers
Q 124 :
Herpetiform aphthous ulcers are characterized by?
A.Pigmented macules
B.Single large ulcer
C.Vesicles only
D.Multiple small ulcers
Q 125 :
Behçet’s syndrome is characterized by?
A.Recurrent oral and genital ulcers with ocular lesions
B.Only oral ulcers
C.Only genital ulcers
D.Vesicles on tongue
Q 126 :
The most common site of traumatic ulcers is?
A.Gingiva
B.Palate
C.Tongue, lips, and buccal mucosa
D.Floor of mouth
Q 127 :
Median rhomboid glossitis is associated with?
A.Bacterial infection
B.Trauma
C.Viral infection
D.Candida infection
Q 128 :
The characteristic site of median rhomboid glossitis is?
A.Dorsum of tongue, midline
B.Lateral border of tongue
C.Ventral tongue
D.Floor of mouth
Q 129 :
Geographic tongue is also known as?
A.Fissured tongue
B.Erythema migrans
C.Hairy tongue
D.Median rhomboid glossitis
Q 130 :
Oral lichen planus often affects which sites?
A.Gingiva only
B.Palate only
C.Lips only
D.Buccal mucosa and tongue
Pedodontics & Preventive Dentistry
Q 131 :
First primary tooth usually erupts at?
A.6–8 months
B.3 months
C.12 months
D.18 months
Q 132 :
Primary teeth are exfoliated at?
A.12–16 years
B.2–3 years
C.1–2 years
D.6–12 years
Q 133 :
Fluoride varnish in children is applied every?
A.Daily
B.1 year
C.1 month
D.3–6 months
Q 134 :
Pit and fissure sealants prevent?
A.Occlusal caries
B.Gingivitis only
C.Periodontal disease
D.Malocclusion
Q 135 :
Space maintainers are used to?
A.Restore function only
B.Correct malocclusion
C.Whitening teeth
D.Preserve space after premature tooth loss
Q 136 :
Most common type of early childhood caries affects?
A.Maxillary incisors
B.Molars only
C.Canines only
D.Mandibular incisors
Q 137 :
Stainless steel crowns are mainly indicated for?
A.Incisors only
B.Extensive carious primary molars
C.Canines only
D.Trauma only
Q 138 :
Fluoride gel is applied using?
A.Cotton roll only
B.Toothbrush only
C.Tray technique
D.Rinsing only
Q 139 :
Early orthodontic assessment in children is recommended at?
