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Latest OPSC Medical Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Which of the following structures is related to the esophagus 22.5cm from the incisor teeth ?
A.Arch of aorta
B.Right principal broncus
C.Thoracic Duct
D.Azygous Vein
Q 5 :
Which of the following are cusps of the aortic valves ?
A.Left, right and Anterior
B.Anterior, Right and Posterior
C.Posterior , Left and Right
D.Anterior , Posterior and Left
Physiology
Q 6 :
True about function of secretin
A.Antagonizes the action of CCK
B.Stimulates gastrin secretion
C.Delay gastric emptying
D.All of the above
Q 7 :
Nissl's granules are found in which part of nerve cell-
A.Axon hillock
B.Axons
C.Node of Ranvier
D.Body
Q 8 :
Action potential in cardiac muscles is due to which ions -
A.K+
B.Na+
C.Ca+2
D.Cl-
Q 9 :
Thick Ascending Limb of loop of Henele has which channels -
A.Na + Cl - contransporter
B.Na + -2Cl - - K + cotransporter
C.ENaC channel
D.Na + - aminoacidcotransporter
Q 10 :
True about arginine vasopression -
A.Major action on kidney is through V 1 recepter
B.Causes vasoconstriction
C.Causes release of v WF
D.Causes vasodilation
Biochemistry
Q 11 :
Which of the following is a macromolecule composed of amino acids ?
A.Nucleic acid
B.Lipid
C.Carbohydrate
D.Protein
Q 12 :
​Which of the following is the primary energy currency of the cell ?
A.ATP
B.DNA
C.RNA
D.Glucose
Q 13 :
Enzymes are examples of which type of biomolecule ?
A.Carbohydrates
B.Nucleic acids
C.Proteins
D.Lipids
Q 14 :
What is the main function of DNA in cells ?
A.Energy storage
B.Enzyme synthesis
C.Genetic information storage
D.Cellular respiration
Q 15 :
Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide ?
A.Glucose
B.Sucrose
C.Lactose
D.Maltose
Q 16 :
Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis ?
A.Mitochondrion
B.Nucleus
C.Golgi apparatus
D.Endoplasmic reticulum
Q 17 :
Which molecule carries the genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosomes for protein synthesis ?
A.mRNA
B.tRNA
C.rRNA
D.DNA
Q 18 :
Which of the following is not a function of the liver ?
A.Detoxification
B.Carbohydrate digestion
C.Protein synthesis
D.Bile production
Q 19 :
Hemoglobin is an example of which type of protein ?
A.Enzyme
B.Structural protein
C.Antibody
D.Transport protein
Q 20 :
Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin when exposed to sunlight ?
A.Vitamin A
B.Vitamin C
C.Vitamin D
D.Vitamin E
Pharmacology
Q 21 :
What term describes the study of how drugs affect the body and how the body affects drugs ?
A.Pathology
B.Physiology
C.Pharmacology
D.Histology
Q 22 :
Which phase of drug development involves testing a new drug on healthy volunteers to determine its safety and dosage range ?
A.Phase I
B.Phase II
C.Phase III
D.Phase IV
Q 23 :
Which route of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action ?
A.Oral
B.Intravenous
C.Subcutaneous
D.Topical
Q 24 :
When the combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects, the interaction is called?
A.Synergism
B.Antagonism
C.Additive action
D.Indifference
Q 25 :
Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism ?
A.Kidneys
B.Liver
C.Heart
D.Lungs
Pathology
Q 26 :
Which of the following is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms?
A.Tissue
B.Organ
C.Cell
D.Organ system
Q 27 :
The plasma membrane of a cell is primarily composed of:
A.Proteins and carbohydrates
B.Phospholipids and proteins
C.Nucleic acids and lipids
D.Carbohydrates and lipids
Q 28 :
Which cellular organelle is responsible for generating most of the cell's ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?
A.Endoplasmic reticulum
B.Golgi apparatus
C.Mitochondria
D.Lysosomes
Q 29 :
Protein synthesis primarily occurs in which cellular organelle?
A.Golgi apparatus
B.Ribosomes
C.Lysosomes
D.Peroxisomes
Q 30 :
The genetic material of a eukaryotic cell is primarily located in the:
A.Cytoplasm
B.Nucleus
C.Mitochondria
D.Endoplasmic reticulum
Q 31 :
Which of the following is NOT a primary type of tissue in the human body?
A.Epithelial tissue
B.Connective tissue
C.Muscle tissue
D.Osseous tissue (This is a type of connective tissue)
Q 32 :
Epithelial tissues are characterized by:
A.Abundant extracellular matrix
B.Closely packed cells with little intercellular substance
C.Extensive vascularization
D.Contractile properties
Q 33 :
Which type of epithelial tissue is specialized for secretion and is found in glands?
A.Squamous epithelium
B.Cuboidal epithelium
C.Columnar epithelium
D.Glandular epithelium
Q 34 :
Stratified squamous epithelium is primarily found in areas subject to:
A.Absorption
B.Secretion
C.Abrasion
D.Filtration
Q 35 :
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium is characteristic of the:
A.Lining of the stomach
B.Lining of the urinary bladder
C.Lining of the trachea
D.Lining of blood vessels
Microbiology
Q 36 :
What is the complete elimination or destruction of all forms of microbial life, including spores, called?
A.Disinfection
B.Antisepsis
C.Sterilization
D.Sanitization
Q 37 :
Which of the following sterilization methods uses moist heat under pressure?
A.Dry heat sterilization
B.Filtration
C.Autoclaving
D.Radiation
Q 38 :
What is the standard temperature and pressure used in an autoclave for sterilization?
A.100°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes
B.121°C at 15 psi for 15-20 minutes
C.134°C at 20 psi for 5-10 minutes
D.160°C for 2 hours
Q 39 :
Which sterilization method is suitable for heat-labile materials like some plastics and pharmaceuticals?
A.Autoclaving
B.Dry heat sterilization
C.Filtration
D.Incineration
Q 40 :
Which type of radiation is commonly used for sterilizing medical devices and pharmaceuticals?
A.Ultraviolet (UV) radiation
B.Infrared (IR) radiation
C.Gamma radiation
D.Microwave radiation
Q 41 :
What is the primary mechanism of action of dry heat sterilization?
A.Coagulation of proteins
B.Oxidation
C.Disruption of cell membranes
D.Damage to nucleic acids
Q 42 :
What is the term for the reduction or elimination of pathogenic microorganisms to a level where they are no longer hazardous?
A.Sterilization
B.Disinfection
C.Antisepsis
D.Sanitization
Q 43 :
Which of the following is a high-level disinfectant that can achieve sterilization with prolonged exposure?
A.Ethanol (70%)
B.Hydrogen peroxide (3%)
C.Glutaraldehyde (2%)
D.Quaternary ammonium compounds
Q 44 :
Which of the following is an example of a halogen used as a disinfectant?
A.Formaldehyde
B.Phenol
C.Iodine
D.Chlorhexidine
Q 45 :
What is the mechanism of action of alcohol-based disinfectants?
A.Oxidation
B.Alkylation
C.Protein denaturation and lipid dissolution
D.Intercalation into DNA
F.M.T.
Q 46 :
What does FMT stand for ?
A.Fecal Microbial Therapy
B.Fecal Microbiota Transplantation
C.Fecal Microbiome Treatment
D.Fecal Medical Transplant
Q 47 :
FMT is primarily used to treat which of the following conditions ?
A.Diabetes
B.Hypertension
C.Irritable Bowel Syndrome
D.Migraine
Q 48 :
In FMT, where is the donated fecal material typically sourced from ?
A.Animals
B.Synthetic sources
C.The patient's own stool
D.Healthy donors
Q 49 :
What is the main purpose of FMT ?
A.Treating bacterial infections
B.Restoring gut microbial balance
C.Boosting the immune system
D.Replenishing blood cells
Q 50 :
FMT has shown promise in treating which of the following infections ?
A.Influenza
B.Tuberculosis
C.Clostridium difficile infection
D.HIV
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OPSC Medical Officer Exam Question Bank Book - English (Old)
Which part of the body is primarily affected by FMT ?
A.Heart
B.Lungs
C.Liver
D.Intestines
Q 52 :
FMT is most effective for which type of patients ?
A.Patients with no underlying conditions
B.Patients with severe allergies
C.Patients with recurrent C. difficile infection
D.Patients with broken bones
Q 53 :
What is the main goal of FMT in treating C. difficile infection ?
A.Killing the bacteria
B.Replacing the gut lining
C.Reintroducing healthy gut bacteria
D.Reducing stomach acid
Q 54 :
Which method is commonly used for administering FMT ?
A.Injection
B.Inhalation
C.Oral capsule or enema
D.Skin patch
Q 55 :
FMT is being investigated for its potential benefits in treating disorders beyond the gut, such as :
A.Heart disease
B.Asthma
C.Depression
D.Blindness
Q 56 :
FMT is most commonly used as a treatment for which condition ?
A.Ulcerative colitis
B.Lung cancer
C.Diabetes mellitus
D.Alzheimer's disease
Q 57 :
FMT involves transferring what from a healthy donor to a recipient ?
A.Blood plasma
B.Gut bacteria
C.Skin cells
D.Brain tissue
Q 58 :
What is the purpose of FMT in the context of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) ?
A.Reducing stomach acid production
B.Replacing damaged intestinal tissue
C.Modulating the immune system response
D.Stimulating hair growth
Q 59 :
Which of the following is a potential risk associated with FMT ?
A.Heightened sense of taste
B.Allergic reactions
C.Enhanced night vision
D.Improved memory
Q 60 :
Which laboratory technique is used to analyze the microbial composition of fecal samples ?
A.ECG (Electrocardiogram)
B.ELISA (Enzyme - Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
C.PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
D.MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
Community Medicine
Q 61 :
Community medicine primarily focuses on :
A.Individual patient care
B.Preventive healthcare
C.Specialized surgeries
D.Emergency medicine
Q 62 :
Which of the following is a core principle of community medicine ?
A.Curative care
B.Early diagnosis
C.Health promotion and disease prevention
D.Surgery and interventions
Q 63 :
What is the main goal of primary healthcare ?
A.Treating complex diseases
B.Providing specialized surgeries
C.Delivering essential healthcare to all individuals and families
D.Managing chronic illnesses
Q 64 :
Which level of healthcare focuses on specialized medical and surgical services ?
A.Primary healthcare
B.Secondary healthcare
C.Tertiary healthcare
D.Quaternary healthcare
Q 65 :
The "Five A's" of healthcare delivery include all of the following except :
A.Accessibility
B.Affordability
C.Accountability
D.Acceptability
Q 66 :
Which of the following is a major component of community diagnosis ?
A.Individual diagnosis
B.Family diagnosis
C.Hospital diagnosis
D.Disease diagnosis
Q 67 :
The epidemiological triad includes all of the following elements except :
A.Host
B.Environment
C.Agent
D.Treatment
Q 68 :
The concept of herd immunity is important in controlling :
A.Chronic diseases
B.Acute infections
C.Genetic disorders
D.Non-communicable diseases
Q 69 :
The "Healthy People 2030" initiative aims to improve :
A.Medical technology
B.Hospital infrastructure
C.Population health and well-being
D.Specialty medical services
Q 70 :
Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable disease ?
A.Influenza
B.Tuberculosis
C.Diabetes
D.Malaria
Q 71 :
Community health workers play a significant role in :
A.Specialized surgeries
B.Emergency care
C.Primary healthcare delivery
D.Medical research
Q 72 :
Which of the following is NOT a social determinant of health ?
A.Education
B.Income
C.Genetic makeup
D.Housing
Q 73 :
The "Demographic Transition Theory" describes the changes in :
A.Infectious diseases over time
B.Population age structure and birth rates over time
C.Healthcare policies over time
D.Occupational trends over time
Q 74 :
Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease ?
A.Age
B.Genetics
C.Gender
D.Smoking
Q 75 :
Health promotion aims to :
A.Treat existing diseases
B.Prevent the spread of infectious diseases
C.Educate individuals about advanced medical procedures
D.Enhance well - being and prevent diseases
Skin & VD
Q 76 :
40 yrs old diabetic patient presents with round lesions for 2 weeks on abdomen. HPE shows palsidating granuloma. What is the diagnosis?
A.
Granuloma annulare
B.Pemphigus erythematosus
C.
Leprosy
D.Tinea
Q 77 :
True about cutaneous carcinoma is?
A.
Squamous cell carcinoma occurs in early age
B.
SCC & BCC comprise majority of non melanoma
C.
Punch biopsy is IOC in SCC
D.Melanoma is the most common skin cancer
Q 78 :
Appropriate exposure time for topical phototherapy after TMP application
A.
10-20 min
B.30-40 min
C.
50-60 min
D.1-2 hours
Q 79 :
Which of the following is NOT a common indication for surgery in a medical officer's practice ?
A.Appendicitis
B.Gallstones
C.Hypertension
D.Hernia
Q 80 :
What term refers to the surgical removal of the gallbladder ?
A.Gastrectomy
B.Appendectomy
C.Cholecystectomy
D.Thyroidectomy
Radio Diagnosis
Q 81 :
What is the primary purpose of radio diagnosis in medicine ?
A.To provide treatment options
B.To perform surgeries
C.To diagnose medical conditions
D.To administer medication
Q 82 :
Which imaging technique uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of internal body structures ?
A.X-ray
B.Ultrasound
C.MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
D.CT scan (Computed Tomography
Q 83 :
Which type of imaging uses ionizing radiation to create images of the body's internal structures ?
A.Ultrasound
B.MRI
C.X - ray
D.PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography)
Q 84 :
Which imaging modality is most commonly used for evaluating bone fractures and lung conditions ?
A.Ultrasound
B.MRI
C.X - ray
D.CT scan
Q 85 :
CT scan provides ______ images of the body than a standard X - ray
A.Fewer detailed
B.More detailed
C.Similar
D.No
Dental
Q 86 :
Failure of descent of thyroid gland can be seen in the tongue
A.In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect
B.IN posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
C.Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum
D.In anterior 2/3 of inferior
Q 87 :
development of mandible is by
A.I branchial arch
B.II branchial arch
C.Iv branchial arch
D.III branchial arch
Q 88 :
which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle ?
A.Frontal
B.Parietal
C.Temporal
D.Occipital
Q 89 :
The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secret motor impulse involved in lacrimation is
A.Chorda tympani nerve
B.Deep pertosal nerve
C.Greater petrosal nerve
D.Lesser petrosal nerve
Q 90 :
Structure related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle include the following except
A.Glossopharyngeal nerve
B.Stylohyoid ligament
C.Lingual artert
D.Hypoglossal nerve
Medicine
Q 91 :
Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat hypertension ?
A.Metformin
B.Lisinopril
C.Aspirin
D.Omeprazole
Q 92 :
What is the primary function of insulin in the body ?
A.Control blood pressure
B.Regulate blood sugar levels
C.Stimulate digestion
D.Increase heart rate
Q 93 :
Which medication is used to relieve pain and reduce fever ?
A.Propranolol
B.Ibuprofen
C.Metoprolol
D.Itinerant
Q 94 :
What is the primary purpose of antibiotics ?
A.Lower blood sugar levels
B.Treat fungal infections
C.Treat bacterial infections
D.Reduce cholesterol levels
Q 95 :
Which medication is commonly prescribed for gastro esophageal reflux disease (GERD) ?
A.Acetaminophen
B.Prednisone
C.Pantoprazole
D.Dioxin
Q 96 :
What is the main function of statin medications ?
A.Control blood pressure
B.Reduce inflammation
C.Lower cholesterol levels
D.Increase insulin production
Q 97 :
Which drug class is commonly used to treat depression and anxiety ?
A.Beta-blockers
B.ACE inhibitors
C.SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)
D.Diuretics
Q 98 :
Which medication is used to treat bacterial infections by inhibiting cell wall synthesis ?
A.Metronidazole
B.Ciprofloxacin
C.Penicillin
D.Amoxicillin
Q 99 :
What is the primary role of diuretics ?
A.Lower blood pressure
B.Increase blood sugar levels
C.Reduce cholesterol levels
D.Treat bacterial infections
Q 100 :
Which class of drugs is commonly used to manage type 2 diabetes ?
A.Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
B.Beta-blockers
C.Oral hypoglycemic
D.Anticoagulants
Q 101 :
Which medication is often prescribed to control asthma symptoms ?
A.Albuterol
B.Warfarin
C.Digoxin
D.Metformin
Q 102 :
Which anticoagulant medication requires regular monitoring of INR levels ?
A.Aspirin
B.Heparin
C.Clopidogrel
D.Rivaroxaban
Q 103 :
What is the primary function of ACE inhibitors ?
A.Lower blood pressure
B.Increase heart rate
C.Reduce cholesterol levels
D.Treat fungal infections
Q 104 :
Which medication is used to treat an allergic reaction ?
A.Prednisone
B.Ranitidine
C.Omeprazole
D.Metoprolol
Q 105 :
Which drug class is commonly prescribed to treat high blood pressure and heart failure ?
A.Statins
B.Calcium channel blockers
C.Beta-blockers
D.Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Q 106 :
Which medication is commonly used to treat bacterial skin infections ?
A.Fluconazole
B.Azithromycin
C.Cephalexin
D.Furosemide
Q 107 :
What is the primary purpose of antacids ?
A.Reduce blood pressure
B.Lower cholesterol levels
C.Neutralize stomach acid
D.Treat bacterial infections
Q 108 :
Which medication is used to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) ?
A.Loperamide
B.Montelukast
C.Ipratropium bromide
D.Loratadine
Q 109 :
Which class of medications is commonly prescribed to treat seizures and epilepsy ?
A.Beta-blockers
B.Anticoagulants
C.Antiepileptic’s
D.Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
Q 110 :
Which medication is used to lower triglyceride levels ?
A.Simvastatin
B.Gemfibrozil
C.Metformin
D.Lisinopril
Q 111 :
Which drug class is commonly used to treat heart arrhythmias ?
A.Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
B.Antiarrhythmic
C.Thiazide diuretics
D.Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
Q 112 :
What is the primary purpose of anticoagulant medications ?
A.Increase blood pressure
B.Lower blood sugar levels
C.Prevent blood clot formation
D.Treat bacterial infections
Q 113 :
Which medication is commonly used to treat high cholesterol levels ?
A.Heparin
B.Atorvastatin
C.Albuterol
D.Cephalexin
Q 114 :
What is the main function of beta-blockers ?
A.Lower blood pressure
B.Reduce inflammation
C.Increase insulin production
D.Treat bacterial infections
Q 115 :
Which drug is commonly used to treat gastroenteritis and diarrhea ?
A.Prednisone
B.Ondansetron
C.Loperamide
D.Pantoprazole
Paediatrics
Q 116 :
What is the first-line treatment for a child experiencing an acute asthma attack ?
A.Antibiotics
B.Bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol)
C.Antipyretics
D.Intravenous fluids
Q 117 :
What is the most common cause of seizures in children aged 6 months to 5 years ?
A.Meningitis
B.Febrile illness
C.Hypoglycaemia
D.Head injury
Q 118 :
What is the recommended initial management for a child with a suspected foreign body aspiration ?
A.Administering antibiotics
B.Inducing vomiting
C.Performing chest compressions
D.Immediate bronchoscopy
Q 119 :
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kawasaki disease ?
A.Persistent cough
B.Strawberry tongue
C.Jaundice
D.Cyanosis
Q 120 :
In a child with a suspected appendicitis, which imaging modality is often preferred for diagnosis ?
A.Chest X-ray
B.Abdominal ultrasound
C.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D.Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Q 121 :
What is the primary treatment for dehydration in a child with gastroenteritis ?
A.Intravenous antibiotics
B.Oral rehydration therapy (ORT)
C.Antiemetic medications
D.Intramuscular injections
Q 122 :
What is the initial step in managing a child with anaphylaxis ?
A.Administering epinephrine
B.Applying cold compresses
C.Giving antihistamines
D.Checking blood pressure
Q 123 :
Which of the following is a classic sign of meningococcal sepsis in a child ?
A.Koplik spots
B.Petechial rash
C.Strawberry tongue
D.Honey-colored crusted lesions
Q 124 :
What is the preferred method for assessing a child's core body temperature during an emergency situation ?
A.Axillary temperature measurement
B.Oral temperature measurement
C.Rectal temperature measurement
D.Tympanic temperature measurement
Q 125 :
What is the recommended position for a child experiencing a febrile seizure ?
A.Supine position
B.Prone position
C.Left lateral decubitus position
D.Trendelenburg position
Surgery
Q 126 :
Which of the following is NOT a common indication for surgery in a medical officer's practice
A.Appendicitis
B.Gallstones
C.Hypertension
D.Hernia
Q 127 :
What term refers to the surgical removal of the gallbladder
A.Gastrectomy
B.Appendectomy
C.Cholecystectomy
D.Thyroidectomy
Q 128 :
A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and tenderness localized in the right lower quadrant. What condition is most likely responsible for these symptoms
A.Gastroenteritis
B.Diverticulitis
C.Cholecystitis
D.Appendicitis
Q 129 :
Which surgical procedure involves the removal of a portion of the stomach to treat conditions like gastric ulcers or stomach cancer
A.Colectomy
B.Nephrectomy
C.Gastrectomy
D.Splenectomy
Q 130 :
What is a hernia
A.A type of heart surgery
B.An abnormal connection between blood vessels
C.An opening or weakness in the abdominal wall through which organs may protrude
D.The removal of a damaged joint
Q 131 :
Which surgical procedure involves the removal of the appendix
A.Appendectomy
B.Hysterectomy
C.Tonsillectomy
D.Thyroidectomy
Q 132 :
What is the primary goal of a splenectomy
A.To remove a portion of the liver
B.To remove the spleen
C.To remove kidney stones
D.To remove a lung lobe
Q 133 :
Which type of surgery aims to restore blood flow through blocked or narrowed arteries and veins
A.Bypass surgery
B.Organ transplantation
C.Orthopedic surgery
D.Vascular surgery
Q 134 :
A patient with a history of smoking and shortness of breath is diagnosed with lung cancer. What type of surgery might be considered for treatment
A.Gastrectomy
B.Lobectomy
C.Thyroidectomy
D.Nephrectomy
Q 135 :
What does the term laparoscopy refer to in the context of surgery
A.Surgical removal of the bladder
B.Minimally invasive procedure using a small camera and instruments
C.Open - heart surgery
D.Brain surgery
Q 136 :
Which of the following is a common post - operative complication that medical officers should monitor for after surgery
A.High blood pressure
B.Nausea and vomiting
C.Frequent urination
D.Mild headache
Q 137 :
Which surgical procedure involves the removal of the thyroid gland
A.Appendectomy
B.Cholecystectomy
C.Thyroidectomy
D.Nephrectomy
Q 138 :
In which type of surgery is a synthetic mesh often used to reinforce weakened tissue and prevent organ protrusion
A.Appendectomy
B.Hernia repair
C.Thyroidectomy
D.Gastrectomy
Q 139 :
What is the primary purpose of a tracheostomy
A.To remove the tonsils
B.To remove a portion of the lung
C.To create an opening in the windpipe to assist breathing
D.To remove the spleen
Q 140 :
Which surgical specialty focuses on repairing musculoskeletal injuries and conditions
A.Cardiology
B.Orthopedics
C.Neurology
D.Gastroenterology
Q 141 :
What term describes the process of surgically replacing a damaged joint with an artificial one
A.Osteotomy
B.Arthroscopy
C.Jointectomy
D.Joint replacement
Q 142 :
Which type of surgery involves removing a kidney due to disease, injury, or donation
A.Nephrectomy
B.Cholecystectomy
C.Hysterectomy
D.Appendectomy
Q 143 :
What is a common surgical intervention for patients with severe obesity to promote weight loss
A.Angioplasty
B.Gastric bypass surgery
C.Tonsillectomy
D.Appendectomy
Q 144 :
What is the purpose of a cesarean section (C - section) in obstetrics
A.To remove kidney stones
B.To remove the appendix
C.To deliver a baby through an abdominal incision
D.To remove a portion of the stomach
Q 145 :
Which type of surgery involves repairing or reconstructing blood vessels and the circulatory system
A.Cardiothoracic surgery
B.Neurosurgery
C.Vascular surgery
D.Orthopedic surgery
Orthopaedics
Q 146 :
Martels sign seen in which of the following condition ?
A.Rheumatoid arthritis
B.Osteoarthritis
C.Gouty arthritis
D.Oochronosis
Q 147 :
Most specific antibody seen in RA -
A.Anti CCP
B.Rheumatoid factor
C.ANA
D.Anti ds DNA
Q 148 :
Compartment syndrome is commonly seen in -
A.Fracture of proximal tibia
B.Fracture shaft humerus
C.Fracture of femur shaft
D.Fracture distal end radius
Q 149 :
In surgical anterolateral approach to tibia , incision is taken over the tibialis anterior muscle mass rather than over the shaft . What is/are the advantages ?
A.Medially based flap
B.Less chances of wound dehiscence
C.Can be converted to an extensile approach
D.All the above
Q 150 :
Unna boot is used for treatment of -
A.Diabetic foot ulcer
B.Varicose ulcers
C.Ankle instability
D.Calcaneum fracture
Q 151 :
Autonomous zone of sensory supply by radial nerve is -
A.1st dorsal web space
B.Tip of index finger
C.Tip of thumb
D.Tip of little finger
Q 152 :
Caries sicca refer to -
A.Tuberculosis of shoulder
B.Tuberculosis of wrist
C.Tuberculosis of ankle
D.Tuberculosis of calcaneum
Q 153 :
Which of the following is true about DDH -
A.Male gender is a risk factor
B.Limbs are in adduction , internal rotation and flexion in old children
C.Femur neck is retroverted
D.Ligamentumteres is atrophied
Q 154 :
A patient presents with normal babinsky reflex with ankle are flexia with presence of saddle anesthesia and difficulty in micturition. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
A.Cauda equine syndrome
B.Brown Sequard syndrome
C.Lehriche syndrome
D.Williams syndrome
Q 155 :
Pseudofracture can be seen in the following conditions -
A.Hereditary hyperphosphatasia
B.Pagets disease
C.Fibrous dysplasia
D.All the above
ENT
Q 156 :
Which of the following is the most common subjective description of tinnitus?
A.A high-pitched ringing sound
B.A feeling of fullness in the ear
C.Dizziness and imbalance
D.Pain in the ear
Q 157 :
Tinnitus is best defined as:
A.An objective sound originating within or near the ear
B.The perception of sound when no external sound is present
C.A temporary hearing loss after exposure to loud noise
D.An inflammation of the middle ear
Q 158 :
Which of the following is NOT considered a common cause of subjective tinnitus?
A.Noise-induced hearing loss
B.Otosclerosis
C.Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorders
D.Cerumen impaction
Q 159 :
Pulsatile tinnitus is often associated with:
A.Sensorineural hearing loss
B.Vascular abnormalities
C.Meniere's disease
D.Presbycusis
Q 160 :
Objective tinnitus can be heard by:
A.Only the patient
B.The patient and the examiner
C.Only the examiner
D.Neither the patient nor the examiner
Ophthalmology
Q 161 :
What is the normal duration of human pregnancy, commonly referred to as gestation ?
A.6 months
B.7 months
C.9 months
D.12 months
Q 162 :
Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining during pregnancy and preventing uterine contractions until labor begins ?
A.Estrogen
B.Progesterone
C.Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D.Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Q 163 :
What is the term for the delivery of a baby through an incision made in the abdominal and uterine walls ?
A.Vaginal delivery
B.Breech delivery
C.Cesarean section
D.Vacuum extraction
Q 164 :
Which presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first instead of the head ?
A.Vertex presentation
B.Frank breech presentation
C.Complete breech presentation
D.Footling breech presentation
Q 165 :
What is the term for the process of the fetus moving from the uterus into the birth canal prior to labor and delivery ?
A.Effacement
B.Engagement
C.Flexion
D.Descent
Q 166 :
In obstetrics, what does the term "primigravida" refer to ?
A.A woman who has given birth to one or more children
B.A woman who is pregnant for the first time
C.A woman who is experiencing multiple pregnancies
D.A woman who has experienced recurrent miscarriages
Q 167 :
Which hormone is responsible for initiating and stimulating contractions during labor ?
A.Estrogen
B.Progesterone
C.Oxycontin
D.Protactinium
Q 168 :
What is the purpose of the Apgar score given to newborns immediately after birth ?
A.Assess the newborn's risk of genetic disorders
B.Determine the newborn's blood type
C.Evaluate the newborn's overall health and well-being
D.Calculate the newborn's birth weight
Q 169 :
What is the most common method used for estimating the due date of a pregnancy ?
A.Measuring fundal height
B.Counting the number of fetal movements
C.Ultrasound measurement of fetal size
D.Counting from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP)
Q 170 :
What is the term for the loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week of gestation ?
A.Preterm birth
B.Ectopic pregnancy
C.Stillbirth
D.Miscarriage
O&G
Q 171 :
What is the process of formation of mature sperm cells called?
A.Spermatogenesis
B.Oogenesis
C.Zygogenesis
D.Fertilization
Q 172 :
The fusion of male and female gametes during fertilization results in the formation of?
A.Zygote
B.Embryo
C.Blastocyst
D.Fetus
Q 173 :
Where does fertilization most commonly occur in the female reproductive system?
A.Uterus
B.Ovary
C.Fallopian tube
D.Cervix
Q 174 :
What is the term for the process where the fertilized egg attaches to the uterine wall?
A.Implantation
B.Fertilization
C.Ovulation
D.Menstruation
Q 175 :
The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer surrounding which part of the female reproductive system?
A.Ovary
B.Egg (oocyte)
C.Uterus
D.Fallopian tube
Q 176 :
Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy during the early stages?
A.Estrogen
B.Progesterone
C.Oxytocin
D.Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
Q 177 :
Which stage of embryonic development occurs immediately after fertilization?
A.Blastulation
B.Morula
C.Zygote
D.Neurulation
Q 178 :
At what point does the blastocyst implant into the endometrium?
A.3rd week after fertilization
B.6th week after fertilization
C.9th day after fertilization
D.12th day after fertilization
Q 179 :
Which of the following structures is formed after implantation of the embryo in the uterus?
A.Placenta
B.Amniotic sac
C.Yolk sac
D.All of the above
Q 180 :
The process of embryonic development, including differentiation and organ formation, is called?
A.Gastrulation
B.Organogenesis
C.Neurulation
D.Implantation
Q 181 :
Fetal growt is most rapid during which trimester of pregnancy?
A.First trimester
B.Second trimester
C.Third trimester
D.Post-partum
Q 182 :
The fetus begins to develop its own heartbeat during which week of pregnancy?
A.Week 4
B.Week 5
C.Week 8
D.Week 12
Q 183 :
The presence of which hormone indicates pregnancy during the first trimester?
A.Estrogen
B.Progesterone
C.Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
D.Prolactin
Q 184 :
At what gestational age is the fetus capable of independent survival outside the womb with medical assistance?
A.20 weeks
B.24 weeks
C.28 weeks
D.32 weeks
Q 185 :
The fetal heart rate is typically detectable by ultrasound after which week of pregnancy?
A.Week 6
B.Week 12
C.Week 16
D.Week 20
Q 186 :
During which stage of pregnancy does the fetal skeleton begin to ossify?
A.First trimester
B.Second trimester
C.Third trimester
D.Post-partum
Q 187 :
Which of the following fetal organs is the last to mature?
A.Heart
B.Lungs
C.Brain
D.Kidneys
Q 188 :
Fetal movements can usually be felt by the mother starting in which week?
A.10 weeks
B.16 weeks
C.20 weeks
D.24 weeks
Q 189 :
Which structure is responsible for nutrient and waste exchange between the fetus and the mother?
A.Placenta
B.Amniotic sac
C.Umbilical cord
D.Chorion
Q 190 :
Which of the following is true about fetal circulation?
A.The fetal lungs are the primary site of oxygen exchange.
B.Oxygenated blood from the placenta enters the fetus through the umbilical vein.
C.The ductus venosus bypasses the fetal kidneys.
D.Both B and C are correct.
Anaesthesiology
Q 191 :
Which nerve primarily innervates the diaphragm?
A.Intercostal nerves
B.Phrenic nerve
C.Vagus nerve
D.Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Q 192 :
The phrenic nerve originates from which cervical nerve roots?
A.C1-C2
B.C2-C3
C.C3-C5
D.C6-C8
Q 193 :
The cricoid cartilage is located at which cervical vertebral level?
A.C2
B.C3
C.C5
D.C6
Q 194 :
Which muscle is responsible for vocal cord abduction?
A.Lateral cricoarytenoid
B.Thyroarytenoid
C.Posterior cricoarytenoid
D.Transverse arytenoid
Q 195 :
The space between the true vocal cords is known as the:
A.Glottis
B.Vestibule
C.Subglottis
D.Rima glottidis
Psychiatry
Q 196 :
Which of the following is NOT a core component of Freud's psychoanalytic theory of personality?
A.Id
B.Ego
C.Superego
D.Collective unconscious
Q 197 :
The "pleasure principle" is associated with which component of Freud's personality structure?
A.Ego
B.Superego
C.Id
D.Conscious
Q 198 :
Which defense mechanism involves attributing one's unacceptable impulses to another person?
A.Displacement
B.Projection
C.Sublimation
D.Regression
Q 199 :
According to Erik Erikson, the stage of "identity vs role confusion" occurs during:
A.Childhood
B.Adolescence
C.Adulthood
D.Old age
Q 200 :
Which theorist emphasized the concept of the "collective unconscious"?
