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Latest OPSC PGT Political Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General English, General Knowledge
Question Bank OPSC PGT (Political Science) Exam Paper 1 - English
General English
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 12 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 13 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 14 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 15 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 16 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 17 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 18 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 19 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 20 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 21 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 22 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 23 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 24 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 25 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 41 :
To sleep with the fishes
A.Always be in a dream world
B.To make absurd excuses
C.To sleep peacefully
D.To be dead
Q 42 :
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A.To exterminate
B.To expurgate
C.To intricate
D.To extricate
Q 43 :
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A.Irascible
B.Crucible
C.Miscible
D.Risible
Q 44 :
Shooting fish in a barrel
A.To do random acts of stupidity
B.To behave in a cruel manner
C.Ridiculously easy
D.To escape through a narrow opening
Q 45 :
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A.was bounded by
B.was limitless
C.was limited
D.was bound to
Q 46 :
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A.Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B.Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C.Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D.Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Q 47 :
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A.Feeling a bit under the weather
B.Hitting the nail on the head
C.Sitting on the fence
D.Adding insult to the injury
Q 48 :
To bend over backwards
A.To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back
B.Stepping away from an unpleasant situation
C.To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful
D.Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority
Q 49 :
To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.
A.To annul
B.To negate
C.To efface
D.To undo
Q 50 :
Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.
A.Pious
B.Reverent
C.Humble
D.Devout
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OPSC PGT (Political Science) Exam Paper 1 Question Bank Book - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 53 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 54 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 55 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 56 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 57 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 58 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 59 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 60 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 61 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 62 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 63 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 64 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 65 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 66 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 67 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 68 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 69 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 70 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 71 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 72 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 73 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 74 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 75 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 76 :
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A.Leeds and Manchester
B.Bristol and Manchester
C.Carlisle and Leeds
D.Chester and Leeds
Q 77 :
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A.Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B.Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C.Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D.None of these
Q 78 :
What is Urbanization?
A.Migration of population from rural to urban area
B.Migration of people from urban to rural
C.Migration of people from one country to another
D.Migration of population from one state to another one
Q 79 :
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A.The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B.The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C.a and b both
D.None of these
Q 80 :
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
A.i and ii
B.i, iv and ii
C.i, ii and iii
D.i, ii, iii and iv
Q 81 :
It is said that Ashoka attacked Kalinga to get a Beautiful Girl of Fisherman Caste. Name the Girl
A.Lalita
B.Chandrika
C.Karubaki
D.Rupambika
Q 82 :
In which year was the Kalinga War Fought
A.150 BC
B.261 BC
C.75 Dc
D.Γ’β¬βΉ166 BC
Q 83 :
In Odisha KingAshoka did set up two H.Q.One was at Bhubaneswar. Where was the Second H.Q
A.Jaugada
B.Lalitgiri
C.Mallechhmunda
D.Sonepur
Q 84 :
Jaugada is in which district
A.Puri
B.Keonjhar
C.Ganjam
D.Koraput
Q 85 :
Witnessing mindess' massaere in Kalinga Was Ashoka got repentant and embraced Bhddhism. From which Buddhist Guru. He took initiation and Wbcame Buddhist
A.Upagupta
B.Chankya
C.Panini
D.HarisenΓ’β¬βΉ
Q 86 :
Name the song and daughter of Ashoka who were sent to Srilanka for spread of Buddhism
A.Ram Deo and Damayanti
B.Devendra and Madhuri
C.Kumar Gupta and Kalavati
D.Mahendra and Sanghamitra
Q 87 :
Before Ashoka King of which Dynasty of Magadha had attacked Odisha and taken away a statue of Jain Guru.
A.Maurya
B.Nanda
C.Sunga
D.Kanva
Q 88 :
In which year the great king Kharbel of Chedi Dynasty had sat on the throne of Kalinga.
A.192 BC
B.160 BC
C.244 BC
D.118 BC
Q 89 :
Name the King of Magadha who was defeated by Kharbel and He Retrieved the Jain Guru Statue taken away by Nanda King.
A.Pushya Bhuti Sunga
B.Bikram Giri Mitra AI
C.Bachaspati Sunga
D.Γ’β¬βΉBrihaspati Mitra Sung
Q 90 :
Name the Power of South India defeated by King Kharbel
A.Chola
B.Pandya
C.Shatkarni
D.Γ’β¬βΉChalukya
Q 91 :
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A.July 1, 2026
B.June 30, 2026
C.July 2, 2026
D.June 29, 2026
Q 92 :
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A.Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B.Chandrayaan-4
C.Gaganyaan crewed mission
D.Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Q 93 :
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A.Gukesh D
B.Praggnanandhaa R
C.Harshavardhan G.B.
D.Arjun Erigaisi
Q 94 :
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A.Merger with SBI
B.Merger into a single power financing entity
C.Merger with NTPC
D.Merger with IREDA
Q 95 :
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A.Lakhpati Didi App
B.Digital India Rural Scheme
C.PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D.SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Q 96 :
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
A.New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
B.Presidential elections were held
C.Parliament was dissolved
D.King was crowned
Q 97 :
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
A.20% below average
B.39.8% below average
C.15% above average
D.Normal rainfall
Q 98 :
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
A.Bengaluru
B.New Delhi
C.Mumbai
D.Hyderabad
Q 99 :
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
A.Universal Health Coverage
B.Ayushman Bharat expansion only
C.TB-free India 2030
D.National Ambulance Services 2026
Q 100 :
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?