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Question for OSSC Station Officer - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

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Latest OSSC Station Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Studies

Question Bank OSSC Station Officer Prelims Exam - English

General Studies

Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
Q 11 :
Who is the Cabinet Minister for public enterprises ?
  1. A.Dr. Damodar Rout
  2. B.Debi Prasad Mishra
  3. C.Jogendra Behera
  4. D.Pradip Kumar Amat
Q 12 :
Who is the minister of State of Commerce & Transport ?
  1. A.Prafulla Kumar Mallick
  2. B.Usha Devi
  3. C.Ramesh Chandra Majhi
  4. D.Arun Kumar Sahoo
  5. E.Pradip Kumar Amat
Q 13 :
What is the total Area (in sq. km) of Odisha ?
  1. A.1,55,707 sq. km
  2. B.1,047,553 sq. km
  3. C.2,033,124 sq. km
  4. D.1,88,697 sq. km
Q 14 :
What is the literacy rate of Odisha (in %) ?
  1. A.68.74 %
  2. B.77.42 %
  3. C.36.93 %
  4. D.73.45 %
Q 15 :
How many Districts are there in Odisha ?
  1. A.20
  2. B.30
  3. C.39
  4. D.41
Q 16 :
What is the Capital of Odisha ?
  1. A.Gajapati
  2. B.Ganjam
  3. C.Bhubaneshwar
  4. D.Koraput
Q 17 :
Which is the largest river in Odisha ?
  1. A.Mahanadi
  2. B.The Brahmani
  3. C.The Bahuda
  4. D.Indravati
Q 18 :
During the ancient times, Odisha was known as _______ ?
  1. A.Oriya
  2. B.Kalinga
  3. C.Kharavela
  4. D.Kannauj
Q 19 :
_________ dam was constructed on the river Mahanadi.
  1. A.Gopabandhu
  2. B.Chandipur
  3. C.Talcher
  4. D.Hirakund
Q 20 :
What is the total area (in km) occupied by Mahanadi ?
  1. A.852.8 kms
  2. B.395 kms
  3. C.165 kms
  4. D.701 kms
Q 21 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 22 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 23 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 24 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 25 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 26 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 27 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 28 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 30 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
Q 31 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
Q 32 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
Q 33 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 34 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 35 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
Q 38 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 39 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
Q 40 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 41 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
Q 42 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 43 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
Q 44 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
Q 45 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
Q 46 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 47 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen
Q 48 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
  1. A.50%          
  2. B.75%
  3. C.0% 
  4. D.25%
Q 49 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
  1. A.fresh-water mussel
  2. B.tortoise
  3. C.frog
  4. D.jelly fish
Q 50 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
  1. A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
  2. B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
  3. C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
  4. D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

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