Question for OSSSC Pharmacist - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

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Latest OSSSC Pharmacist Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Pharmacy, Arithmetic, English

Question Bank OSSSC Pharmacist Exam - English

Pharmacy

Q 1 :

Creaming is a ________ process.

1. A.Reversible​
2. B.Irreversible
3. C.Downward
4. D.Both (a) and (c)

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Q 2 :

o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.

1. A.Downward
2. B.Upward
3. C.First up and then down
4. D.First down then up

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Q 3 :

 ______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.

1. A.Cellulose
2. B.Pectin
3. C.Glucose
4. D.Methyl cellulose

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Q 4 :

Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.

1. A.Neutralize
2. B.Decrease
3. C.Increase
4. D.Stabilize

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Q 5 :

The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____
 

1. A.One
2. B.Greater than one
3. C.Zero
4. D.Less than one

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Q 6 :

Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?

1. A.Particles form loose aggregates and the supernatant becomes clear
2. B.Particles form a compact hard cake and the supernatant remains turbid
3. C.Sedimentation is negligible and particles remain completely dispersed
4. D.Redispersion becomes progressively impossible

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Q 7 :

Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?

1. A.Stokes' law
2. B.Henry's law
3. C.Raoult's law
4. D.Beer-Lambert law

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Q 8 :

According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?

1. A.0.26
2. B.0.50
3. C.0.74
4. D.0.90

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Q 9 :

Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?

1. A.Charcoal
2. B.Kaolin
3. C.Calamine
4. D.Aluminum Hydroxide

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Q 10 :

Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?

1. A.Creep test
2. B.Pycnometry
3. C.Nephelometry
4. D.Refractometry

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Q 11 :

Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?

1. A.Higher
2. B.Always lower
3. C.Exactly identical
4. D.Always zero

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Q 12 :

According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.

 
 

1. A.Downward
2. B.Upward
3. C.Centre
4. D.Both (a) and (b)

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Q 13 :

____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributions  is of globules is not uniform.

1. A.Caking
2. B.Breaking
3. C.Creaming
4. D.Coalescence

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Q 14 :

The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______
 

1. A.Homogenization
2. B.Lyophilization
3. C.Centrifugation
4. D.Both (a) and (c)

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Q 15 :

According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?

1. A.Decreasing globule size
2. B.Increasing globule size
3. C.Decreasing continuous-phase viscosity
4. D.Increasing the density difference between phases

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Q 16 :

The ratio of oil : water : gum, used for the preparation of a primary emulsion containing a fixed oil is ____

1. A.4 : 4 : 2
2. B.4 : 2 : 1
3. C.1 : 2 : 4
4. D.2 : 4 : 4

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Q 17 :

The percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P is ___
 
 

1. A.66.7% w/w
2. B.85% w/w
3. C.56% w/w
4. D.33% w/w

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Q 18 :

Commonly used solvent in throat paint is ____

1. A.Castor Oil
2. B.Sucrose Syrup
3. C.Glycerin
4. D.Alcohol

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Q 19 :

Lugol's solution is an aqueous solution containing iodine together with which substance to enhance iodine solubility?

1. A.Potassium iodide
2. B.Sodium bicarbonate
3. C.Calcium chloride
4. D.Magnesium sulfate

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Q 20 :

Which of the following processes is used for the extraction of volatile oils from plants?

1. A.Simple Distillation
2. B.Steam Distillation
3. C.Extraction
4. D.Soxhlation

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Q 21 :

In atherosclerosis, the serum level of____decreases.

1. A.Triglycerides
2. B.VLDL
3. C.HDL
4. D.LDL

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Q 22 :

Which drug can significantly increase plasma digoxin concentrations and thereby increase the risk of digitalis toxicity?

1. A.Quinidine
2. B.Potassium chloride
3. C.Lidocaine
4. D.Magnesium sulfate

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Q 23 :

When quinidine is initiated in a patient receiving digoxin, which measure is particularly important?

1. A.Monitor digoxin concentration and adjust its dose when necessary
2. B.Routinely double the digoxin dose
3. C.Discontinue all potassium intake
4. D.Administer digoxin only intramuscularly

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Q 24 :

Name a substitute of enalapril.

1. A.Losartan
2. B.Rosiglitazone
3. C.Omeprazole
4. D.Famotidine

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Q 25 :

Antihypertensive drugs                                 Mode of action
1. Methyldopa                                               (A) Ganglion blocker
2. Hydralazine                                              (B) Depletion of catecholamines
3. Reserpine                                                 (C) Direct action on arterioles
4. Mecamylamine                                         (D) False neurotransmitter

1. A.1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
2. B.1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
3. C.1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
4. D.1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

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Q 26 :

Match the cardiovascular drug with its principal pharmacological action:
1. Papaverine – Vasodilator
2. Verapamil – Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine – Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine – β₁-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?

1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
2. B.Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched
3. C.Only 2 and 3 are correctly matched
4. D.Only 3 and 4 are correctly matched

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Q 27 :

Which of the following are the potential targets for designing antihypertensive drugs?
(A) H₂-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C)  - adrenergic receptors
(D) Calcium channel proteins

1. A.A and B
2. B.C and D
3. C.B and D
4. D.A and D

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Q 28 :

Hypotensive agents                                Mode of action
1. Clonidine                                      (A) Direct action on blood vessels
2. Captopril                                        (B) - adrenoceptor antagonist
3. Prazosin                                        (C) Decreases sympathetic activity through brain
4. Minoxidil                                        (D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

1. A.1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
2. B.1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
3. C.1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
4. D.1-C 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

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Q 29 :

Which statement about digoxin is correct?

1. A.Its elimination half-life in adults with normal renal function is approximately 36–48 hours
2. B.It is metabolized almost completely by the liver
3. C.It primarily accelerates AV nodal conduction
4. D.Its principal elimination pathway is pulmonary excretion

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Q 30 :

Digitalis glycosides are used in congestive heart failure as they increase the____.

1. A.Force of myocardial contraction
2. B.Cardiac filling pressure
3. C.Heart rate
4. D.Venous pressure

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Q 31 :

Digitalis is used in congestive heart failure. It acts by ____.

1. A.Decreasing the intracellular sodium levels
2. B.Activating adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP
3. C.Decreasing the release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. D.Inhibiting the action of Na⁺ -K⁺ -ATPase enzyme

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Q 32 :

Concomitant administration of ____ increases the risk of digitalis toxicity.

1. A.Lidocaine
2. B.Triamterene
3. C.Hydrochlorothiazide
4. D.Captopril

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Q 33 :

___is a cardioselective -blocker with vasodilatory action.

1. A.Atenolol
2. B.Bisoprolol
3. C.Nebivolol
4. D.Pindolol

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Q 34 :

___is specifically indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.

1. A.Mexiletine
2. B.Diltiazem
3. C.Propranolol
4. D.Nifedipine

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Q 35 :

Which angiotensin-II receptor blocker is used in hypertension?

1. A.Valsartan
2. B.Amlodipine
3. C.Atenolol
4. D.Enalapril

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Q 36 :

Why may metoprolol be preferred over propranolol when β₁-selectivity is clinically desirable?

1. A.Metoprolol is relatively selective for β₁-adrenoceptors
2. B.Metoprolol is an irreversible α-blocker
3. C.Metoprolol is a calcium-channel blocker
4. D.Metoprolol stimulates β₂-adrenoceptors

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Q 37 :

Which cardiac drug exerts its positive inotropic action primarily by stimulating β₁-adrenoceptors and increasing intracellular cAMP?

1. A.Dobutamine
2. B.Digitoxin
3. C.Nicardipine
4. D.Sotalol

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Q 38 :

Which antianginal drug may produce reflex tachycardia because of marked vasodilation?

1. A.Nitroglycerin
2. B.Timolol
3. C.Atenolol
4. D.Ivabradine

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Q 39 :

Which drug is particularly useful in vasospastic or Prinzmetal angina because it blocks L-type calcium channels and relaxes coronary vascular smooth muscle?

1. A.Nifedipine
2. B.Timolol
3. C.Digoxin
4. D.Hydrochlorothiazide

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Q 40 :

Sublingual nitroglycerine tablet has a duration of action of___.

1. A.3-5 mins
2. B.10-30 mins
3. C.1-2 hours
4. D.8-10 hours

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Q 41 :

Which antihypertensive drug inhibits the renin angiotensin-aldosterone system?

1. A.Propranolol
2. B.Methyldopa
3. C.Reserpine
4. D.Enalapril

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Q 42 :

Terazosin lowers blood pressure primarily by blocking which receptors?

1. A.α₁-adrenoceptors
2. B.β₁-adrenoceptors
3. C.β₂-adrenoceptors
4. D.H₂-receptors

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Q 43 :

Clonidine lowers blood pressure predominantly by stimulating which central receptors?

1. A.α₂-adrenoceptors
2. B.β₁-adrenoceptors
3. C.H₂-receptors
4. D.D₂-receptors

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Q 44 :

Which condition is an important contraindication to the use of a nonselective β-blocker such as propranolol?

1. A.Bronchial asthma with bronchospasm
2. B.Essential hypertension
3. C.Migraine prophylaxis
4. D.Stable angina pectoris

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Q 45 :

Which one of the following sentence is true for nitrates?

1. A.They have diuretic effect
2. B.They are drugs of choice in hypertension
3. C.Glyceryl trinitrates is used in the rapid relief from angina
4. D.Tolerance is developed only to adverse effects but not to antianginal effect.

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Q 46 :

Furosemide is an example of____.

1. A.Potassium-sparing diuretic
2. B.Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
3. C.Thiazide diuretic
4. D.Loop diuretic

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Q 47 :

Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?

1. A.Clonidine
2. B.Losartan
3. C.Acebutalol
4. D.Amlodipine

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Q 48 :

Which direct-acting arteriolar vasodilator relaxes vascular smooth muscle and is used in the treatment of hypertension?

1. A.Hydralazine
2. B.Physostigmine
3. C.Pilocarpine
4. D.Pralidoxime

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Q 49 :

Thiazide diuretics do not cause which of the following adverse effect?

1. A.Hypokalaemia
2. B.Hyperuricaemia
3. C.Hypoglycaemia
4. D.Hypercalcaemia

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Q 50 :

____ is the most commonly used diuretic along with antihypertensive drugs.

1. A.Acetazolamide
2. B.Mannitol
3. C.Spironolactone
4. D.Hydrochlorothiazide

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