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PCMC Computer Operator Exam - English

Duration: 120 ยท Questions: 150 ยท Max Marks: 150 ยท Language: 3

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GK

1
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
  1. A.It is a financial establishment
  2. B.It acts like a financial intermediary
  3. C.It accepts deposits from the public 
  4. D.It provides safe locker facility
  5. E.All the above
2
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
  1. A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
  2. B.They include general utility services and agency services.
  3. C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
  4. D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
  5. E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
3
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
  1. A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
  2. B.Providing safe custody of valuable items 
  3. C.ATM services
  4. D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
  5. E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
4
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
  1. A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
  2. B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
  3. C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
  4. D.Company Act 1956
  5. E.None of the above
5
Banks in India are regulated by :
  1. A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
  2. B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
  3. C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
  4. D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
  5. E.None of the above
6
‘Mukhyamantri Mahtari Nyay Rath’ was launched by the CM of which of the following state?
  1. A.Madhya Pradesh 
  2. B.Maharashtra
  3. C.Chhattisgarh
  4. D.Uttar Pradesh
7
Mirabai Chanu has won the first Gold medal for India at CWG 2022. Mirabai Chanu participated in which of the following category ?
  1. A.51 Kg Women’s
  2. B.49 Kg Women’s
  3. C.53 Kg Women’s
  4. D.47 Kg Women’s             
8
'The Indian Vegetable Oil Producers' Association (IVPA) and Palm Oil Council of which country have signed an MOU to promote use of palm oil ?
  1. A.Cambodia
  2. B.Japan
  3. C.Indonesia
  4. D.Malaysia
9
Who gave away Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Awards in New Delhi in July 2022 ?
  1. A.Rajnath Singh
  2. B.Giriraj Singh
  3. C.Narendra Singh Tomar
  4. D.Nirmala Sitharaman
10
Name the company that recently partnered with Talgo India Private Limited to set up a joint venture for manufacturing high-speed trains in India ?
  1. A.GMR Infrastructure Limited
  2. B.BF Infrastructure Limited
  3. C.Reliance Infrastructure Limited
  4. D.Hindustan Construction
11
The National Skill Development Mission, also known as the Skill India Mission, under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, observed its …… anniversary on 15th July 2022 .
  1. A.5th
  2. B.6th
  3. C.3rd
  4. D.7th
12
Which country’s Reserve Bank recently launched gold coins namely ‘Mosi-oa-Tunya’ as Legal Tender to tackle inflation ?
  1. A.Zambia
  2. B.Mozambique
  3. C.Namibia
  4. D.Zimbabwe
13
The RBI’s Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) was recently rose to …… in March 2022 against 270.59 in March 2021 ?
  1. A.328.15
  2. B.290.41
  3. C.389.12
  4. D.349.30
14
Sahitya Akademi Award-winning and litterateur Atulananda Goswami recently passed away. He received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2006 for his short story collection ……..
  1. A.Satanic Verses
  2. B.Seneh Jarir Ganthi
  3. C.Ghachar Ghochar
  4. D.Ahalya
15
What is the theme of World Hepatitis Day 2022 that was observed across the globe on 28th July 2022 by the World Health Organization (WHO) ?
  1. A.Bringing Hepatitis Care Closer to You
  2. B.Hepatitis-free Future
  3. C.Test, Treat. Hepatitis
  4. D.Hepatitis Can’t Wait

General Studies

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
7
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
8
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
9
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
10
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax

English

1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
2
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
3
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
4
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
  1. A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
  2. B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
  3. C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
5
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
  1. A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
  2. B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
  3. C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
  4. D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them. 
6
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
  1. A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
  2. B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
  3. C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
  4. D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
7
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
  1. A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
  2. B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
  3. C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
  4. D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
8
We shall invite Suresh.
  1. A.Suresh would be invited by us
  2. B.Suresh would have been invited by us
  3. C.Suresh will be invited by us
  4. D.Suresh will have been invited by us
9
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
  1. A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
  2. B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
  3. C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
  4. D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
10
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow. 
  1. A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
  2. B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
  3. C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
  4. D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
11
Why did break the vase?
  1. A.why is the vase broken by him
  2. B.why was the vase broken by him
  3. C.why had been the vase broken by him
  4. D.why has been the vase broken by him
12
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
  1. A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
  2. B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
  3. C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
  4. D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
13
The baby really enjoys that music.
  1. A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
  2. B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
  3. C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
  4. D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
14
The weather disrupted the final match.
  1. A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
  2. B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
  3. C.The final match was disrupted by the weather. 
  4. D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
15
The management committee is required to publish a report every year. 
  1. A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
  2. B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
  3. C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
  4. D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
16
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
17
Assets
  1. A.liabilities
  2. B.responsibilities
  3. C.estates
  4. D.profits
18
Affidavit
  1. A. Affirmation
  2. B.Slander
  3. C.Oath
  4. D.Testimony
19
Hollow
  1. A.Alveolate
  2. B.Cleft
  3. C. Cavernous
  4. D.Solid
20
Cosset 
  1. A.Ignoreb
  2. B.Close
  3. C.Caress
  4. D.Fondle
21
Ogle
  1. A.Leer
  2. B.Gaze
  3. C.Ignore
  4. D.Gawk
22
Intrinsic
  1. A.Elemental
  2. B.Innate
  3. C.Connate
  4. D.Acquired
23
Coalesce
  1. A.Separate
  2. B.Adhere
  3. C.Cleave
  4. D.Amalgamate
24
Loiter
  1. A.lag 
  2. B.Hasten
  3. C.Amble
  4. D.Loii
25
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
  1. A.held, generating
  2. B.aimed, creating
  3. C.targeted, awakening
  4. D.focused, building
  5. E.concentrated, producing

Computer Knowledge

1
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
  1. A.Window
  2. B.Pop-up menu
  3. C.Message box
  4. D.Taskbar
2
What is active desktop ?
  1. A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
  2. B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
  3. C.both a and b above mentioned
  4. D.A software
  5. E.None of these
3
What is meant by an active window?
  1. A.A window that is minimized
  2. B.The window currently receiving user input
  3. C.Any window currently open
  4. D.The window opened first
4
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
  1. A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
  2. B.A computer operating system
  3. C.A spreadsheet application
  4. D.A database management system
5
An application is
  1. A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
  2. B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
  3. C.Both a and b above mentioned
  4. D.a document
  5. E.None of these
6
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
  1. A.Window program
  2. B.Spreadsheet program
  3. C.Graphics program
  4. D.Word program
  5. E.None of these
7
The term Briefcase is used for
  1. A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
  2. B.a window that us currently open
  3. C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
  4. D.All of the above
  5. E.None of these
8
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
  1. A.Executing a command or initiating an action
  2. B.Permanently storing data
  3. C.Displaying the computer's IP address
  4. D.Formatting a disk automatically
9
A channel (in windows terminology) is
  1. A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
  2. B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
  3. C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
  4. D.All of the above
  5. E.None of these
10
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
  1. A.The associated option is enabled or selected
  2. B.The application has closed
  3. C.The file has been deleted
  4. D.The computer is offline
11
The term classic style implies
  1. A.you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
  2. B.a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
  3. C.both a and b 
  4. D.font style
  5. E.None of these
12
The term click implies
  1. A.to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
  2. B.a button in a dialog box
  3. C.to shut down or exit a dialog box
  4. D.All of the above
  5. E.None of these
13
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
  1. A.Minimize the window
  2. B.Close the associated window or application
  3. C.Maximize the window
  4. D.Move the window
14
A command button
  1. A.is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
  2. B.is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
  3. C.is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
  4. D.is a small button with an X on it
  5. E.None of these
15
What is smallest unit of the information?
  1. A.A bit
  2. B.A byte
  3. C.A block
  4. D.A nibble
16
A cursor is 
  1. A.to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard 
  2. B.a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
  3. C.pressing and holding the main mouse button
  4. D.A button in a dialog box
  5. E.None of these
17
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
  1. A.A structured collection of data only
  2. B.Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
  3. C.A physical device for storing database backups
  4. D.A programming language used only for calculations
18
The meaning of cut is
  1. A.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard 
  2. B.to cut a document in two unequal parts
  3. C.to cut a document in two equal parts
  4. D.Only b and c are correct
19
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
  1. A.pre - determined setting
  2. B.user - setting
  3. C.default
  4. D.setting
  5. E.None of these
20
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
  1. A.wall paper
  2. B.desktop
  3. C.background      
  4. D.All of the above
  5. E.None of these
21
What is a dialog box in a graphical user interface?
  1. A.An on-screen window used to display information or obtain user input and selections
  2. B.A tool used exclusively for audio and video calls
  3. C.A hardware device used for voice commands
  4. D.A program used exclusively to browse websites
22
A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is called as
  1. A.Master  
  2. B.slide
  3. C.document         
  4. D.worksheet
  5. E.None of these
23
The meaning of double click is 
  1. A.pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
  2. B.appearance of an icon
  3. C.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
  4. D.All of the above
  5. E.None of these
24
The term drag and drop means
  1. A.appearance of an icon
  2. B.used for selecting text
  3. C.to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into its new location
  4. D.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
  5. E.None of these
25
What does dragging with a mouse mean?
  1. A.Holding down a mouse button while moving the mouse pointer
  2. B.Closing an application
  3. C.Double-clicking an icon without moving the mouse
  4. D.Restarting the computer

Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
12
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
13
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
14
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
15
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
16
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
17
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
18
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
19
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
20
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
21
16.928 + 24.7582  5.015 =?
  1. A.20   
  2. B.24
  3. C.22
  4. D.26
22
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/4
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
  4. D.5/8
23
Which is greater ?
  1. A.11/13
  2. B.12/15
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
24
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
  1. A.0
  2. B.1
  3. C.Same
  4. D.Prime
25
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
  1. A.
    10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000

Mechanical

1
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
  1. A.Greater than 1
  2. B.Equal to 1
  3. C.Between 1 and 3
                   4        4
  4. D.Less than 1
2
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
3
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
  1. A.Newtonian fluid 
  2. B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
  3. C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
  4. D.Dilatent fluids
4
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
  1. A.8
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.2
5
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
  1. A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
  2. B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
  3. C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
  4. D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
6
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.1 only 
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 
7
State whether following flow field is physically possible? 
  1. A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
  2. B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
  3. C.Possible for steady, compressible flow 
  4. D.Not Possible 
8
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.0.25
  2. B.0.26
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
9
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A.10 kW 
  2. B.20 kW
  3. C.30 kW
  4. D.50 kW
10
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
  1. A.man power
  2. B.profit
  3. C.inventory
  4. D.manufacturing
11
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
  1. A.3 m/s2
  2. B.6 m/s2
  3. C.9 m/s2
  4. D.15 m/s2
12
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
  1. A.9
  2. B.-6
  3. C.117
  4. D.10.8
13
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
  1. A.More for lighter fluid
  2. B.More for denser fluid
  3. C.Less for denser fluid
  4. D.Less for lighter fluid
14
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
  1. A.Linearly with fluid density
  2. B.Inversely with pressure drop
  3. C.Directly as square of pipe radius
  4. D.Inversely with fluid velocity
15
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
  1. A.1.5mm
  2. B.2.5mm
  3. C.4.0mm
  4. D.5.0mm
16
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
  1. A.0.05m 
  2. B.0.07m
  3. C.0.08m
  4. D.0.09m
17
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
 
  1. A.8 kW     
  2. B.4 kW
  3. C.2 kW    
  4. D. 1 kW
18
In a hydraulic coupling
  1. A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
  2. B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
  3. C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
  4. D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque 
19
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
  1. A.1,2 and 3 only
  2. B.1,2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,2, 3 and 4 
20
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
  1. A.150 N
  2. B.1470 N
  3. C.340 N
  4. D.900 N
21
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
22
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
  1. A.Energy 
  2. B.Mass
  3. C.Momentum
  4. D.Angle
23
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
  1. A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  2. B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
  3. C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  4. D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid 
24
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
  1. A.2Q
  2. B.A little more than 2Q
  3. C.A little less than 2Q
  4. D.4Q
25
 Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
  1. A. 7.5 W/m2K      
  2. B.15 W/m2K
  3. C.25 W/m2K      
  4. D. 35 W/m2K
26
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
  1. A.Remains constant over the cross-section
  2. B.Varies linearly with the radial distance
  3. C.Must be zero at all point 
  4. D.Varies parabolically with radial distance
27
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
  1. A.Creep
  2. B.Malleability
  3. C.Ductility
  4. D.Elasticity in the metal
28
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
  1. A.Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
  2. B.Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
  3. C.The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
  4. D.No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
29
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
  1. A.Pressure and inertial forces
  2. B.Gravity and inertial forces
  3. C.Viscous and inertial forces
  4. D.Pressure and inertial forces
30
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
  1. A.Penstock/nozzl
  2. B.Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
  3. C.Vanes receiving impact of jet
  4. D.Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube 
31
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
  1. A.Inversely proportional to Re
  2. B.Proportional to Re 
  3. C.Proportional to square of Re
  4. D.Independent of Re 
32
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
  1. A.Mechanical efficiency
  2. B.Static efficiency
  3. C.Overall efficiency
  4. D.Manometric efficiency
33
A pump is defined as a device which converts
  1. A.Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
  2. B.Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
  3. C.Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
  4. D.None of the above
34
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
  1. A.Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
  2. B.Requires unit power to develop unit head
  3. C.Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
  4. D.Produces unit power with unit head available
35
Negative slip occurs  in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
  1. A.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
  2. B.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
  3. C.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
  4. D.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed 
36
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
  1. A.0.156 N/m
  2. B.0.313 N/m
  3. C.0.624 N/m 
  4. D.0.078 N/m
37
A Newtonian fluid is one which
  1. A.Is viscous but incompressible
  2. B.Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
  3. C.Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
  4. D.Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
38
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
  1. A.Increased cohesive force between the molecule
  2. B.Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
  3. C.Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
  4. D.Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
39
Manometer is a device used for measuring
  1. A.Velocity at a point in a fluid
  2. B.Pressure at a point in a fluid
  3. C.Discharge of a fluid
  4. D.None of the above
40
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
  1. A.0.10 N/m2
  2. B.0.5 N/m2
  3. C.1.0 N/m2
  4. D.0.15 N/m2
41
Which of the above statements is correct?
  1. A.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
  2. B.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
  3. C.For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
  4. D.For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
42
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
  1. A. 1.8 K/W         
  2. B. 1.8 W/K
  3. C.1 K/W           
  4. D. 1 W/K
43
A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines
  1. A.Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
  2. B.Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
  3. C.Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
  4. D.Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector
44
Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?
  1. A.Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
  2. B.The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
  3. C.Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
  4. D.All of the above
45
Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid. 
Which of the above reasons are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only 
46
A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is 
  1. A.100m/s
  2. B.200m/s
  3. C.300m/s
  4. D.350m/s 
47
Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity. 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only 
48
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is
  1. A.33.33%
  2. B.40%
  3. C.66.66%
  4. D.90%
49
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be
  1. A.1
    2
  2. B.1
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
50
Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure. 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only 
Question for PCMC Computer Operator 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam