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PG Dental Entrance Exam - English.

Duration: 180 ยท Questions: 240 ยท Max Marks: 240 ยท Language: 3

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Dental Surgeon

1
Failure of descent of thyroid gland can be seen in the tongue
 
  1. A.In anterior  2/3 of dorsal aspect
     
  2. B.IN posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
     
  3. C.Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum  
     
  4. D.In anterior 2/3 of inferior 
2
development of mandible is by
 
  1. A.I branchial arch
     
  2. B.II branchial arch
     
  3. C.Iv branchial arch
     
  4. D.III branchial arch 
3
which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle ?
 
  1. A.Frontal
     
  2. B.Parietal
     
  3. C.Temporal
     
  4. D.Occipital
     
4
The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secret motor impulse involved in lacrimation is
 
  1. A.Chorda tympani nerve
     
  2. B.Deep pertosal nerve
     
  3. C.Greater petrosal nerve
     
  4. D.Lesser petrosal nerve
5
Structure related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle include the following except
 
  1. A.Glossopharyngeal nerve
     
  2. B.Stylohyoid ligament
     
  3. C.Lingual artert
     
  4. D.Hypoglossal nerve
6
Which of the following nerves is not encountered during submandibular gland resection ?
 
  1. A.Lingual nerve                                                    
     
  2. B.Hypoglossal nerve
     
  3. C.Accessory nerve
     
  4. D.Marginal mandibular nerve
     
7
Which of the following os called counter current exchanger ?
 
  1. A.Loop of Henle
     
  2. B.Vasa  recta
     
  3. C.collecting duct
     
  4. D.Proximal convoluted tubule
     
8
Acute pyogenic infection produces .
 
  1. A.Leucopenia
     
  2. B.Liukocytosis
     
  3. C.Neutropenia
     
  4. D.Lymphopenia
     
9
The receptor cells of the olfactory epithelium are
 
  1. A.Bipolar neurons
     
  2. B.Unipolar neurons
     
  3. C.Multipolar neurons
     
  4. D.stellate cells 
10
According to US FDA, the machine used for taking intraoral radiographs is classified as :
  1. A.Class I
  2. B.Class II
     
  3. C.Classs III
  4. D.Class IV
11
Activity of osteoclasts can be modified and regulated by which hormone
 
  1. A.Calcitonin
     
  2. B.Thyroid
     
  3. C.Insulin
     
  4. D.Pituitary 
12
Is volumetric relaxation ends immediately after
 
  1. A.A V valve closes
     
  2. B.When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure
     
  3. C.when ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure
     
  4. D.None of the above 
13
Which of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle
 
  1. A.Troponin
     
  2. B.Myosin
     
  3. C.Actin
     
  4. D.Protein C 
14
Intrinsic factor in the stomach is secreted by
 
  1. A.Oxyntic cells
     
  2. B.Chief cells
     
  3. C.Mast like cells
     
  4. D.D –cells of antrum 
15
Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response to
 
  1. A.Decrease in PH of blood
     
  2. B.Increase in PH of blood
     
  3. C.Obstructive pulmonary disease
     
  4. D.Carbon monoxide poisoning 
16
The main component of hyperlipidemia constituting a major risk factor for atherosclerosis is
 
  1. A.High density lipoprotein (HDL)cholesterol
     
  2. B.Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) cholesterol
     
  3. C.Low density lipoprotein (LDL ) cholesterol
     
  4. D.Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) cholesterol 
17
Metal oxides are added in porcelain provide all EXCEPT :
  1. A.Strength
  2. B.Improve bonding
  3. C.Cosmetic
  4. D.Impart color
18
The enzyme phosphofructokinase 1 is strongly activated by
 
  1. A.Cyclic AMP
     
  2. B.Adenosine triphosphate
     
  3. C.Citrate
     
  4. D.Fructose 2 ,6 bis phosphate 
19
Transcription is the synthesis of
 
  1. A.Single stranded complimentary  copy of DNA
     
  2. B.Double stranded complimentaty copy of DNA
     
  3. C.Complimentary copy of RNA
     
  4. D.complimentary copy of r RNA
20
Non  polar lipid act as
 
  1. A.Electrical insulators
     
  2. B.Ions
     
  3. C.Non electrical insulators
     
  4. D.Electrolytes
     
21
Cofactor required for lipoprotein lipase activity is
 
  1. A.Apo A-II
     
  2. B.Apo C-II
     
  3. C.Apo CIII
     
  4. D.Apo B –II
     
22
The first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency 
  1. A.Albumin
     
  2. B.Globulin
     
  3. C.Fibrinogen
     
  4. D.Thrombin
     
23
Hemochromatosis presents with all except
 
  1. A.Micro modular
     
  2. B.Diabetes  mellitus
     
  3. C.Skin pigmentation
     
  4. D.Hepatitis 
24
coating of bacteria particles with host protein to facilitate phagocytosis is known as
 
  1. A.Chemotaxis
     
  2. B.Chemokine
     
  3. C.Opsonization
     
  4. D.Membrane attack complex 
25
Caseation necrosis is see in
 
  1. A.Tuberculosis
     
  2. B.Sarcoidosis
     
  3. C.In both tuberculosis and sarcoidosis
     
  4. D.Leprosy 
26
Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking 
  1. A.Coronary arteries
     
  2. B.Cerebral arteries
     
  3. C.Pulmonary arteries
     
  4. D.Renal arteries 
27
Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism
 
  1. A.Membrane attack complex killing
     
  2. B.Oxidative and non oxidative killing 
     
  3. C.Zipper killing
     
  4. D.Chemotoxis 
28
Shock lung is seen in
 
  1. A.Hypovolemic Shock
     
  2. B.Septic shock
     
  3. C.Anaphylactic  shock
     
  4. D.Neurogenic shock
29
which one given below is a DNA virus ?
 
  1. A.Polio virus
     
  2. B.Adenovirus
     
  3. C.Astroviridae
     
  4. D.Hepatitis –A virus
     
30
The antibody produced during primary immune response is
 
  1. A.IgM
     
  2. B.IgG
     
  3. C.IgA
     
  4. D.IgE
31
The most frequently encountered clostridia species in gas gangrenes is
 
  1. A.Clostridium botulinum
     
  2. B.Clostridium perfringens
     
  3. C.Clostridium tetani
     
  4. D.Clostridium difficult
     
32
Salivary protein which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva is
 
  1. A.Sialoperoxidase
     
  2. B.Secretory IgA
     
  3. C.Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
     
  4. D.Histidine rich proteins 
33
Abductor o vocal cord is
 
  1. A.Transverse arytenoids
     
  2. B.Oblique  arytenoids
     
  3. C.Lateral thyroatytenoid
     
  4. D.Polaterior cricoarytenoid 
34
Umbilical cord contains
  1. A.Three arteries and one vein
  2. B.One artery and three veins
  3. C.One artery and one vein
  4. D.Anterior mandible 
35
Unilateral paralysis of hypoglossal
 
  1. A.Deviation of tongue to the normal side
     
  2. B.Deviation of tongue to the paralyzed
     
  3. C.No change in the position to tongue
     
  4. D.Retraction of tongue 
36
Human immunodeficiency virus binds to macrophages having

 
  1. A.CD-4 molecule
     
  2. B.CE 4 and CXCR molecules
     
  3. C.CD 4 and CCR 5 molecule
     
  4. D.CXCR and      CCR 5 molecules 
37
Which of the following fibers are responsible for conduction of pain impulses?
 
  1. A.A Alpha
     
  2. B.A Beta
     
  3. C.A Delta
     
  4. D.A Gamma 
38
Axon hillock is a part of neuron which
 
  1. A.Has a dense Nissel granule
     
  2. B.Has no Nissel granules
     
  3. C.Is at commencement of dendrites
     
  4. D.Is round in shape 
39
Magnesium level in blood increases in
 
  1. A.Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
     
  2. B.Liver cirrhosis
     
  3. C.Kidney failure
     
  4. D.Chronic alcoholism
40
Which of the following is the most specific test to diagnose syphilis ?
 
  1. A.VDRL test
     
  2. B.Wassermann  test
     
  3. C.RPR test
     
  4. D.FTA – ABS  
41
Which of the following events does not occur in response to light? 
 
  1. A.structural change in rhodopsin
     
  2. B.Activation of transducing
     
  3. C.Decreased intracellular cGMP
     
  4. D.Opening of Na+  channels 
42
Which of the following commonly used topical antiseptics has antifungal activity ?
 
  1. A.Povidone – iodine
     
  2. B.Cetrimide
     
  3. C.Chlorhexidine
     
  4. D.Alcohol 
43
The absolute refractory period of an action potential is due to
 
 
  1. A.Insufficient neurotransmitter
     
  2. B.Depletion of intracellular Na+
     
  3. C.Inactivation of Na+-K+ ATPase
     
  4. D.Voltage inactivation of the Na+ channel
44
Starling’s law of heart
 
  1. A.Does not operate in failing heart
     
  2. B.Do not operate during exercise
     
  3. C.Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
     
  4. D.Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic  nerves supplying the heart are stimulated
45
The normal value of intrapleural pressure at the base of lung at the start of inspiration is     
 
  1. A.-6mmHg
     
  2. B.-2.5mmHg
     
  3. C.+2.5 mmHg
     
  4. D.+6mmHg
46
Which one of the following does not act by increasing insulin secretion
 
  1. A.Glyburide
     
  2. B.Rapaglinide
     
  3. C.Tolbutamode
     
  4. D.Bibuanide 
47
CEF if directly returned to venous system by
 
  1. A.Choroid plexus
     
  2. B.Cerebral veins
     
  3. C.Arachnoid villi
     
  4. D.Emissary veins 
48
Which one of the following is not an ergot alkaloids
 
  1. A.Bromocriptine 
  2. B.Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD )
     
  3. C.Ketanserin
     
  4. D.Methylsergide 
49
Burning foot syndrome occurs due to deficiency of
 
  1. A.Niacin
     
  2. B.Pantothenic acid
     
  3. C.Riboflavin
     
  4. D.Folic acid 
50
The uptake of glucose by liver is increased following a carbohydrate meal because
 
  1. A.There is increased phosphorylation of glucose by glucokinase 
     
  2. B.GLUT -2 is stimulated by insulin
     
  3. C.Glucokinase has a low Km for glucose
     
  4. D.Hexokinase in liver has a high affinity for glucose 
51
Which among   of the following is a pure antagonist in poioid receptors
 
  1. A.Naltrexone
     
  2. B.Nalbuphine
     
  3. C.Butorphanol
     
  4. D.Pentazocine
52
Serum creational kinase – 3 is elevated  in
 
  1. A.Muscular dystrophy
     
  2. B.Myocardial infarction
     
  3. C.Alcoholic cirrhosis
     
  4. D.Brain tumor 
53
Vitamin B12 is absorbed in
 
  1. A.Stomach
     
  2. B.Duodenum
     
  3. C.Jejunum
     
  4. D.Ileum
54
Hyperuricaemia is a side effect of
 
  1. A.Pyrazinamide
     
  2. B.Isoniazid
     
  3. C.Capreomycin
     
  4. D.Ethambutol  
55
The enzyme glucosyl transferees secreted by Streptococcus mutans synthesize from
 
  1. A.Glucose  
     
  2. B.Fructose
     
  3. C.Sucrose
     
  4. D.Lactose 
56
Which of the following can be given as a single dise antimalarial for P . vivax malaria 
 
  1. A.Atovaquone  + Proguanil
     
  2. B.Artemissenin
     
  3. C.Quinine + Tetracyline
     
  4. D.Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine 
57
Which  among the following anti –HIV drugs is an inhibitor of viral fusion ?
 
  1. A.Enfuvirtide
     
  2. B.Nelfinavir 
  3. C.Efavirenz
     
  4. D.Etanercept
     
58
Which among  the following may be used as  a sedative –hypnotic
 
  1. A.Zolmitriptan
     
  2. B.Zileuton
     
  3. C.Zolpidem
     
  4. D.Zalcitalbine 
59
Cryptococcus neoformans has significant predilection for 
 
  1. A.Central nervous system
     
  2. B.Respiratory system
     
  3. C.Gastro intestinal system
     
  4. D.Cardiovascular system 
60
The ‘ Philadelphia chromosome ‘ is a feature of
 
  1. A.Leukaemoid reaction
     
  2. B.Chornic myeloid leukaemia
     
  3. C.Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
     
  4. D.Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia 
61
syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is
 
  1. A.Plummer  -Vinson  syndrome
     
  2. B.Klinefelter ‘s  syndrome
     
  3. C.Struge – Weber syndrome
     
  4. D.Multiple hamartoma syndrome 
62
In hemolytic anemias the urobilinogen level in the blood would
 
  1. A.Incrase
     
  2. B.Be absent
     
  3. C.Decrase
     
  4. D.Mildly decrase
63
Glycemic control over the previous 6- 8 weeks in patients with diabetes  mellitus is best assessed by estimation of
 
  1. A.Fasting blood glucose
     
  2. B.Glycated hemoglobin
     
  3. C.Fasting  C peptide
     
  4. D.Fasting plasma insulin 
64
Lambert Eaton myasthenia syndrome is
 
  1. A.A post synaptic disorder
     
  2. B.Characterized by preserved deep tendon reflexes
     
  3. C.characterized by decremental response in ENMG
     
  4. D.Associated with autonomic dysfunction 
65
Coloboma is defect in
 
  1. A.Cornea
     
  2. B.Lens
     
  3. C.Choroid
     
  4. D.Iris 
66
A 20 – year female came to the medical POD with severe pain and redness over dorsum o f the foot . Past history o f severe abdominal pain episodes were present .with presence of poikilocytes  . likely diagnosis is
 
  1. A.Hemoglobin C disease
     
  2. B.Thalassemia minor
     
  3. C.sickle cell anemia
     
  4. D.G6PD deficiency 
67
Which of the following is a cyanotic heart disease ?
 
  1. A.Cor triatum
     
  2. B.Tetra logy of fallot
     
  3. C.pulmonary stenosis
     
  4. D.Atrial septal defect 
68
Which of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade ?
 
  1. A.Pulsus paradoxus
     
  2. B.Wide pules pressure
     
  3. C.Kussmaul’s sing
     
  4. D.Forceful apical impulse
69
a patient with Bell ‘s palsy has ----------- palsy
 
  1. A.Upper motor neuron V nerve
     
  2. B.Upper motor neuron VII nerve
     
  3. C.Lower motor neuron V nerve
     
  4. D.Lower motor neuron VII nerve 
70
Hyperkinetic syndromes such as chorea and athetosis are usually associated with pathological changes in
 
  1. A.Motor areas of cerebral cortex
     
  2. B.Anterior hypothalamus
     
  3. C.Pathways for recurrent collateral inhibition in the spinal cord
     
  4. D.Basal ganglia complex 
71
Treatment of choice for mixed parotid tumor is
 
  1. A.Enucleation
     
  2. B.Superficial paroticectomy
     
  3. C.Radical parotidectomy
     
  4. D.Radiation 
72
High tension electrical burns from overhead electrical lines can cause
 
  1. A.Myoglobinurea and acute renal failure
     
  2. B.Severe alkalosis
     
  3. C.No ECG  change will be seen in the first 24 hours
     
  4. D.Blood vessels are spared 
73
Which of the following conditions is the most common  complication of radioiodine treatment of Graves’ disease ?
 
  1. A.Thyroid storm
     
  2. B.Subacute cancer
     
  3. C.Thyroid cancer
     
  4. D.Hopothyroidism 
74
The length of the sprue former should be adjusted for gyp-sum bonded investment so that the top of the wax pattern is within
 
  1. A.6 mm of the open end of the ring 
     
  2. B.10 mm of the open end of the ring 
     
  3. C.1 mm of the open end of the ring 
     
  4. D.2 mm of the open end of the ring  
75
A test for ,mutagenesis of material dome of mammalian cells is
 
  1. A.Styles test
     
  2. B.Ame’s test
     
  3. C.MTT test
     
  4. D.Cytotoxsicity test 
76
Brazilian test us used to a  determine  the ultimate tensile strength of
 
  1. A.Ductile materials
     
  2. B.Flexible materials
     
  3. C.Brittle materials
     
  4. D.Malleable materials 
77
In the munsell color system the parameters of color are represented in
 
  1. A.3 dimensions
     
  2. B.(b) 2 dimensions
     
  3. C.A single dimensions
     
  4. D.A color space 
78
high fusing porcelains are used
 
  1. A.For crowns
     
  2. B.In denture teeth
     
  3. C.With titanium alloys
     
  4. D.over aluminous core porcelain 
79
The relative hardness of elastomers is determined using
 
  1. A.Rockwell tester
     
  2. B.Barcol  indenter
     
  3. C.Knoop pyramid
     
  4. D.Shore durometer
80
Resistance for a material to permanent deformation is known as
 
  1. A.Elongation
     
  2. B.Resiliency
     
  3. C.Ductility
     
  4. D.Fracture strength 
81
Laser welding
 
  1. A.involves high heat generation
     
  2. B. Can be done with pure titanium
     
  3. C. Is not  used in dentistry
     
  4. D.Can be done with pure gold 
82
Feldspathic porcelain
 
  1. A.Shows reliable chemical bonding with metals
  2. B. Has high tensile strength
     
  3. C. is no longer used
     
  4. D.Shows insignificant firing shrinkage 
83
The commonest type o f porosity that results in a fluid resin technique is
 
  1. A.Polymerization shrinkage porosity
  2. B.Porosity due to inadequate pressure
     
  3. C.air inclusion porosity
     
  4. D.Porosity due to increased heat 
84
Similarity in the chemical structure of estrogen is seen with
 
  1. A. HEMA
     
  2. B.polyether
     
  3. C.Bislyether
     
  4. D.Gutta percha
     
85
The first porcelain tooth material was introduced by
 
  1. A.DeChemaunt
     
  2. B.Ash
     
  3. C. Plateau
     
  4. D.McClean
     
86
Component of inlay wax which makes it flake resistant is
 
  1. A.Paraffin
  2. B.Carnauba
     
  3. C.Gum dammar
     
  4. D.Candelila
     
87
following eruption , the root of the maxillary central incisor completes development at what approximate age ?
 
  1. A.7 years
     
  2. B.8 years
     
  3. C.9 years
     
  4. D.10 years
     
88
The ‘ key hole ‘ pattern appearance in the cross section is a feature of
 
  1. A.Aprismatic enamel
     
  2. B.Prismatic enamel
     
  3. C.Intertubular dentin
     
  4. D.Intratubular dentin 
89
Cells occurring in greatest number in pulp are
 
  1. A.Cement oblasts
     
  2. B.Fibroblasts
     
  3. C.Osteoclasts
     
  4. D.Ameloblasts
     
90
Which structure dictates the furcation formation in a tooth 
 
  1. A.Enamal knot
     
  2. B.Enamel niche
     
  3. C.Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
     
  4. D.Enamel cord
     
91
Inorganic content of cementum is
 
  1. A.45% to 50%
     
  2. B.50% to 55%
     
  3. C.55% to 60%
     
  4. D.60% to 65%
     
92
Tome’s process is a part of
 
  1. A.Radicular denitn
     
  2. B.Odontoblast
     
  3. C.Ameloblast
     
  4. D.Osteoblast
93
Cementicles are calcified masses some-time seen in the
 
  1. A.Pulp
     
  2. B.Bone
     
  3. C.Periodontal Ligament
     
  4. D.Cementum 
94
The result of muscle forces acting  through the intercuspation of the occlusal surface is called
 
  1. A.Anterior component of force
     
  2. B.Mesial drift tendency
     
  3. C.Stomatognathics
     
  4. D.Gnathics 
95
in adult tooth the type of Dentin present underlying Dention- Enamel  junction is
 
  1. A.Predentin
     
  2. B.Mantle dentin
     
  3. C.Interglobular dentin
     
  4. D.Tertiary dentin
96
Definite loss of lamina dura is seen in
 
  1. A.Secondary hyper calcemia
     
  2. B.Hyperparathyroidism
     
  3. C.Primare hyperthyroidism
     
  4. D.Secondary hypothyroidism 
97
Ranula is a
 
  1. A.Retention cyst
     
  2. B.Implantation cyst
     
  3. C.Benign tumour
     
  4. D.Malignant tumour 
98
Most common salivary gland tumor arising in the jaws
 
  1. A.Pleomorphic adenoma
     
  2. B.Adenoid cystic carcinoma
     
  3. C.Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
     
  4. D.Acinic cell carcinoma 
99
Enamel hyperplasia resulting from local infection is called
 
  1. A.Amelogenesis imperfect  
     
  2. B.Plumbism
     
  3. C.Dental fluorosis
     
  4. D.Turner’s tooth 
100
The absence of clavicles is usually seen
 
  1. A.Cleidocranial dysplasia 
     
  2. B.Osteogenesis imperfect
     
  3. C.Sturge-Weber anomaly
     
  4. D.Idiopathic bone cavities 
101
Sialoliths are stones found in the Salivary ducts and glands and are primarily composed of 
  1. A.Hydroxyapatite
     
  2. B.Potassium chloride
     
  3. C.Unknown compounds of phosphates
     
  4. D.Calcium chloride
     
102
Which of the following infections are associated with Hodgkins lymphoma
  1. A.Herpes simplex
  2. B.Herpes zoster
  3. C.Her angina
  4. D.Aphthous ulcer 
103
Bleeding time is prolonged in
 
  1. A.Hemophilia A
     
  2. B.Hemophilia B
     
  3. C.Thalassemia
     
  4. D.Von willevrand’s disease 
104
Shingles of geniculate ganglion with ear eruption and facial paralysis termed as
 
  1. A.Peutz –Jeghers syndrome
     
  2. B.Melkerson –Rosenthal syndrome
     
  3. C.Ramsay Hunt syndrome
     
  4. D.Gardner’s syndrome 
105
Epstein –Barr virus (EBV) has been implicated in the etiology of
 
  1. A.Oral lichen plan us
     
  2. B.Oral hairy loukoplakia
     
  3. C.Oral hairy black tongue
     
  4. D.Oral melanoplakia 
106
streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose , known as
 
  1. A.Levans
     
  2. B.Lectins
     
  3. C.Glucans
     
  4. D.Polyfructans
     
107
Uniform widening  of periodontal ligament at the expense of adjacent bone occurs in
 
  1. A.Langerhans cell histiocytosis
     
  2. B.von Recklinghausen’s disease
     
  3. C.Scleroderma
     
  4. D.Osteoporosis
     
108
Characteristic ‘tram –line ‘calcifications in the skull radiographs is observed in 
  1. A.Cleidocranial dysostoses
     
  2. B.Sturge – Weber syndrome
     
  3. C.Paget’s disease
     
  4. D.McCune – Albright syndrome
109
Which of the following is known to arise from sunlight
 
  1. A.Basal cell carcinoma
     
  2. B.Ewing’s sarcoma
     
  3. C.Kaposi’s sarcoma
     
  4. D.Verruca vulgaris
     
110
A hamartoma is
 
  1. A.Any collection of blood colt
     
  2. B.A haemorrhagic cyst of the thigh
     
  3. C.A developmental malformation
     
  4. D.A tumour of soft tissue 
111
Microscopic appearance of geographic tongue resembles
 
  1. A.Lichen planus
     
  2. B.Lupus erythematosus
     
  3. C.Erythema mutiforme
     
  4. D.Psoriasis 
112
Strawberry tongue is seen in
 
  1. A.Scarlet fever
     
  2. B.Wegener’s granulomatoses
     
  3. C.Midline lethal granuloma
     
  4. D.Sarcoidosis 
113
Pulpal pain is most intense in
 
  1. A.Acute closed pulpitis
     
  2. B.Acute porn pulpitis
     
  3. C.Pulp hyperaemia
     
  4. D.Pulp necrosis 
114
Which of the following is the most accurate method of measuring radiation dose ?
 
  1. A.Film badge
     
  2. B.Ionization chamber
     
  3. C.Thermo luminescent
     
  4. D.Densitometer 
115
A collimater is used to
 
  1. A.Control size of the X-ray beam
     
  2. B.Eliminate secondary radiation
     
  3. C.Eliminate low – energy X-rays
     
  4. D.Control angle of X-ray beam to object 
116
Use of an angled target in the X –ray tube
 
 
  1. A.Increases penetrating power of X-ray s
     
  2. B.Reduces penetrating power of X-rays
     
  3. C.increases image sharpness
     
  4. D.Reduces image sharpness 
117
“Sharpened pencil “ appearances of mandibular condyle on a radiograph condyle on a radiograph
 
  1. A.Osteoarthritis
     
  2. B.Rheumatoid arthritis
     
  3. C.Infectious arthritis
     
  4. D.Juvenile arthrosis 
118
The best method to reduce radiation caries is application of viscous
 
  1. A.0.5 %neutral sodium fluoride gel
     
  2. B.1% neutral sodium fluoride gel
     
  3. C.0.5% stannous fluoride gel
     
  4. D.1% stannous fluoride gel 
119
When all the teeth are in scissors bite , the condition is called
 
  1. A.Brodie’s syndrome
     
  2. B.Catalan’s syndrome
     
  3. C.Nance ‘s condition
     
  4. D.Dewey’s syndrome 
120
Resistance to torquing is produced by achieving
 
  1. A.buckle hook
     
  2. B.Truss effect
     
  3. C.Lingual hook
     
  4. D.proximal hook
     
121
Treatment objective for serial extraction
 
  1. A.Is to intercept a developing arch-length deficiency and to reduce or eliminate the need for extensive appliance therapy
     
  2. B.Reduce arch – length deficiency
     
  3. C.To plan for extensive appliance therapy
     
  4. D.To reduce arch – length deficiency and to plan for extensive appliance 
122
Wilkinson’s extractions are
 
  1. A.Therepeutic extraction of all first molars
     
  2. B.Reduce arch – length deficiency
     
  3. C.To plan for extensive appliance therapy
     
  4. D.To reduce arch – length deficiency and to plan for extensive appliance 
123
Wilkinson’s extractions are
  1. A.prophylactic extraction of all four first molars
  2. B.Prophylactic extraction of all third molars
  3. C.Unbalanced extractions
  4. D.Extraction of a lower central incisor 
124
The term myo=functional therapy was proposed by
 
  1. A.Salzmann
     
  2. B.Lischer
     
  3. C.Gardner
     
  4. D.Freud
125
The major force producing part of the fixed appliances
 
  1. A.Bracket
     
  2. B.Arch wire
     
  3. C.Lock pin
     
  4. D.Band 
126
Infant orthopedics in a cleft patient is done at the age of
 
  1. A.1-2 weeks
     
  2. B.3-6 weeks
     
  3. C.9-2 weeks
     
  4. D.12-15 weeks 
127
Twin wire appliance is a
 
  1. A.Fixed appliance
     
  2. B.Removable appliance
     
  3. C.Functional appliance
     
  4. D.Sectional fixed appliance 
128
Bonded retainer are popular in which area of dentition
 
  1. A.Lower anteriors
     
  2. B.Lower  posteriors
     
  3. C.Upper anteriors
     
  4. D.Upper posteriors 
129
Growth activity at which of these synchondroses completes first ?
 
  1. A.Spheno – occipital
     
  2. B.Intersphenoidal
     
  3. C.intra – occipital
     
  4. D.Sphenoethmoidal 
130
Anterior bite plane is given for correction
 
  1. A.Cross bite
     
  2. B.Deep bite
     
  3. C.Open bite
     
  4. D.Scissor bite 
131
The distal shoe space maintainer is usually p[laced
 
  1. A.At the time of extraction of primary second molar
     
  2. B.just before eruption of permanent molar
     
  3. C.Before extraction of primary second molar
     
  4. D.To guide a permanent second molar 
132
The CAT in pediatric dentistry is usually placed.......
  1. A.At the time of extraction of primary second molar
  2. B.Just before eruption of permanent
  3. C.Before extraction of primary second molar
  4. D.To guide a permanent second  molar
133
According to American Association of Mental Deficiency Classification Scheme IQ range of 36-51 is
 
  1. A.Profound
     
  2. B.Moderate
     
  3. C.Mild
     
  4. D.Severe 
134
Human beings are
 
  1. A.Monophyodonts
     
  2. B.Polyphyodonts
     
  3. C.Homodonts
     
  4. D.Diphyodonts
135
To store avulsed tooth, Which kind of milk is shown to be suitable?


 
  1. A.Hot milk
     
  2. B.cold milk
     
  3. C.Low fat milk
     
  4. D.High fat milk 
136
The following is not a communicative management technique according to American of pediatric dentistry’s standards
 
  1. A.Voice Control
     
  2. B.Positive reinforcement
     
  3. C.Physical restraint
     
  4. D.Distraction 
137
According to piaget, the period of concrete operation is 
 
  1. A.General anesthesia
     
     
  2. B.Deep sedation
     
  3. C.Conscious sedation
     
  4. D.Deep sedation and general anesthesia 
138
The patient’s ability to maintain an independent airway , and respond appropriately to physical stimulation and verbal commands is seen in 
 
  1. A.General anesthesia
  2. B.Deep sedation
  3. C.Conscious sedation
  4. D.Deep sedation and general anesthesia 
139
Space maintainers are usually not necessary in which region?
 
  1. A.Mandibular posterior
     
  2. B.Mandibular anterior
     
  3. C.Maxillary posterior
     
  4. D.Maxillary anterior 
140
Measures of central tendency are
 
  1. A.Mean, median , range
     
  2. B.Mean, median, mode
     
  3. C.Mean, range, standard deviation
     
  4. D.Range, mean deviation, standard deviation 
141
Effective evaluation refers to
 
  1. A.Whether programme results meet predetermined objectives
     
  2. B.The long term out   come of the programme
     
  3. C.Assessthe extent to which programme implementation complies with the program plan
     
  4. D.Whether programe benefits exceeds the cost incurred 
142
Accepting the null hypothesis when it is false
 
  1. A.Type I eror
     
  2. B.Type III eror
     
  3. C.Type II eror
     
  4. D.Type IV eror
     
143
Anideally working slow sand filter method of water purification will reduce bacterial count by
 
  1. A.90 percent
     
  2. B.95 percent
     
  3. C.98 percent
     
  4. D.99.9 percent
     
144
A study based on single examination of part of population at one point in time
 
  1. A.Cross-sectional
     
  2. B.Cohort
     
  3. C.Experimental
     
  4. D.Prospective
     
145
The first city to have artificially fluoridated water was
 
  1. A.Evanston
     
  2. B.Muskegon
     
  3. C.Grandrapids
     
  4. D.Oakpark
     
146
Relationship between prevalence and incidence
  1. A.P=……….D
  2. B.P=…..E
  3. C.P=…..C
  4. D.P=……U
147
The indicators of the periodontal disease status measures all of the following by using index in oral health surveys EXCEPT
 
  1. A.Bleeding
     
  2. B.Bone loss
     
  3. C.Calculus
     
  4. D.Periodontal pocket
     
148
The mechanism of action of APF is via following reaction products
 
  1. A.Fluoridated hydroxyapatite
     
  2. B.Stannous trifluorophosphate
     
  3. C.Dicalcium phosphate dehydrate (DCPD)
     
  4. D.DCPD+  calcium fluoride +  Fluorapatite
149
The accepted fluoride does rate in salt fluoridation is
 
  1. A.150 mg of NaF ion per Kg of refined table salt
     
  2. B.200 mg of NaF ion per Kg of refined table salt
     
  3. C.250 mg of NaF ion per Kg of refined table salt
     
  4. D.100 mg of NaF ion per Kg of refined table salt
150
Yates correction is necessary in chisquare test when expected frequency in any one cell is
 
  1. A.Less then 5
     
  2. B.More then 5
     
  3. C.Less then 10
     
  4. D.More then 10 
151
Over jet and overbite of malocclusion is assessed using WHO survey from 1997 with the help of the instrument
 
  1. A.Williams probe
     
  2. B.CPI probe
     
  3. C.Measuring scale
     
  4. D.Straight probe 
152
The following study was conducted to check anticariogenic effect of fluoride except
           
  1. A.Dutch study
     
  2. B.Newburg- Kingston study
     
  3. C.Evanston-oak study
     
  4. D.Shoe- leather survey    
153
Index age groups according to WHO national path finder survey are
        
  1. A.6,12,15,35-44,65-74
     
  2. B.5,12,15,35-44,65-74
     
  3. C.5,12,18,34-45,65-75
     
  4. D.6,12,18,35-44,65-74
     
154
Which one of the following is not an advantage of immediate dentures ?
  
  1. A.Reduced postoperative pain
                
  2. B.Easy adaptation
     
  3. C.Less chairside time
     
  4. D.None of the above  
155
The resin bonded bridges have the advantages of
             
  1. A.Minimal tooth preparation
     
  2. B.Alignment correction
     
  3. C.Longevity
     
  4. D.Long spen bridges
     
156
Which of the following is not an objective of preprosthetic surgical  preparation
        
  1. A.Conditioning of patient musculature
     
  2. B.Correcting conditions that preclude optimal prosthetic function
         
  3. C.Enlargement of denture bearing areas
     
  4. D.Provision for placing tooth root analogues by means of osseo-integrated dental implants
     
157
Repeated or sustained contact of teeth other than during mastication is called as
 
  1. A.Malfunction
     
  2. B.Parafunction
          
  3. C.Hyperfunction
          
  4. D.HYpofunction

     
158
Vomerine teeth are present in
  1. A.Man
  2. B.Reptiles
  3. C.Frogs
  4. D.Rabbits
159
Grooves placed in vertical walls of bulk tooth structure must be
 
  1. A.At least 1.0 mm
     
  2. B.At least 2.0 mm
     
  3. C.At least 1.5mm
     
  4. D.At least 1.2 
160
Incorrect regarding boric oxide incorporated in ceramics is :
  1. A.forms glass phase
  2. B.forms a separate lattice interspersed with the silica
  3. C.increases viscosity of the metal
  4. D.it strengthen the surrounding structures
161
The incisive papilla in the edentulous maxillary arch acts as a guideline to proper placement of the maxillary central incisors. The central incisors are generally found to be ---------mm anterior to a line bisecting the incisive papilla
 
  1. A.8 to 10 mm
     
  2. B.6 to 8 mm
     
  3. C.4to 6 mm
     
  4. D.5 to 7 mm
162
Which of the following may not be used during the flasking of dentures
 
  1. A.Petroleum
     
  2. B.Tin foil
     
  3. C.Tin foil substitute
     
  4. D.Silicone  lubricant
163
The concept of one stage full month disinfection has been put forth to prevent
 
  1. A.Adhesion of microorganisms
     
  2. B.proliferation of microorganisms
     
  3. C.Translocation of microorganisms
     
  4. D.Bacterial invasion 
164
Periotest is device used to measure
 
  1. A.GCF
     
  2. B.Depth of the periodontal pocket
     
  3. C.Tooth mobility
     
  4. D.The microbial load in the periodontal pocket
    invasion 
165
Use of doxycycline  hyclate 20 mg for a period of time forms
 
  1. A.Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy
     
  2. B.Systemic antimicrobial therapy
     
  3. C.Host modulation therapy
     
  4. D.Local durg delivery 
166
PGE 2 mediated bone resorption in periodontal disease is inhidited by
 
  1. A.Calctionin
     
  2. B.Estrogens
     
  3. C.NSAIDS
     
  4. D.Vitamin-D and calcium
167
The only valid method to assess periodontal regeneration is
 
  1. A.Radiographic analysis
     
  2. B.Clincal attachment level
     
  3. C.Reentry operation
     
  4. D.Histologic analysis ocal durg delivery 
168
The ideal tooth-blade working angulation of a blade of gracey curette is angled from lower shank approximately at
 
  1. A.10-20 degree
     
  2. B.40-50 degree
     
  3. C.60-70 degree
     
  4. D.80-90 degree
169
The distance between implant and adjacent tooth should be at least
 
  1. A.7mm
     
  2. B.1.5mm
     
  3. C.3.5mm
     
  4. D.3.75mm
170
Animal test to check the biocompatibility of dental materials are all EXCEPT :
  1. A.Buehler Test
  2. B.Implantation test
  3. C.Ames test
  4. D.Sensitization test
171
The ideal bone for implant support is
 
  1. A.Spongy bone
     
  2. B.Cortical bone
     
  3. C.Lamellar bone
     
  4. D.Woven bone 
172
Theodorecroll (1986) is associated with
 
  1. A.Use of 18% hydrochloric acid and pumice miceroabrasion
     
  2. B.Use of 12% fluted bur to remove the defects
     
  3. C.Bleaching techniques
     
  4. D.Dakin’s solution 
173
Axio pulpal line angle is beveled in amalgam perpartion to facilitate
 
  1. A.Bulk for amalgam in this critical zone
     
  2. B.Easy condensation of amalgam
     
  3. C.For containment of within the matrix
     
  4. D.To increase the strength of remaining tooth structure 
174
Each one of the following is an intrinsic from of tooth discolouration EXCEPT
 
  1. A.Endemic fluorosis
     
  2. B.Hereditary opalascent dentin
     
  3. C.Tetracycline staining
     
  4. D.Peridex stainig
175
The number of point angles in a permanent mandibular first molar is
 
  1. A.Four
     
  2. B.Six
     
  3. C.Eight
     
  4. D.Ten
     
176
The cavo surface gingival bevel for a class II cast gold inlay preparation should be
 
  1. A.0.5 to 1 mm wide and blend with secondary lingual flare
     
  2. B.0.2 to 0.3 mm wide and blend with secondary lingual flare
     
  3. C.0.1 to 0.2 mm wide and blend with secondary lingual flare
     
  4. D.3 to 4 mm wide and blend with secondary lingual flare 
177
Why 900 butt joint for silver amalgam preparation ?
 
  1. A.Fear of marginal failure of amalgam
     
  2. B.Amalgam has poor strength in thin sections
     
  3. C.Amalgam is stronger that tooth structure
     
  4. D.Amalgam is  weaker in compression 
178
Thermafil is
 
  1. A.An endodontic obturator
     
  2. B.An enlarging instrument
     
  3. C.An instrument to remove pulp
     
  4. D.Amalgam is weaker in compression 
179
when is an application of heat injected gutta percha potentially beneficial
 
  1. A.When there is an open apex
     
  2. B.When there are aberrations of irregularities of the canal
     
  3. C.When the clinician cannot master lateral condensation
     
  4. D.When the canals are curved and small after preparation 
180
The staving nature of pain in trigeminal neuralgia mimics pain caused by
 
  1. A.A  cracked  tooth
     
  2. B.Acute reversible pulpitis
     
  3. C.A cute irreversible pulpitis
     
  4. D.Acute apical periodontitis 
181
JS Quick fill is
 
  1. A.The original engine driven Mcspadden’s compactor with gutta percha already
     
  2. B.Like thermafill another obturator
     
  3. C.No different than original Mcspadden’s compacter
     
  4. D.Chemic ally softened gutta  - percha
     
182
Two pulp canals are usually found in
 
  1. A.Mesial root of permanent mandibular first molar
     
  2. B.Distal root of permanent mandibular first molar
     
  3. C.palatal root of permanent maxillary first molar
     
  4. D.Distal root of permanent mandibular second molar 
183
With obtura II system which has a high temperature gutta –percha but cools at
  1. A.27o
     
  2. B.110 o
     
  3. C.130 o
     
  4. D.160 o
184
In young permanent teeth the best method of sensitivity testing for traumatized teeth is carbondioxide snow which can go up temperature of
 
  1. A. -20 oC
     
  2. B. – 30 oC
     
  3. C. -40 oC
     
  4. D.-78 oC
185
Pathogenesis o diphtheria is attributed to
 
  1. A.Invasion
     
  2. B.End toxin
     
  3. C.Exotoxin
     
  4. D.Capsule 
186
In endodontics , endotec is used
 
  1. A.With lateral condensation and heated gutta percha
     
  2. B.With cold lateral compaction
     
  3. C.With vertical compaction
     
  4. D.With chlor – percha  Technique 
187
Ghon complex of lung usually
 
  1. A.Undergo cavitation
     
  2. B.Undergo calcification
     
  3. C.Progress to tuberculous
     
  4. D.Progress to military tuberculosis 
188
“Z” or “V-Y “ plasty is a
 
  1. A.Ridge augmentation procedure
     
  2. B.Alveoloplasty procedure
     
  3. C.Procedure to correct abnormal frenum attachment
     
  4. D.Implant procedure 
189
‘hot potato’ voice is characteristically seen in
 
  1. A.Pterygomandibular space infection 
  2. B.Retropharyngeal space infection 
     
  3. C.per tracheal space infection
     
  4. D.Lateral pharyngeal space infection 
190
Hanging drop sign is best seen in
 
  1. A.Water’s projection
     
  2. B.Orthopantamogram
     
  3. C.Submentovertex
     
  4. D.Upper occlusal view 
191
A fractured mandibular condyle is displaced by the action of
 
  1. A.Temporalis
     
  2. B.Masseter
     
  3. C.Lateral pterygoid
     
  4. D.Medial pterygoid 
192
Sodium metabisulfite used in LA solution acts as
 
  1. A.Anti – reducing agent for LA agent
     
  2. B.anti – oxidant  for LA agent
     
  3. C.Anti –reducing agent for vasoconstrictor
     
  4. D.Anti – oxidant for vasoconstrictor 
193
Kimmelstiel – Wilson disease is
 
  1. A.Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
     
  2. B.Nodular glomerulosclerosis
     
  3. C.Progress to tuberculous 
     
  4. D.Capillary basement membrane thickening 
194
Tissue graft rejection can be prevented by suppression of
 
  1. A.Plasma antibodies
     
  2. B.T cells
     
  3. C.Allergy producing mast cells and basophils
     
  4. D.Macrophages 
195
Most common dislocation of TMJ is
 
  1. A.Anterior
     
  2. B.Lateral
     
  3. C.Posterior
     
  4. D.Medial
     
196
The histological criteria for diagnosis of acute appendicitis is neutrophil infiltration of
 
  1. A.Mucosa
     
  2. B.Sub mucosa
     
  3. C.Serosa
     
  4. D.Muscular is propria 
197
HLA – B 27 histocompatibility antigen is seen in
 
  1. A.Sjogren’s syndrome
     
  2. B.Ankylosing spondylitis
     
  3. C.Fealty’s syndrome
     
  4. D.Scleroderma 
198
Computerized controlled local anesthetic delivery system is known as
 
  1. A.Peri  press
     
  2. B.WAND
     
  3. C.BAND
     
  4. D.EDA
     
199
Secondary Amyloidosis is most commonly seen in
 
  1. A.Actinomycosis
     
  2. B.Tuberculosis
     
  3. C.Rabies                 
     
  4. D.Secondary leus 
200
Dislocation of mandible is treated by moving the mandible
 
  1. A.Upward and forward
  2. B.Upward and backward
     
  3. C.Downward and forward
     
  4. D.Downward and backward
     
201
Kvim sielzbach test is useful in diagnosis of
 
  1. A.Tuberculosis
     
  2. B.Sarcoidosis
     
  3. C.Leprosy
     
  4. D.Secondary leus 
202
Thrombocytosis is seen in
 
  1. A.Osteoporosis
     
  2. B.DIC
     
  3. C.Hemolytic anemia
     
  4. D.Thiazide therapy 
203
All the following are signs of cerebella disease except
 
  1. A.Past Pointing
     
  2. B.Resting tremors
     
  3. C.Nystagmus
     
  4. D.Ataxic gait 
204
Among the following pain theories , the most accepted theory is
 
 
  1. A.Specificity theory
  2. B.Pattern theory
     
  3. C.Gate control theory
     
  4. D.Calcium displacement theory
     
205
Venous emboli are most often lodged in
 
  1. A.Intestine
     
  2. B.Lungs
     
  3. C.Heart
     
  4. D.Kidney 
206
Algorithm for the stabilization of severely injured patient
 
  1. A.Treating the hard tissue injuries
     
  2. B.Reducing facial bone fractures
     
  3. C.Control of hemorrhage
     
  4. D.Airway , breathing and circulation 
207
Commonest mode of inheritance of von Will brand’s disease is
 
  1. A.Co dominant
     
  2. B.Autosomal dominant
     
  3. C.Autosomal dominant
     
  4. D.X-linked recessive 
208
A three – year - old child presented with progressive anemia, jaundice and failure to thrive, pallor, splenomegaly. Peripheral blood smear showed norm oblast and small round intensely stained red cells. The likely diagnosis is
 
  1. A.Hereditary spherocytosis
     
  2. B.Thalassemia
     
  3. C.Sickle cell anemia
     
  4. D.Vitamin B12 deficiency 
209
Increased level of hemoglobin A2 id a characteristic of 
 
  1. A.Sickle cell trait
     
  2. B.B thalassemia trait  
     
  3. C.Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
     
  4. D.A thalassemia 
210
Free radicals are chemical species which have
 
  1. A.Single electron in outer orbit
     
  2. B.Single –paired electron in outer orbit
     
  3. C.Double – unpaired electron in outer orbit
     
  4. D.Double – paired electron in outer orbit 
211
The joint between the atlas and axis is
 
  1. A.synovial
     
  2. B.Closely related to the first cervical nerves
     
  3. C.Allow rotation of the head
     
  4. D.supported by the alar ligaments 
212
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection?
 
  1. A.Giardia lamblia
     
  2. B.Isopoda belli
     
  3. C.Balantidium coli
     
  4. D.Taenia sodium 
213
All the following viruses are capable of causing human cancers except
 
  1. A.Papilloma virus
     
  2. B.Hepatitis B virus
     
  3. C.Epstein – Barr virus
     
  4. D.Parvovirus B 19 
214
Which of the following virus produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies ?
 
  1. A.Measles
     
  2. B.Chickenpox
     
  3. C.Smallpox
     
  4. D.Rabies 
215
All the cranial nerves provide innervations for the structures in the head and neck except one that additionally supplies the thorax and abdomen
 
  1. A.Gloss pharyngeal
     
  2. B.spinal accessory
     
  3. C.vagus
     
  4. D.Hypoglossal 
216
The term epitope refers to
 
  1. A.Complete antigen molecule
     
  2. B.Smallest antigenic determinant
     
  3. C.Hap ten
     
  4. D.Immunogenic 
217
Hypoglossal nerve is
 
  1. A.purely sensory
     
  2. B.purely motor
     
  3. C.Mixed
     
  4. D.spinal nerve
     
218
Immunoglobulin class which crosses the placenta is
 
  1. A.IgE
     
  2. B.IgM
     
  3. C.IgA
     
  4. D.IgG
219
Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of
 
  1. A.Ultraviolet rays
     
  2. B.Ultrasonic vibrations
     
  3. C.Infrared rays
     
  4. D.Gamma rays 
220
At which stage congenital defects are more pronounced , especially when certain teratogenic agents interfere during the development of embryo
 
  1. A.4 to 8 weeks
     
  2. B.initiation stage-before 4th week
     
  3. C.5th to 6th month of intrauterine life
     
  4. D.All the above said phases 
221
Which of the following antihistaminic is least likely to cause sedation?
 
  1. A.Promethazine
     
  2. B.Diphenhydramine
     
  3. C.Hydroxyzine
     
  4. D.Loratidine 
222
the maxillary sinus drains into
 
  1. A.middle meat us
     
  2. B.inferior meat us
     
  3. C.superior meat us
     
  4. D.spheno ethmoidal 
223
In the physiologic system, nitric oxide is known to act through
 
  1. A.Cyclic AMP
     
  2. B.Cyclic GMP
     
  3. C.Calcium ions
     
  4. D.Prostacyclin’s 
224
In of the following are side effects of long – term use of corticosteroids except 
 
  1. A.Hypoglycemia
     
  2. B.Peptic ulcers
     
  3. C.Osteoporosis
     
  4. D.Psychosis 
225
Meckel’s cartilage is derived from the
 
  1. A.1st Bronchial arch
     
  2. B.2nd Bronchial arch
     
  3. C.3rd Bronchial arch
     
  4. D.4th Bronchial arch
     
226
Combination of gentamicin and ampicillin is an example of
 
  1. A.Indifference
     
  2. B.Synergy
     
  3. C.Antagonism
     
  4. D.Bacterial symbiosis 
227
……………id an example for rapidly action neurotransmitter
 
  1. A.somatostatin
     
  2. B.Calcitonin
     
  3. C.Substance P
     
  4. D.Glycine 
228
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of microorganisms is determined by
 
  1. A.Direct microscopy
     
  2. B.Culture
     
  3. C.DNA probe
     
  4. D.ELISA
229
the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure was proposed by  
 
  1. A.Watson and crick
     
  2. B.Edward angle
     
  3. C.G.V Black
     
  4. D.Singer and Nicholson 
230
the vitamin K- dependent proteins C are characterized by their ability to inactivate factor
 
  1. A.VIII a and  V a 
     
  2. B.VIII  a
     
  3. C.V    a
     
  4. D.none of the above 
231
when P-R interval in a bipolar limb lead Electrocardiograph
 
  1. A.third degree complete block
     
  2. B.First degree complete block
     
  3. C.First degree incomplete block
     
  4. D.second degree incomplete
232
Which among the following as useful in absence seizures?

 
  1. A.Phenytoin
     
  2. B.Carbamazepine
     
  3. C.Valproic acid
     
  4. D.Amoxicillin
233
the contribution of operation of operation of sodium potassium electrogenic pump for the development of net -90 milllivolt of resting membrane potential is
 
  1. A. - 4 mill volt
     
  2. B.- 80 mill volt
     
  3. C.- 70 mill volt
     
  4. D.+ 4 mill volt
234
Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in pregnancy?
 
  1. A.Erythromycin
     
  2. B.Tetracycline
     
  3. C.Cephalexin
     
  4. D.Amoxicillin 
235
Deficiency of which vitamin causes megaloblastic anemia ?
 
  1. A.Vitamin B- 6
     
  2. B.Vitamin B-12
     
  3. C.Vitamin K
     
  4. D.Vitamin D
     
236
the total number of ATP molecules that are generated per mol o glucose under aerobic conditions is
 
  1. A.38
     
  2. B.2
     
  3. C.36
     
  4. D.40
     
237
“Von Gierke’s disease , a type of glycogen storage disease is caused due to the deficiency of the enzyme
 
  1. A.Glycogen syntheses
     
  2. B.Glucose 6- phosphates
     
  3. C.Muscle phosphorylase
     
  4. D.c AMP – dependent proteinkinase A 
238
The main pathway for “ De-Nove” synthesis fatty acid occurs in
 
  1. A.Mitochondria 
     
  2. B.Nucleus
     
  3. C.Cytsol
     
  4. D.None of the above 
239
Rodent ulcer is
 
  1. A.squalors cell carcinoma
     
  2. B.Malignant melanoma
     
  3. C.sebborhic wart  
     
  4. D.Basal cell carcinoma
     
240
the major enzyme responsible for oxidative killing mechanism in neutrophils is
 
  1. A.Antioxidant
     
  2. B.Lysozyme
     
  3. C.Hyposchloric acid
     
  4. D.superoxide
Question for PG Dental Entrance Exam 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam