Question Bank
PGCIL Assistant Officer Trainee Exam - English
Duration: 120 · Questions: 170 · Max Marks: 170 · Language: 3
HR
1
What is/are the objective/s of Human Resource Management.
2
Which of the following is not a semantic barrier of communication ?
3
HRM is essential for -
4
The classical theorists favoured organisation based on:
5
HRM contributes to professional growth by -
6
Performance appraisal by all the following parties is called 360º Performance appraisal :
7
The two area of HRM planning involves -
8
Fish bone analysis as a tool of quality circle was advanced by:
9
Controlling the management of human resources involves -
10
Which of the following decrease group cohesiveness?
11
The scope of HRM is very wide. It covers.......aspects.
12
According to Fielder‘s Contingency Model of Leadership, which one of the following is a situation variable?
13
A manager who is authorized to direct the work of subordinates and responsible for accomplishing the organization's tasks, is known as -
14
Which of the following is not a traditional method of organizational development ?
15
.......... is a set of quantitative performance measures to assess the operations of HR Managers.
16
Who are not the Actors of Industrial Relations?
17
The scope of HRM consists of -
18
A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local area , if it has membership of:
19
As a specialist, the HRM department advises all other departments in areas relating to -
20
Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation , standing Committee or the Medical council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend:
21
In a clerical role a HRM manager keeps records of -
22
What is the content of the Schedule I of result in Act, 1948?
23
Specific Personnel Policies relate to -
24
The registered trade union can collect political fund from its members as a:
25
Personnel policies established by companies regarding employment, includes -
26
The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of Bonus under the payment of bonus Act 1965 is:
27
HRM attracts and retains the required talent through -
28
Assertion (A) : Labour Welfare is relative to time and space.
Reason (R) : It shall be universal and perpetual.
Reason (R) : It shall be universal and perpetual.
29
HRM helps to enhance the dignity of labour by -
1. Providing suitable employment that provides social and psychological satisfaction to people
2. Maintaining a balance between the jobs available in terms of numbers, qualification needs and aptitudes
3. Eliminating waste of human resources through conservation of physical and mental health
1. Providing suitable employment that provides social and psychological satisfaction to people
2. Maintaining a balance between the jobs available in terms of numbers, qualification needs and aptitudes
3. Eliminating waste of human resources through conservation of physical and mental health
30
Which of the following is not a principle of Labour Welfare?
31
........... is the framework through which management directs, controls and coordinates the efforts of people.
32
‘Labour is not a commodity ‘’- is the assertion made by:
33
.............. is the process of reconciling two goals of the organisation with those of its members.
34
Assertion (A): Industrial Labour in India has been migratory.
Reason (R): Driving force in migration comes almost entirely form one end of the channel, that is the village end.
Reason (R): Driving force in migration comes almost entirely form one end of the channel, that is the village end.
35
.............. means assigning suitable jobs to the selected candidates so as to match employee's qualifications with job requirement.
36
The “ Marginal Discount Product of Labour” as a modified version of Marginal Productivity Theory was advance by:
37
What is/are the responsibility / responsibilities of line manager?
38
Which principle of management is violated by matrix organisation structure?
39
HRM Department renders secretarial and executive support services like
40
An enquiry that is conduced afresh because of the objections raised by alleged employees is called:
41
An organisation accepts imposed personnel policies due to -
42
The concept of HRD scorecard was introduced in India by:
43
......... measures the HR function's effectiveness and efficiency in producing employees ' behaviour needed to achieve the company's strategic goals.
44
Which of the following trends is the employment relations in the economic era not correct?
45
A manager can tap the maximum potential of employees through -
46
Human Resource Management seeks to -
47
............. is the company's long-term plan for how it will balance its internal strengths and weaknesses with its external opportunities and threats to maintain a competitive advantage.
48
Which of the following principles of management was not given by Fayol?
49
Personnel policies established by companies regarding industrial relations, include -
50
Delphi technique is used in:
51
Manpower planning involves -
52
The following concept is developed on unitarism , individual , high commitment and strategic alignment:
53
A man power plan consists of -
54
Which one is not a non- quantitative job evaluation method?
55
Personnel policies established by companies regarding working conditions, include -
56
Who is not associated with development of human development index?
57
........... is a group of positions involving some duties, responsibilities, knowledge and skills.
58
Who introduced the concept of quality circles in India?
59
........... implies a group of jobs which are similar as to the type of work and which contain common characteristics.
60
Which of the following is the correct sequence of training evaluation?
61
.............. is the process of evaluation the employees ' performance of the job in terms of the requirement of the job.
62
Under Alderfer’s ERG theory , the three core needs are:
63
Interviews are classified according to -
64
The group to which a person would like to belong is known as:
65
........... is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are actually trained off the job.
66
Arrange the following stages of group dynamics in right sequence:
(a) Norming
(b) Performing
(c) Strorming
(d) Forming
(a) Norming
(b) Performing
(c) Strorming
(d) Forming
67
.................. implies shifting of an employee from one job to another without any major change in the status and responsibility of the employee.
68
Which is the order of correct settlement of industrial disputes?
(a) Industrial Tribunal
(b) National Tribunal
(c) Conciliation
(d) Labourcourt
(a) Industrial Tribunal
(b) National Tribunal
(c) Conciliation
(d) Labourcourt
69
What is/are the external source/s of recruitment?
70
The code of discipline was ratified by the Indian Labour Conference to ensure discipline in industry . Identify the year of ratification out of the following:
71
What is/are the purpose/s of transfers?
72
Which is not a structure of trade Union of industrial Organisation?
73
Merit based promotion implies -
74
If there is willful removal or disregard by the workman of any safety guard or other device which he knew to have been provided for the purpose of securing safety of workman:
75
What is/are the disadvantage/s of merit based promotion ?
76
In case of fatal accident if the commissioner serves notice to the employer based on his source
I. The employer can neglect the notice.
II. If the employer thinks liable , he shall make the deposit within sixty days of the service of notice
III. If the employer thinks liable, he shall make the deposit within thirty days of the service of notice.
IV. If the employer is not liable , he shall in his statement indicate the grounds on which he disclaims liability.
I. The employer can neglect the notice.
II. If the employer thinks liable , he shall make the deposit within sixty days of the service of notice
III. If the employer thinks liable, he shall make the deposit within thirty days of the service of notice.
IV. If the employer is not liable , he shall in his statement indicate the grounds on which he disclaims liability.
77
The payment of Bonus Act. , 1965 is applicable to an employee who draws wage or salary of:
78
Human resource plans can be formulated at -
79
The mountain Wages Act, 1948 has:
80
............ implies a collection of tasks and duties regularly assigned to one person.
81
The maximum daily hours of work in a day with normal wage allowed in factories is:
82
............. refers to a distinct work activity with an identifiable beginning end.
83
Who is the champion of the ‘Welfare movement ‘ propagated in mild 19th century?
84
HRM is regarded as old wine in a new bottle. This idea was formulated by -
85
Which of the following statements relating to Welfare Officer is not true:
86
A selection test is a sample of some aspects of an individual's -
87
Which of the following statements about labour market is not true?
88
............... refers to shifting of an employee to a higher position carrying higher status, responsibilities and pay.
89
Money wage is otherwise called as:
90
............. derermines the skill or knowledge already acquired by a person through training and on the job experience.
91
Which of the following is not a determinant of wages?
92
What is/are the need/s of transfers?
93
Which of the following is not a characteristics of trade Union?
94
What is/are the disadvantage/s of seniority for the promotions?
95
Which of the following requirements is related with a good transfer policy?
96
............are inventories of a candidate's likes and dislikes in relation to work.
97
Which of the following is the meaning of Human Resource planning?
98
A good promotion policy should be-
99
The main difference between delegation and decentralisation are
(a) Delegation involves transfer of authority and not responsibility ;where asdecentralisation involves transfer of authority and responsibility .
(b) Decentralisation is by the will of the superior ; while delegation is done legally.
(c) Distributing authority can task place at will while in decentralisation it requires a legal action.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Delegation involves transfer of authority and not responsibility ;where asdecentralisation involves transfer of authority and responsibility .
(b) Decentralisation is by the will of the superior ; while delegation is done legally.
(c) Distributing authority can task place at will while in decentralisation it requires a legal action.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
100
Demotion affects -
101
Which of the following is not a limitation of job Expansion?
102
Demotion should not be used as a penalty for -
103
The difference between job enrichment and job enlargement is that:
104
............ of an employee takes place when his service agreement with organisation comes to an end and the employee leaves the organisation.
105
The reliability of any test is assured when a person:
106
An employee may resign on grounds of -
107
In every company meeting , agenda is to be submitted . What does it mean by agenda?
108
In ............ an employee may retire before attaining the specified age.
109
An employee may retire before attaining the specified age due to -
110
Which of the following is an important feature of” Autonomous Working Group”?
111
.............is temporary denial of employment.
112
Structured learning refers to which of the following statement ?
113
.............. means permanent termination of an employee 's services for economic reasons in a going concern.
114
A situation where management is unable to provide employment due to non-availability of work is called:
115
Misconduct means willful violation of rules and regulations. It includes -
116
Which of the following shows a situation of Trade Union Rivalries in India?
117
..............means the failure of a worker to report for work when he is scheduled to work.
118
A union meant to protect the interests and rights of the non- manual employees is called a;
119
Employees remain absent due to -
120
What should be the minimum number of persons required to register a trade union?
Executive Aptitude Test
1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
11
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
12
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
13
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
14
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
15
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
16
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
17
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
18
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
19
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
20
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
21
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
22
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
23
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
24
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
25
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
26
Chemistry but not in Physics.
27
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
28
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
29
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
30
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
31
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
32
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A á´– (A á´— B) equal to ?
33
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
34
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
35
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
36
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
37
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
38
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
39
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
40
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
41
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
42
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
43
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
44
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
45
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
46
To sleep with the fishes
47
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
48
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
49
Shooting fish in a barrel
50
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?