A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 2Single Answer
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Question 3Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A
40.5m3
B
50m3
C
75m3
D
94.7m3
Question 4Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank
Question 5Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 6Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 8Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when
A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Question 9Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A
5 m2
B
25 m2
C
10 m2
D
20 m2
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 12Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 13Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia
Question 14Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 15Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 16Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 18Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 19Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 20Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00
Question 21Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 22Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 23Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 24Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 25Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 26Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 27Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 28Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
A
100.6 N/mm2
B
120.4 N/mm2
C
140.2 N/mm2
D
160.0 N/mm2
Question 29Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect
Question 30Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 31Single Answer
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω
Question 32Single Answer
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A
7.0 × 1012 m-3
B
7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C
7.0 × 10-12 m3
D
7.0 × 1012 m3
Question 33Single Answer
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A
9.2 × 105/m3
B
2.77 × 103/m3
C
2.43 × 1019/m3
D
8.9 × 1012/m3
Question 34Single Answer
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Question 35Single Answer
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above
Question 36Single Answer
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Question 37Single Answer
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Question 38Single Answer
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile
Question 39Single Answer
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments
Question 40Single Answer
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Question 41Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 42Single Answer
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature
Question 43Single Answer
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect
Question 44Single Answer
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials
Question 45Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only
Question 46Single Answer
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
A
Radiative recombination
B
Auger recombination
C
Surface recombination
D
Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Question 47Single Answer
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
A
GeO2
B
B2O3
C
P2O5x
D
Al2O3
Question 48Single Answer
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
A
Become twice
B
Become half
C
ecome four times
D
Remain unchanged
Question 49Single Answer
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 50Single Answer
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
A
MCHTX
B
MXHTC
C
XMHCT
D
XMHTC
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Electrical Engineering
Question 51Single Answer
Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of
A
Air blast CB
B
Bulk oil CB
C
Minimum oil CB
D
All types of CB
Question 52Single Answer
By transmitting power at high voltage
A
it will give poor voltage regulation
B
it will give better voltage regulation
C
it will not effect voltage regulation
D
None of these
Question 53Single Answer
Which statement about the daily load curve is valid ?
A
The area under the curve gives the average demand
B
The ratio of the area under the curves to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained gives the load factor for the day
C
The peak of the curve gives the installed capacity of the plant
D
The area of the curves divided by the number of hours gives load factor
Question 54Single Answer
High voltage Schring bridge is used to measure
A
large capacitance without additional element
B
small capacitance without additional element
C
medium value capacitance
D
None of these
Question 55Single Answer
Draw - in - system of laying underground cables has the drawback (s) of
A
higher cost
B
reduced current carrying capacity of the cables
C
requirements of much deeper and wider trenches
D
repairs, alterations or additions difficult
E
all of the above except
Question 56Single Answer
Surge impedance of a transmission line is
A
independent of its length
B
dependent on its length
C
independent on its temperature
D
none of the above
Question 57Single Answer
If two synchronous generators connected in parallel loose synchronism, it will lead to
A
stalling of generators
B
wild fluctuations in current
C
wild fluctuations in current and voltage
D
None of these
Question 58Single Answer
A differential relay responds to
A
algebraic difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
B
vector difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
C
algebraic difference between two currents
D
algebraic difference between two voltages
Question 59Single Answer
The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. This phenomenon is called the
A
Skin effect
B
Corona
C
Ferranti effect
D
Lenz's effect
Question 60Single Answer
A booster is connected in
A
series with the feeder
B
parallel with the feeder
C
both (a) and (b) are correct
D
none of these
Question 61Single Answer
Fuses have got advantages of
A
cheapest type of protection
B
inverse time - current characteristic
C
no maintenance
D
current limiting effect under short - circuit conditions
E
all of the above
Question 62Single Answer
The power transmitted will be maximum when
A
line reactance is high
B
corona losses are minimum
C
sending end voltage is more
D
receiving end voltage is more
Question 63Single Answer
The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load factor of the consumer is
A
0.75
B
0.375
C
1.33
D
None of these
Question 64Single Answer
In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided
A
only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
B
only the core loss is ignored
C
both the leakage impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
D
only the no - load copper loss is ignored
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following techniques is used for the measurements of a.c. high frequency voltages ?
A
Peak voltmeter
B
Series resistance mircro - ammeter
C
Resistance potential divider
D
All of these
Question 66Single Answer
Use of additional shunt capacitor can be made for increasing the capability of line as it
A
reduces surge impedance Z0
B
increases phase shift β
C
increase in α
D
all of the above
Question 67Single Answer
The sag of a transmission line is least affected owing to
A
weight of the conductor
B
current through the conductor
C
atmospheric temperature
D
ice deposited on the conductor
Question 68Single Answer
In case of Impulse Thermal break down of solid insulating materials, the critical electric field is proportional to
A
critical absolute temperature
B
square of critical absolute temperature
C
square of T0
D
none of these
Question 69Single Answer
The insulation of the modern EHV lines is designed based on
A
corona
B
switching voltages
C
lightning voltage
D
all of these
Question 70Single Answer
For constant voltage transmission, the voltage drop along the line is maintained constant by installing
A
capacitors
B
inductors
C
resistors
D
synchronous phase modifiers at the receiving end
Question 71Single Answer
AC network analyser is employed for solving the problems of
A
load flow
B
load flow and stability
C
load flow and short - circuit
D
load flow, stability and short - circuit
Question 72Single Answer
The change in excitation in an alternator connected to an infinite line provides a corresponding change in
A
terminal voltage
B
speed of rotor
C
power generated
D
power factor
Question 73Single Answer
Different types of insulators used for transmission lines are
A
pin type only
B
suspension type only
C
strain type only
D
pin type, suspension type and shackle type
Question 74Single Answer
The conductor connecting consumer's terminals to the distributor is called the
A
feeder
B
distributor
C
service main
D
none of the above
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following method or techniques can be used for the measurement of high d.c. voltages ?
A
Generating voltmeter
B
Electrostatic voltmeter
C
Peak voltmeter
D
Half effect generators
Question 76Single Answer
The ripple voltage in dc output is small if
A
frequency of supply voltage is small
B
the filtering capacitor is small
C
load current is small
D
none of these
Question 77Single Answer
The voltage measurements using uniform spark gap are
A
affected by dust particles
B
affected by polarity of supply
C
affected by temperature
D
none of these
Question 78Single Answer
Neutral earthing is provided for
A
the safety of personnel from electric shock
B
the safety of equipment and personnel against lightning and voltage surges
C
reducing the voltage stress on lines and equipment with respect to earth under various operating and fault conditions
D
controlling the earth fault currents for protective relaying
E
both (c) and (d)
Question 79Single Answer
The function of Lightning arrester is
A
to limiting the short - circuit fault current
B
to provide path to high voltage surge to earth
C
to reduce arcing
D
none of these
Question 80Single Answer
In which of the following cases are delay fuses used ?
A
For the protection of light circuits
B
For the protection of power out - let circuits
C
For the protection of fluorescent lamps
D
For the protection of motors
Question 81Single Answer
In order to improve the voltage profile of the line, compensation is resorted by providing
A
capacitors at the receiving end
B
reactors at the receiving end
C
resistors at the receiving end
D
none of these
Question 82Single Answer
Skin effect in conductor is proportional to
A
(diameter of conductor) 1/2
B
diameter of conductor
C
(diameter of conductor)2
D
(diameter of conductor)4
Question 83Single Answer
The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to
A
compensate for skin effect
B
take care of surges
C
provide additional mechanical strength
D
reduce inductance
Question 84Single Answer
A fault is more severe from the view point of RRRV if it is a
A
Short length fault
B
Medium length line fault
C
Long length line fault
D
None of these
Question 85Single Answer
Protective resistance to be connected between the sphere gap and the test equipment is required while measuring
A
power frequency and higher frequency a.c. voltage
B
power frequency and impulse voltage
C
all kinds of voltages
D
none of these
Question 86Single Answer
Series capacitor is used in a transmission line to
A
compensate the voltage drop
B
reduce line loss
C
limit short circuit current
D
improve load power factor
Question 87Single Answer
The passive element that is used as interconnecting element for the stable operation of interconnected system is
A
reactor
B
resistor
C
capacitor
D
resistor and capacitor
Question 88Single Answer
Corona loss in a transmission line is dependent on
A
diameter of the conductor
B
material of the conductor
C
height of the conductor
D
none of these
Question 89Single Answer
In a minimum oil circuit breaker the oil is used
A
to act as circuit breaking medium only
B
for circuit breaking and providing insulation
C
for providing insulation only
D
for none of the above purposes
Question 90Single Answer
Skin effect is
A
proportional to frequency
B
proportional to square of frequency
C
inversely proportional to frequency
D
independent of frequency
Question 91Single Answer
Rated making capacity of breaker is equal to
A
X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
B
2.55 X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
C
1 X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
D
none of these
Question 92Single Answer
The main reason for using high voltage for long distance power transmission is
A
reduction in transmission losses
B
reduction in time of transmission
C
increase in system reliability
D
none of the above
Question 93Single Answer
Bus - coupler is very essential in
A
single bus - bar arrangement
B
ring bus - bar arrangement
C
double bus, double breaker arrangement
D
main and transfer bus
Question 94Single Answer
With the rise in temperature, the insulation resistivity
A
remains unchanged
B
decreases linearly
C
increases linearly
D
reduces exponentially
Question 95Single Answer
The effect of bonding the cable is
A
to increase the effective resistance and inductance
B
to increase the effective resistance but reduce inductance
C
to reduce the effective resistance and inductance
D
to reduce the effective resistance but increase the inductance
Question 96Single Answer
Increase in temperature in overhead transmission lines causes
A
increase in stress and length
B
decrease in stress and length
C
decrease in stress but increase in length
D
none of the above
Question 97Single Answer
The insulation resistance of the cable decreases with the
A
increase in length of cable
B
decrease in length of cable
C
electric stresses
D
none of these
Question 98Single Answer
Corona has the disadvantage(s) of
A
power loss
B
interference with neighbouring communication circuits
C
introducing the harmonics, predominately third harmonics, into the transmission lines
D
all of the above
Question 99Single Answer
In a load duration curve for an intergrated power system the uppermost crest represents the energy contributed by
A
base power stations
B
major thermal stations
C
peaking hydro or gas turbine stations
D
non - conventional power stations
Question 100Single Answer
At bridge crossing and near the railway track ternary lead cables are used because they
A
are of high tensile strength
B
are of low coefficient of thermal expansion
C
are of low specific gravity
D
can withstand shocks and vibrations
Question 101Single Answer
The heat produced at the contact point owing to flow of electric current is least affected by
A
temperature of the surrounding medium
B
contact resistance
C
magnitude of electric current flowing
D
duration of flow of current
Question 102Single Answer
A stationary alternator should not be connected to the live bus - bar because
A
it is likely to operate as a synchronous motor
B
it will get short - circuited
C
it will reduce bus - bar voltage
D
all of the above
Question 103Single Answer
In a transmission system the feeder supplies power to
A
transformer substations (step - up)
B
service mains
C
distributors
D
all of the above
Question 104Single Answer
For a given amount of power to be transmitted over a certain distance with fixed power loss, the volume of copper required is
A
directly proportional to voltage
B
inversely proportional to voltage
C
inversely proportional to the square of voltage and pf of the load
D
directly proportional to the square of the voltage and pf of the load
Question 105Single Answer
Power despatch through a line can be increased by
A
installing series capacitors
B
installing shunt capacitors
C
installing series reactor
D
installing shunt reactor
Question 106Single Answer
In the figure shown which curve represents the variation of cost of generation per kWh with the load factor, for a thermal power plant ?
A
Curve A
B
Curve B
C
Curve C
D
Curve D
Question 107Single Answer
Under 'no load conditions the current in a transmission line is because of
A
capacitance effect
B
corona effect
C
proximity effect
D
back flow from earth
Question 108Single Answer
The only advantage of corona is that it
A
produces a pleasing luminous glow
B
makes line current sinusoidal
C
works as a safety valve for surges
D
ozone gas is produced
Question 109Single Answer
Earth wires are made of
A
copper
B
aluminium
C
iron
D
galvanised stranded steel
Question 110Single Answer
The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The demand factor of the consumer is
A
0.75
B
0.375
C
1.33
D
none of the above
Question 111Single Answer
A lightning arrester connected between the line and earth in a power system
A
protects the terminal equipment against travelling surges
B
protects the terminal equipment against direct lightning stroke
C
suppresses high frequency oscillations in the line
D
reflects back the travelling waves approaching it
Question 112Single Answer
Oil filled cables have the advantage(s) of
A
smaller overall size
B
most perfect impregnation
C
easy detection of fault
D
all of the above
Question 113Single Answer
A bus coupler circuit breaker is utilised in a substation for
A
joining the transmission line with station bus - bar
B
joining main and transfer bus in a substation
C
joining the generator with transfer
D
joining the neutral of the generator with earth
Question 114Single Answer
The fluids used in circuit breakers should be of
A
high dielectric strength and thermal stability
B
non - inflammability
C
are extinguishing ability
D
all of the above
Question 115Single Answer
Feeder is designed mainly from the point of view of
A
its current carrying capacity
B
voltage drop in it
C
operating voltage
D
operating frequency
Question 116Single Answer
Power output per unit volume of an MHD generator is proportional to
A
specific electrical conductivity of gas
B
square of the magnetic field strength
C
square of the fluid velocity
D
all of the above
Question 117Single Answer
Increase in frequecy of transmission line causes
A
no change in line resistance
B
increase in line resistance
C
decrease in line resistance
D
decrease in line series reactance
Question 118Single Answer
A dc series generator can excite itself
A
only on zero load current
B
only when load current is not zero
C
irrespective of the value of load current
D
none of the above
Question 119Single Answer
Thermal relays are used for protection of motors against over - current owing to
A
short - circuits
B
heavy loads
C
earth fault
D
all of these
Question 120Single Answer
Transmission efficiency of a transmission line increases with the
A
decrease in power factor and voltage
B
increase in power factor and voltage
C
increase in power factor but decrease in voltage
D
increase in voltage but decrease in power factor
Question 121Single Answer
While using air - blast circuit breaker, current chopping is a phenomenon often observed when
A
a long overhead line is switched off
B
a bank of capacitors is switched off
C
a trasformer on no - load is switched off
D
none of these
Question 122Single Answer
The contact resistance of a circuit breaker is about
A
20 Ω
B
2 Ω
C
20 mΩ
D
20 μΩ
Question 123Single Answer
Metallic shielding is provided on underground cables to
A
reduce thermal resistance
B
reduce corona effect
C
control the electrostatic voltage stress
D
all of the above
Question 124Single Answer
The most economical limit of power factor correcting is governed by
A
original power factor
B
relative costs of the supply and power factor correction equipment
C
both (a) and (b)
D
none of the above
Question 125Single Answer
A short - circuit current is identified by
A
heavy current flow
B
voltage rise
C
voltage drop
D
none of these
Question 126Single Answer
Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of electrical power ?
A
Tungsten
B
Copper
C
Aluminium
D
Cadmium copper
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following alternators will have maximum number of poles ?
A
Alternator coupled to hydraulic turbine
B
Alternator coupled to steam turbine
C
Alternator coupled to gas turbine
D
All will have same number of poles
Question 128Single Answer
In humid weather, the corona occurs at a voltage
A
much less than the needed in fair weather
B
much higher than that needed in fair weather
C
equal to that needed in fair weather
D
none of the above
Question 129Single Answer
Short - circuit currents are due to
A
single phase to earth fault
B
phase to phase fault
C
all the three phases to earth fault
D
all the three phases short - circuited
E
any of the above
Question 130Single Answer
Over - current protection respond to
A
increase in current above pick - up value
B
single line to earth faults
C
double line to earth faults
D
all of the above
Question 131Single Answer
A fuse is
A
always connected in series with the circuit
B
always connected in parallel with the circuit
C
normally connected in series with the circuit
D
none of these
Question 132Single Answer
Standard impulse testing of power transformer requires
A
one application of chopped wave followed by one application of full - wave
B
two applications of chopped wave followed by an application of a full - wave
C
one application of chopped wave followed by two application of a full - wave
D
none of these
Question 133Single Answer
The presence of earth in case of overhead lines
A
increases the capacitance
B
increases the inductance
C
decreases the capacitance and increases the inductance
D
does not effect any of the line constants
Question 134Single Answer
Partial discharge measurement on a cable gives
A
p.f of the cable
B
loss angle of the cable
C
location of fault
D
None of these
Question 135Single Answer
Any leakage of air into the condenser destroys the vacuum and causes
A
an increase in air pressure in the condenser limiting the useful heat drop in the steam turbine
B
lowering of the partial pressure of the steam and of the saturation temperature along with it
C
undercooling of the condensate more severe
D
all of the above
Question 136Single Answer
The intersheaths in cables are used to
A
provide proper stress distribution
B
minimize the stress
C
provide protection against moisture and voltage surges
D
provide protection against current and voltage surges
Question 137Single Answer
The string efficiency of insulators can be increased by
A
reducing the number of strings
B
increasing the number of strings
C
correct grading of insulators of various strings
D
none of these
Question 138Single Answer
Which one of the following statements regarding the position of minimum copper loss in a phase of rotary convertor is true ?
A
The position of minimum copper loss is in the middle of the phase whatever may be the power factor
B
The position of minimum copper loss varies with the variation in power factor and this position is displaced from the middle of the phase by the power factor angle
C
The position of minimum copper loss is the tapping point whatever may be the power factor
D
None of the above
Question 139Single Answer
In order to have lower cost of electrical generation
A
the load factor and diversity factor should be high
B
the load factor should be low but diversity factor high
C
the load factor should be high but diversity factor low
D
the load factor and diversity factor should be low
Question 140Single Answer
The stability limit of system is defined as the value of power below which
A
the system is stable and above which also stable
B
the system is unstable and above which it is stable
C
the system is stable and above which it is unstable
D
none of these
Question 141Single Answer
Swing equation represents
A
the variation of power with respect to time
B
the variation of torque angle with respect to time
C
the variation of input power with respect to time
D
none of these
Question 142Single Answer
In case of Impulse Thermal breakdown of insulating materials, the critical time to breakdown is
A
proportional to critical electric field
B
inversely proportional to critical electric field
C
proportional to square of critical absolute temperature
D
none of these
Question 143Single Answer
Economiser in a steam power plant
A
improves the boiler efficiency by 10 - 12 %
B
saves fuel consumption by 5 - 15 %
C
becomes a necessity for pressure
D
none of these
Question 144Single Answer
Conductor configuration determine
A
inductance
B
sag
C
voltage
D
current
Question 145Single Answer
If the length of the arc of circuit breaker increases, its resistance
A
be extinguished
B
decreases
C
remains same
D
none of these
Question 146Single Answer
If the frequency of a transmission system is changed from 50 Hz to 100 Hz, the string efficiency
A
will increase
B
will decrease
C
remain unchanged
D
may increase or decrease depending on the line parameters
Question 147Single Answer
The pressurised water reactors employ
A
light water and natural uranium
B
heavy water and enriched uranium
C
light water and enriched uranium
D
none of the above combinations
Question 148Single Answer
The suitable turbine used for harnessing tidal power is
A
Francis turbine
B
Pelton turbine
C
Kaplan turbine
D
None of these
Question 149Single Answer
In an AC Transmission line, difference in phase of voltages at the two ends of the line is due to
A
resistance of line
B
system voltage
C
reactance of line
D
insulators
Question 150Single Answer
Steam power plants work closely on
A
Binary vapour cycle
B
Brayton cycle
C
Rankine cycle
D
Carnot cycle
General Awareness
Question 151Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 152Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 153Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 154Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 155Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 156Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 157Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 158Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 159Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 160Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 161Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 162Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 163Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 164Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 165Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 166Single Answer
What did India and China emphasize as essential for improving bilateral relations?
A
Space cooperation
B
Currency cooperation
C
Tourism promotion
D
Border peace and tranquillity
Question 167Single Answer
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A
Nistar
B
Nipun
C
INS Vikrant
D
INS Arihant
Question 168Single Answer
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A
27 July 2026
B
29 July 2026
C
31 July 2026
D
30 July 2026
Question 169Single Answer
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A
Yash Vir Singh
B
Neeraj Chopra
C
Kishore Jena
D
Rohit Yadav
Question 170Single Answer
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A
120th
B
121st
C
123rd
D
125th
Reasoning
Question 171Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 172Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 173Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 174Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 175Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 176Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 177Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 178Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 179Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 180Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 181Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 182Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 183Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 184Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 185Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 186Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 187Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 188Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 189Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 190Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 191Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 192Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 193Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 194Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 195Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 196Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 197Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.