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Latest PGCIL Junior Engineer Electrical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Electrical Engineering, General Awareness, Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude

Question Bank PGCIL Junior Engineer (Electrical) Exam - English
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Electrical Engineering

Question 1Single Answer
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. A
    Maximum daily demand 
  2. B
    Maximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. C
    Average demand 
  4. D
    Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 2Single Answer
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. A
    Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. B
    Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. C
    Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. D
    Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
Question 3Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A
    40.5m3
  2. B
    50m3
  3. C
    75m3
  4. D
    94.7m3
Question 4Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. A
    Flow rate through the tank 
  2. B
    Diameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. C
    Volume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. D
    Detention time in the tank
Question 5Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D
    3 and 4 only   
Question 6Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
  1. A
    3.6 mg/l
  2. B
    13.6 mg/l
  3. C
    33.6 mg/l
  4. D
    53.6 mg/l
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.  
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    3 and 4 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 8Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when 
  1. A
    the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0  
  2. B
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero 
  3. C
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil 
  4. D
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil 
Question 9Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
  1. A
    5 m2
  2. B
    25 m2
  3. C
    10 m2
  4. D
    20 m2 
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2 and 4 only
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 4 only
  3. C
    2 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 3 only
Question 12Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 13Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. A
    Methane and Hydrogen
  2. B
    Hydrogen Sulphide
  3. C
    Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. D
    Ammonia
Question 14Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. A
    Excessive burning of bricks
  2. B
    High silt content in brick clay
  3. C
    High porosity of bricks
  4. D
    Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 15Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 16Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    Both 1 and 2
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2
Question 18Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
  1. A
    Tricalcium silicate
  2. B
    Dicalcium silicate
  3. C
    Tricalcium aluminate
  4. D
    Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 19Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 4 only
Question 20Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
  1. A
    3.00
  2. B
    3.45
  3. C
    4.50
  4. D
    6.00
Question 21Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 22Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    2 and 3 only
  2. B
    2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 4 only
Question 23Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 2 only
  2. B
    2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    3 and 4 only
Question 24Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 3 only
Question 25Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    2 and 3 only
  3. C
    1 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 4 only
Question 26Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    2, 3 and 4 only
Question 27Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 4 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    2 and 4 only
Question 28Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
  1. A
    100.6 N/mm2
  2. B
    120.4 N/mm2
  3. C
    140.2 N/mm2
  4. D
    160.0 N/mm2
Question 29Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
  1. A
    Annealing effect
  2. B
    Bauschinger effect
  3. C
    Strain rate effect
  4. D
    Fatigue effect
Question 30Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 only
  3. C
    2 only
  4. D
    3 only
Question 31Single Answer
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
  1. A
    0.8 Ω
  2. B
    1.4 Ω
  3. C
    2 Ω
  4. D
    2.8 Ω
Question 32Single Answer
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
  1. A
    7.0 × 1012 m-3
  2. B
    7.0 × 10-12 m-3
  3. C
    7.0 × 10-12 m3
  4. D
    7.0 × 1012 m3
Question 33Single Answer
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
  1. A
    9.2 × 105/m3
  2. B
    2.77 × 103/m3
  3. C
    2.43 × 1019/m3
  4. D
    8.9 × 1012/m3
Question 34Single Answer
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
  1. A
    By the mobility of the carriers
  2. B
    Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
  3. C
    By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
  4. D
    By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Question 35Single Answer
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
  1. A
    Parallel polarized
  2. B
    Perpendicularly polarized
  3. C
    Normally polarized
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 36Single Answer
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
  1. A
    Forward voltage increases up to the rating
  2. B
    Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
  3. C
    Forward voltage decreases below the rating
  4. D
    Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Question 37Single Answer
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
  1. A
    Very difficult to form, machine or case
  2. B
    The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
  3. C
    The poor strength-to-weight ratio
  4. D
    The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Question 38Single Answer
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
  1. A
    High stiffness and strengths
  2. B
    Low densities
  3. C
    Unusual electrical property
  4. D
    Non-ductile
Question 39Single Answer
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
  1. A
    Meissner effect
  2. B
    Josephson effect
  3. C
    Isotope effect
  4. D
    x quantization experiments
Question 40Single Answer
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
  1. A
    Phenol formaldehyde
  2. B
    Polytetrafluoroethylene
  3. C
    Polyvinyl chloride
  4. D
    Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Question 41Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
  1. A
    Ferrite
  2. B
    Piezoelectric
  3. C
    Pyroelectric
  4. D
    Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 42Single Answer
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
  1. A
    Peak temperature
  2. B
    Neel temperatur
  3. C
    Critical temperature
  4. D
    Weiss temperature
Question 43Single Answer
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
  1. A
    Seeback effect
  2. B
    Thomson effect
  3. C
    Hall effect
  4. D
    Joule effect
Question 44Single Answer
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
  1. A
    Soft magnetic materials
  2. B
    Hard magnetic materials
  3. C
    High eddy current loss materials
  4. D
    High hysteresis loss materials
Question 45Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    Both 1 and 2
  2. B
    Neither 1 nor 2
  3. C
    1 only
  4. D
    2 only
Question 46Single Answer
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
  1. A
    Radiative recombination
  2. B
    Auger recombination
  3. C
    Surface recombination
  4. D
    Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Question 47Single Answer
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
  1. A
    GeO2
  2. B
    B2O3
  3. C
    P2O5x
  4. D
    Al2O3
Question 48Single Answer
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
  1. A
    Become twice
  2. B
    Become half
  3. C
    ecome four times
  4. D
    Remain unchanged
Question 49Single Answer
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux. 
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 50Single Answer
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of  luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
  1. A
    MCHTX
  2. B
    MXHTC
  3. C
    XMHCT
  4. D
    XMHTC
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