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Objective Questions

Latest PGIMER Nursing Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Concerned Subject (Nursing Officer)

Question Bank PGIMER Nursing Officer Exam - English
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Concerned Subject (Nursing Officer)

Question 1Single Answer
The first step of the nursing process is:
  1. A
    Planning
  2. B
    Evaluation
  3. C
    Implementation
  4. D
    Assessment
Question 2Single Answer
Which phase of the nursing process involves setting measurable patient goals?
  1. A
    Assessment
  2. B
    Planning
  3. C
    Diagnosis
  4. D
    Evaluation
Question 3Single Answer
The most effective method for preventing transmission of infection in hospitals is:
  1. A
    Wearing gloves continuously
  2. B
    Giving antibiotics
  3. C
    Wearing a mask
  4. D
    Hand hygiene
Question 4Single Answer
Medical asepsis is also known as:
  1. A
    Clean technique
  2. B
    Sterile technique
  3. C
    Surgical scrub
  4. D
    Isolation technique
Question 5Single Answer
Surgical asepsis refers to:
  1. A
    Reduction of microorganisms
  2. B
    Handwashing with soap
  3. C
    Complete elimination of microorganisms from an area
  4. D
    Routine environmental cleaning
Question 6Single Answer
The normal adult oral temperature is approximately:
  1. A
    35°C
  2. B
    39°C
  3. C
    38.5°C
  4. D
    37°C
Question 7Single Answer
Normal resting respiratory rate in an adult is:
  1. A
    5–10/minute
  2. B
    22–30/minute
  3. C
    12–20/minute
  4. D
    30–40/minute
Question 8Single Answer
Normal resting pulse rate in an adult is generally:
  1. A
    30–50/minute
  2. B
    100–130/minute
  3. C
    60–100/minute
  4. D
    120–150/minute
Question 9Single Answer
Normal oxygen saturation in a healthy adult at sea level is usually:
  1. A
    95–100%
  2. B
    80–85%
  3. C
    70–75%
  4. D
    101–105%
Question 10Single Answer
A pulse rate greater than 100 beats/minute in an adult is called:
  1. A
    Bradycardia
  2. B
    Apnea
  3. C
    Arrhythmia
  4. D
    Tachycardia
Question 11Single Answer
A pulse rate below 60 beats/minute in an adult is called:
  1. A
    Tachycardia
  2. B
    Tachypnea
  3. C
    Bradycardia
  4. D
    Bradypnea
Question 12Single Answer
Absence of breathing is termed:
  1. A
    Dyspnea
  2. B
    Apnea
  3. C
    Orthopnea
  4. D
    Tachypnea
Question 13Single Answer
Difficulty in breathing while lying flat is called:
  1. A
    Orthopnea
  2. B
    Apnea
  3. C
    Hypopnea
  4. D
    Eupnea
Question 14Single Answer
The apical pulse is best auscultated at the:
  1. A
    Right second intercostal space
  2. B
    Xiphoid process
  3. C
    Left fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
  4. D
    Right lower abdomen
Question 15Single Answer
The pulse commonly assessed during adult CPR is the:
  1. A
    Carotid pulse
  2. B
    Brachial pulse
  3. C
    Radial pulse
  4. D
    Pedal pulse
Question 16Single Answer
The pulse commonly checked in an infant during resuscitation is the:
  1. A
    Brachial pulse
  2. B
    Radial pulse
  3. C
    Temporal pulse
  4. D
    Carotid pulse
Question 17Single Answer
A blood pressure cuff that is too small may produce a reading that is:
  1. A
    Falsely low
  2. B
    Falsely high
  3. C
    Always accurate
  4. D
    Unrecordable
Question 18Single Answer
The systolic blood pressure represents pressure during:
  1. A
    Ventricular relaxation
  2. B
    Atrial relaxation only
  3. C
    Ventricular contraction
  4. D
    Venous filling
Question 19Single Answer
Diastolic blood pressure reflects pressure during:
  1. A
    Ventricular contraction
  2. B
    Atrial contraction only
  3. C
    Ventricular relaxation
  4. D
    Inspiration
Question 20Single Answer
Korotkoff sounds are heard while measuring:
  1. A
    Respiratory rate
  2. B
    Pulse rate
  3. C
    Temperature
  4. D
    Blood pressure
Question 21Single Answer
Which position is commonly used for administering an enema?
  1. A
    Supine
  2. B
    Prone
  3. C
    Left Sims' position
  4. D
    Trendelenburg
Question 22Single Answer
Fowler's position is particularly useful for patients with:
  1. A
    Breathing difficulty
  2. B
    Foot injury
  3. C
    Hypothermia
  4. D
    Rectal bleeding
Question 23Single Answer
High Fowler's position usually means elevation of the head of the bed to approximately:
  1. A
    10–15°
  2. B
    60–90°
  3. C
    20–30°
  4. D
    180°
Question 24Single Answer
Trendelenburg position is characterized by:
  1. A
    Head higher than feet
  2. B
    Patient lying on the left side
  3. C
    Patient lying prone
  4. D
    Head lower than feet
Question 25Single Answer
The lithotomy position is commonly used for:
  1. A
    Chest examination
  2. B
    Eye examination
  3. C
    Pelvic examination
  4. D
    Shoulder examination
Question 26Single Answer
The prone position means the patient is lying:
  1. A
    On the back
  2. B
    Sitting upright
  3. C
    On the left side
  4. D
    On the abdomen
Question 27Single Answer
The supine position means the patient is lying:
  1. A
    On the abdomen
  2. B
    Sitting
  3. C
    Kneeling
  4. D
    On the back
Question 28Single Answer
A major purpose of regularly repositioning an immobile patient is to prevent:
  1. A
    Pressure injury
  2. B
    Hypertension
  3. C
    Hyperglycemia
  4. D
    Fever
Question 29Single Answer
The most common site of pressure injury in a patient lying supine is the:
  1. A
    Palm
  2. B
    Sacrum
  3. C
    Abdomen
  4. D
    Forearm
Question 30Single Answer
An early sign of pressure injury is:
  1. A
    Cyanosis of the lips
  2. B
    Bone fracture
  3. C
    Generalized edema
  4. D
    Non-blanchable erythema
Question 31Single Answer
Stage 1 pressure injury is characterized by:
  1. A
    Exposed bone
  2. B
    Full-thickness tissue loss
  3. C
    Intact skin with non-blanchable redness
  4. D
    Visible tendon
Question 32Single Answer
The Braden Scale is used to assess risk for:
  1. A
    Pressure injuries
  2. B
    Falls
  3. C
    Malnutrition only
  4. D
    Depression
Question 33Single Answer
A gait belt is primarily used to:
  1. A
    Restrain the patient
  2. B
    Reduce abdominal pain
  3. C
    Measure waist circumference
  4. D
    Assist with safe transfers and ambulation
Question 34Single Answer
When transferring a weak patient from bed to chair, the nurse should first:
  1. A
    Pull the patient suddenly
  2. B
    Remove footwear
  3. C
    Assess the patient's ability to assist
  4. D
    Ask the patient to hold the nurse's neck
Question 35Single Answer
Proper body mechanics include:
  1. A
    Keeping feet close together
  2. B
    Bending from the waist
  3. C
    Twisting while lifting
  4. D
    Keeping the load close to the body
Question 36Single Answer
When lifting an object, the nurse should primarily use the muscles of the:
  1. A
    Back
  2. B
    Neck
  3. C
    Legs
  4. D
    Wrists
Question 37Single Answer
The safest footwear for a patient at risk of falls is:
  1. A
    Loose slippers
  2. B
    High heels
  3. C
    Non-slip footwear
  4. D
    Bare feet
Question 38Single Answer
A basic fall-prevention measure is to keep the:
  1. A
    Bed in its highest position
  2. B
    Room dark
  3. C
    Floor wet
  4. D
    Call bell within reach
Question 39Single Answer
Before leaving a high-risk patient alone, the nurse should ensure the bed is:
  1. A
    Elevated fully
  2. B
    Tilted to one side
  3. C
    In its lowest position
  4. D
    Unlocked
Question 40Single Answer
Physical restraints should generally be used:
  1. A
    As a last resort when necessary for safety
  2. B
    For staff convenience
  3. C
    Whenever a patient is elderly
  4. D
    For every confused patient
Question 41Single Answer
Which is an example of therapeutic communication?
  1. A
    Giving false reassurance
  2. B
    Active listening
  3. C
    Changing the subject
  4. D
    Arguing with the patient
Question 42Single Answer
Which statement demonstrates an open-ended question?
  1. A
    “Tell me how you have been feeling.”
  2. B
    “Are you hungry?”
  3. C
    “Does your chest hurt?”
  4. D
    “Is the pain severe?”
Question 43Single Answer
Which communication technique encourages the patient to continue speaking?
  1. A
    Changing the topic
  2. B
    Interrupting
  3. C
    Giving advice immediately
  4. D
    Silence
Question 44Single Answer
The nurse should avoid which communication response?
  1. A
    Clarifying
  2. B
    Reflecting
  3. C
    Restating
  4. D
    False reassurance
Question 45Single Answer
Nonverbal communication includes:
  1. A
    Written prescription
  2. B
    Facial expression
  3. C
    Laboratory report
  4. D
    Medication chart
Question 46Single Answer
The primary purpose of documentation is to:
  1. A
    Entertain staff
  2. B
    Avoid patient assessment
  3. C
    Replace communication
  4. D
    Provide an accurate record of patient care
Question 47Single Answer
A nursing note should be:
  1. A
    Objective and accurate
  2. B
    Vague
  3. C
    Based on assumptions
  4. D
    Written before care is delivered
Question 48Single Answer
If an error is made in a paper nursing record, the nurse should generally:
  1. A
    Erase it completely
  2. B
    Follow institutional policy for correcting the error without obscuring the original entry
  3. C
    Use correction fluid
  4. D
    Tear out the page
Question 49Single Answer
Informed consent primarily protects the patient's right to:
  1. A
    Free hospitalization
  2. B
    Avoid all medical procedures
  3. C
    Receive any medication requested
  4. D
    Make informed decisions about care
Question 50Single Answer
Maintaining patient information privately is known as:
  1. A
    Fidelity
  2. B
    Confidentiality
  3. C
    Veracity
  4. D
    Justice
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