In case of indifference curve of two goods X and Y, as consumption of X increases :
A
MRSXY increases
B
MRSXY decreases
C
MRSXY remains the same
D
MRSXY increases but later on MRSXY decreases
Question 3Single Answer
General Economic equilibrium is NOT related to which one of the following problems ?
A
Uniqueness problem
B
Existence problem
C
Stability problem
D
Moral hazard problem
Question 4Single Answer
In the shoft-run production function, which on eof the following is CORRECT ?
A
Technology is assumed to change as labour input changes
B
Technology is assumed to change as capital stock changes
C
Technology is assumed to change positively until diminishing returns set in
D
Technology is assumedto be constant for a given production function relationship
Question 5Single Answer
As output expands, LAC curve falls. This is due to :
A
Law of variable proportions
B
Law of diminishing returns
C
Economies of scale
D
Diseconomies of scale
Question 6Single Answer
In a situtation of decision under uncertainty, if a consumer faces equal expected income from two alternatives, then she will take decision on the basis of :
A
Expected utility of both the alternatives
B
Probability of risk attached with each alternatives
C
Variation of risk attached with each alternatives
D
Mean of risk of each alternatives
Question 7Single Answer
What type of relationship the Phillips curve postulates between the rae of unemployment and the rate of increase of money wages ?
A
Inverse
B
Direct
C
Direct and proportional
D
Inverse and proportional
Question 8Single Answer
The concept of 'money illusion' was first given by whom ?
A
Milton Friedman
B
Irving Fisher
C
Robertson
D
J. M. Keynes
Question 9Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly describes the concept of 'Super Multiplier' ?
A
Investment multiplier
B
Money multiplier
C
Interaction between multiplier and accelerator
D
Employment multiplier
Question 10Single Answer
Given
I = 50 + 0.2Y
S = –150 + 0.4Y
G = 50
Where, I = Investment, S = Savings
G = Government Expenditure
Y = National Income
What is the equilibrium level of national income
A
2500
B
1250
C
250
D
1500
Question 11Single Answer
The independence of real variables from changes in money supply and nominal variables is called :
A
Keynesian dichotomy
B
Classical dichotomy
C
Money illusion
D
Money multiplier
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following is the apex financial institution in India ?
A
Reserve Bank of India
B
Securities and Exchange Board of India
C
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
D
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India
Question 13Single Answer
The Reserve Bank of India is responsible for :
A
Issuing currency notes
B
Regulating the banking sector
C
Maintaining the country's foreign exchange reserves
D
All of the above
Question 14Single Answer
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is responsible for ?
A
Regulating the securities market
B
Protecting the interests of investors
C
Promoting fair and transparent trading practices
D
All of the above
Question 15Single Answer
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is responsible for :
A
Regulating the insurance sector
B
Protecting the interests of policyholders
C
Promoting fair and transparent insurance practices
D
All of the above
Question 16Single Answer
The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India (PFRDA) is responsible for :
A
Regulating the pension sector
B
Protecting the interests of pension subscribers
C
Promoting fair and transparent pension practices
D
All of the above
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a function of a financial regulatory body ?
A
Issuing licenses to financial institutions
B
Conducting inspections and audits of financial institutions
C
Investigating and prosecuting financial crimes
D
Managing the country's fiscal policy
Question 18Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a regulatory measure that can be taken by a financial regulatory body ?
A
Raising or lowering interest rates
B
Setting limits on lending
C
Requiring financial institutions to disclose certain information
D
All of the above
Question 19Single Answer
What is the importance of financial regulation ?
A
To protect consumers
B
To promote financial stability
C
To ensure fair and transparent markets
D
All of the above
Question 20Single Answer
Which of the following is a challenge faced by financial regulators in India ?
A
The growing complexity of the financial system
B
The increasing use of technology
C
The globalization of financial markets
D
All of the above
Question 21Single Answer
What are the two main categories of taxes in India ?
A
Income tax and property tax
B
Direct taxes and indirect taxes
C
Central taxes and state taxes
D
Corporate tax and sales tax
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a direct tax in India ?
A
Goods and Services Tax (GST)
B
Value Added Tax (VAT)
C
Income Tax
D
Excise Duty
Question 23Single Answer
Which tax is imposed on the income earned by individuals and businesses in India ?
A
Sales Tax
B
Property Tax
C
Income Tax
D
Service Tax
Question 24Single Answer
What is the maximum rate of income tax for individuals and Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) in India as of the knowledge cutoff date in 2021 ?
A
10 %
B
20 %
C
30 %
D
40 %
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is considered an indirect tax in India ?
A
Property Tax
B
Goods and Services Tax (GST)
C
Income Tax
D
Wealth Tax
Question 26Single Answer
What can be done to improve financial regulation in India ?
A
Increase the resources available to financial regulators
B
Enhance coordination between different regulatory bodies
C
Strengthen the enforcement of financial regulations
D
All of the above
Question 27Single Answer
Under the GST regime in India, which entity is responsible for the collection of GST ?
A
State Governments
B
Central Government
C
Local Municipalities
D
Both Central and State Governments
Question 28Single Answer
The RBI Act, 1934 established the ?
A
Reserve Bank of India
B
Securities and Exchange Board of India
C
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
D
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India
Question 29Single Answer
GST stands for :
A
Goods and Services Tax
B
General Sales Tax
C
Gross State Tax
D
Goods and Sales Tax
Question 30Single Answer
What is the main objective of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India ?
A
To increase the burden of taxation on businesses
B
To streamline and simplify the indirect tax system
C
To eliminate all forms of taxation
D
To reduce the rates of direct taxes
Question 31Single Answer
The SEBI Act, 1992 established the :
A
Securities and Exchange Board of India
B
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
C
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
Question 32Single Answer
Which body is responsible for recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Central and State Governments in India ?
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Planning Commission
C
Finance Commission
D
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Question 33Single Answer
The IRDAI Act, 1999 established the :
A
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
B
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India
C
Securities and Exchange Board of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
Question 34Single Answer
The PFRDA Act, 2011 established the :
A
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India
B
Securities and Exchange Board of India
C
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
Question 35Single Answer
How often is the Finance Commission in India constituted to recommend the distribution of tax revenues ?
A
Every year
B
Every two years
C
Every three years
D
Every five years
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a member of the Financial Stability and Development Council ?
A
Reserve Bank of India
B
Securities and Exchange Board of India
C
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
D
Ministry of Finance
Question 37Single Answer
The Fiscal Policy of a country primarily deals with :
A
Tax evasion
B
Tax collection
C
Government spending and taxation
D
Monetary policy
Question 38Single Answer
The RBI has a Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) that sets interest rates in India. The MPC consists of how many members ?
A
4
B
6
C
8
D
10
Question 39Single Answer
What is the primary goal of fiscal policy in India ?
A
To maximize inflation
B
To minimize government spending
C
To achieve economic stability and growth
D
To reduce the fiscal deficit
Question 40Single Answer
SEBI has a board of directors that consists of how many members ?
A
9
B
11
C
13
D
15
Question 41Single Answer
What is the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) in India ?
A
A law that restricts individuals from borrowing money
B
A law that aims to reduce the fiscal deficit and promote fiscal discipline
C
A law that encourages excessive government spending
D
A law that abolishes all taxes
Question 42Single Answer
What is the fiscal deficit ?
A
The excess of government revenue over government expenditure
B
The excess of government expenditure over government revenue
C
The total government debt
D
The amount of money collected through taxes
Question 43Single Answer
IRDAI has a board of directors that consists of how many members ?
A
9
B
11
C
13
D
15
Question 44Single Answer
PFRDA has a board of directors that consists of how many members ?
A
9
B
11
C
13
D
15
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following is considered a non - tax source of revenue for the Indian government ?
A
Income Tax
B
Goods and Services Tax (GST)
C
Dividend from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
D
Value Added Tax (VAT)
Question 46Single Answer
Which section of the RBI Act, 1934, empowers the Reserve Bank of India to issue directions to banking companies for priority sector lending ?
A
Section 21
B
Section 35 A
C
Section 35 AA
D
Section 36 AD
Question 47Single Answer
Under the RBI Act, 1934, which section deals with the power of the Reserve Bank of India to regulate the flow of credit to particular areas or sectors ?
A
Section 21
B
Section 35 A
C
Section 35 AA
D
Section 36 AD
Question 48Single Answer
Which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, deals with the prohibition on the employment of staff who have been convicted of an offense involving dishonesty or moral turpitude ?
A
Section 9
B
Section 10
C
Section 12
D
Section 12 A
Question 49Single Answer
Which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, deals with the appointment of a banking ombudsman for the resolution of customer complaints ?
A
Section 21
B
Section 35 A
C
Section 35 AA
D
Section 36 AD
Question 50Single Answer
.... refers to the act or skill of controlling and making decisions about a business, team, organisation, etc.
A
Management
B
Organisation
C
Planning
D
None of these
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Professional Knowledge Test (PKT)
Question 51Single Answer
Management includes
A
Planning
B
Organising
C
Staffing
D
All of these
Question 52Single Answer
The father of scientific management is
A
Taylor
B
Mayo
C
Simon
D
Fayol
Question 53Single Answer
"Management is simply the process of decision - making and control over the action of human being for the expressed purpose of attaining the pre - determined goals." This statement is given by
A
Stanley Vance
B
Drucker
C
Rose Moore
D
None of these
Question 54Single Answer
"To manage is to forecast and plan, to organise, to command, to coordinate and to control." This statement is given by
A
Theo Haimann
B
Taylor
C
Rose Moore
D
None of these
Question 55Single Answer
"Management is the development of people and not the direction of things. Management is personnel administration". This statement is given by
A
Stanley Vance
B
Drucker
C
Lawrence and Appley
D
None of these
Question 56Single Answer
What is the full form of GST ?
A
General Sales Tax
B
Goods and Service Tax
C
Government Service Tax
D
Gross Service Tax
Question 57Single Answer
In which year was GST implemented in India ?
A
2015
B
2016
C
2017
D
2018
Question 58Single Answer
Which of the following taxes were subsumed under GST ?
A
Central Excise Duty
B
State Value Added Tax (VAT)
C
Service Tax
D
All of the above
Question 59Single Answer
GST is a multi-stage tax levied on :
A
Production of goods only
B
Consumption of services only
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Value addition at each stage
Question 60Single Answer
What are the different types of GST ?
A
Central GST (CGST) and State GST (SGST) only
B
Central GST (CGST), State GST (SGST), and Integrated GST (IGST)
C
Central GST (CGST) and Union Territory GST (UTGST)
D
National GST (NGST) and Local GST (LGST)
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A
Offer
B
Acceptance
C
Registration
D
Consideration
Question 62Single Answer
According to Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a contract is an agreement enforceable by law. What is the term used for an agreement not enforceable by law?
A
Void Agreement
B
Voidable Contract
C
Bilateral Contract
D
Executed Contract
Question 63Single Answer
A contract is formed when the offer is accepted. What term is used to describe the acceptance of an offer?
A
Consideration
B
Promise
C
Proposal
D
Consent
Question 64Single Answer
In which of the following cases does an agreement become a contract?
A
When it is made with a promise
B
When both parties are legally competent
C
When the offer and acceptance meet the criteria prescribed by law
D
All of the above
Question 65Single Answer
Under Indian Contract Law, the term "Consideration" refers to:
A
A gift
B
A past voluntary act
C
A lawful act performed in exchange for a promise
D
A moral obligation
Question 66Single Answer
What is the definition of a company under the Companies Act, 2013?
A
A body corporate formed under a partnership agreement.
B
A legal entity formed by two or more persons to carry out business.
C
A company incorporated under the laws of a foreign country.
D
A business entity recognized by the government.
Question 67Single Answer
Which of the following is a type of company classification?
A
Private company
B
Public company
C
Limited liability partnership (LLP)
D
All of the above
Question 68Single Answer
What is the first step in the process of company incorporation?
A
Filing the Memorandum of Association
B
Appointment of directors
C
Name approval from the Registrar of Companies (RoC)
D
Drafting Articles of Association
Question 69Single Answer
What is the primary document required to form a company?
A
Articles of Association
B
Memorandum of Association
C
Shareholder agreement
D
Business plan
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following is true about the Memorandum of Association?
A
It defines the company’s name, registered office, objects, and capital structure.
B
It is a document that sets out the rules for the management of the company.
C
It is a non-binding agreement between the shareholders.
D
It must be signed by at least two-thirds of the directors.
Question 71Single Answer
What is the main purpose of determining the residential status of an individual for tax purposes?
A
To calculate the age of the taxpayer
B
To determine the tax liability in India
C
To decide the amount of salary to be paid
D
To assess the social status of the individual
Question 72Single Answer
Under the Income Tax Act, a person is considered a resident in India if they stay in India for at least:
A
182 days in the previous year
B
240 days in the previous year
C
120 days in the previous year
D
365 days in the previous year
Question 73Single Answer
Which section of the Income Tax Act deals with the determination of residential status?
A
Section 2
B
Section 6
C
Section 10
D
Section 80C
Question 74Single Answer
An individual is considered a Non-Resident (NR) if they do not meet the conditions for:
A
Ordinary Resident
B
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
C
Resident
D
Foreign Resident
Question 75Single Answer
The status "Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident (RNOR)" is applicable to individuals who have been non-residents in India for:
A
1 out of the last 10 years
B
2 out of the last 10 years
C
5 out of the last 10 years
D
7 out of the last 10 years
Question 76Single Answer
Interest income accruing outside India but received by a resident in India is taxable in India if he is:
A
A non-resident
B
A resident but not ordinarily resident
C
A resident who is ordinarily resident
D
Any resident
Question 77Single Answer
Income from a business controlled from India is taxable in the hands of a resident who is ordinarily resident even if it accrues or arises outside India, if:
A
The whole income is taxable
B
50% of the income is taxable
C
Only the income attributable to the control in India is taxable
D
The income is exempt
Question 78Single Answer
A foreign company is said to be resident in India if its place of effective management (POEM) in the previous year is:
A
In India
B
Outside India
C
Partly in India and partly outside India
D
Irrelevant for residency
Question 79Single Answer
An individual who has been a non-resident in India for 9 out of the 10 previous years preceding the relevant previous year is a:
A
Resident
B
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
C
Non-resident
D
Deemed resident
Question 80Single Answer
An individual who has been in India for a period of 730 days or more during the 7 previous years preceding the relevant previous year and also satisfies the basic condition for being a resident is a:
A
Non-resident
B
Resident who is Ordinarily Resident
C
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
D
Deemed resident
Question 81Single Answer
Income earned from agricultural land situated in Pakistan is taxable in India for:
A
A resident who is ordinarily resident in India
B
A resident but not ordinarily resident in India
C
A non-resident in India
D
All the assessees
Question 82Single Answer
Salary received in India for services rendered outside India is taxable in the case of:
A
Non-resident only
B
Resident only
C
All assessees
D
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident only
Question 83Single Answer
Profits from a business situated in London but controlled entirely from India are taxable in India for:
A
A resident who is ordinarily resident in India
B
A resident but not ordinarily resident in India
C
A non-resident in India
D
All the assessees
Question 84Single Answer
Interest received outside India by a non-resident from a business controlled in India is:
A
Fully taxable in India
B
Not taxable in India
C
Taxable only if remitted to India
D
Taxable at a concessional rate
Question 85Single Answer
Royalty received outside India by a resident but not ordinarily resident from a business in India is:
A
Taxable in India
B
Not taxable in India
C
Taxable only if remitted to India
D
Exempt from tax
Question 86Single Answer
Income from house property situated in Nepal, received in Nepal, is taxable in India for:
A
A resident who is ordinarily resident in India
B
A resident but not ordinarily resident in India
C
A non-resident in India
D
All the assessees
Question 87Single Answer
For the purpose of determining the residential status of an individual, the previous year is:
A
The calendar year
B
The financial year following the assessment year
C
The financial year immediately preceding the assessment year
D
Any period of 12 months
Question 88Single Answer
An individual who is a citizen of India and a member of the crew of a foreign-going ship leaving India, the period of stay in India for determining residency shall not include the period:
A
Of joining the ship
B
Of disembarking from the ship
C
Of official leave in India
D
Commencing from the date entered into the Continuous Discharge Certificate in respect of joining the ship and ending on the date entered therein in respect of signing off from the ship
Question 89Single Answer
A person is deemed to be resident in India if he is not liable to tax in any other country or territory by reason of his:
A
Domicile only
B
Residence only
C
Domicile or residence or any other criteria of similar nature
D
Nationality only
Question 90Single Answer
A deemed resident individual is always considered as:
A
Resident and Ordinarily Resident
B
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
C
Non-resident
D
Having an option for residency status
Question 91Single Answer
Income from salary earned in India but received outside India is taxable for:
A
All assessees
B
Resident only
C
Non-resident only
D
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident only
Question 92Single Answer
Profits from a business situated in India but controlled from outside India are taxable for:
A
Resident only
B
All assessees
C
Non-resident only
D
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident only
Question 93Single Answer
Interest income accruing in India and received outside India is taxable for:
A
All assessees
B
Resident only
C
Non-resident only
D
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident only
Question 94Single Answer
Rent from a property situated outside India but received in India is taxable for:
A
All assessees
B
Resident only
C
Non-resident only
D
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident only
Question 95Single Answer
Income earned and received outside India from a business controlled outside India is taxable for:
A
A non-resident
B
A resident but not ordinarily resident
C
A resident who is ordinarily resident
D
All the assessees
Question 96Single Answer
Income earned outside India but directly remitted to India is taxable for:
A
All assessees
B
Resident only
C
Non-resident only
D
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident only
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following incomes is always taxable in India, irrespective of the residential status of the assessee?
A
Income accruing outside India and received outside India
B
Income accruing outside India but controlled from India
C
Income received or deemed to be received in India
D
Income accruing or arising outside India and remitted to India
Question 98Single Answer
A person of Indian origin means an individual, being a citizen of a foreign country, who or either of whose parents or any of whose grandparents was born in:
A
Any foreign country
B
India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935
C
Undivided India
D
Pakistan
Question 99Single Answer
For an individual who is a citizen of India and who leaves India in the previous year for employment outside India, the basic condition of 182 days is:
A
Applicable
B
Not applicable, a threshold of 60 days applies
C
Not applicable, a threshold of 90 days applies
D
Not applicable, a threshold of 120 days applies
Question 100Single Answer
For an individual who is a citizen of India or a person of Indian origin and who, being outside India, comes on a visit to India in the previous year, the basic condition of 182 days is substituted by how many days?
A
60 days if certain other conditions are met
B
182 days
C
90 days if total income exceeds a certain limit
D
120 days
Question 101Single Answer
If an individual satisfies at least one basic condition and at least one additional condition, he is a:
A
Resident and Ordinarily Resident
B
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
C
Non-resident
D
Deemed resident
Question 102Single Answer
If an individual satisfies at least one basic condition but does not satisfy any of the additional conditions, he is a:
A
Resident and Ordinarily Resident
B
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
C
Non-resident
D
Deemed resident
Question 103Single Answer
If an individual does not satisfy any of the basic conditions, he is a:
A
Resident and Ordinarily Resident
B
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
C
Non-resident
D
Deemed resident
Question 104Single Answer
In the case of a firm, association of persons or local authority, they are said to be resident in India if the control and management of their affairs is situated:
A
Wholly outside India
B
Wholly or partly in India
C
Only in India
D
Partly outside India
Question 105Single Answer
For residency purposes, "India" includes:
A
Only the land territory of India
B
Only the territorial waters of India
C
Only the air space above India
D
The territory of India including its territorial waters, seabed and subsoil underlying such waters, continental shelf, exclusive economic zone or any other maritime zone as referred to in the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, and the air space above its territory and territorial waters.
Professional Knowledge Test (PKT) Aptitude Test (EAT)
Question 106Single Answer
What is the primary objective of financial management?
A
Maximizing sales
B
Maximizing profit
C
Maximizing shareholder wealth
D
Minimizing expenses
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following is not part of the scope of financial management?
A
Investment decisions
B
Financing decisions
C
Dividend decisions
D
Marketing strategies
Question 108Single Answer
Financial management mainly deals with which of the following?
A
Acquisition of funds only
B
Proper utilization of funds only
C
Sales and marketing
D
Both acquisition and utilization of funds
Question 109Single Answer
What does “financial planning” involve?
A
Advertising products
B
Determining the firm’s overall financial objectives and resources
C
Hiring employees
D
Manufacturing process design
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following is a key function of financial management?
A
Production planning
B
Customer relationship management
C
Capital budgeting
D
Product designing
Question 111Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of Cost Accounting?
A
Ascertainment and control of costs
B
Financial reporting to external users
C
Tax planning and compliance
D
Investment decisions
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following best describes Management Accounting?
A
A process primarily focused on historical data
B
A system for external reporting only
C
Providing information to managers for decision making, planning, and control
D
A legally mandated reporting system
Question 113Single Answer
What is 'Costing' defined as?
A
The technique and process of ascertaining costs
B
The process of cost ascertainment
C
The application of costing principles
D
The recording of all expenses incurred
Question 114Single Answer
Which of these is NOT an objective of Cost Accounting?
A
Ascertainment of cost
B
Ensuring the company makes a profit
C
Cost control and cost reduction 1
D
Determination of selling price
Question 115Single Answer
Management Accounting information is primarily directed towards whom?
A
Internal users like managers
B
Shareholders and investors
C
Government authorities
D
Creditors and lenders
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following is a key difference between Cost Accounting and Management Accounting?
A
Cost Accounting is broader in scope than Management Accounting
B
Management Accounting uses principles of Cost Accounting
C
Cost Accounting is primarily future-oriented
D
Management Accounting is mandatory
Question 117Single Answer
What is a 'Cost Unit'?
A
A location for which cost is ascertained
B
A factor that causes a change in the cost
C
The total cost of production
D
A unit of product, service, or time in relation to which costs are ascertained
Question 118Single Answer
What is a 'Cost Centre'?
A
The total cost incurred by a department
B
A unit of output for which cost is calculated
C
A location, person, or item of equipment for which costs may be ascertained and used for cost control
D
The selling price of a product
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a direct material cost?
A
Salary of a factory supervisor
B
Wood used in furniture manufacturing
C
Rent of the factory
D
Lubricants used in machinery
Question 120Single Answer
What are 'Overheads'?
A
Total direct costs
B
Total indirect costs
C
Prime cost
D
Total cost of sales
Executive Aptitude Test (EAT)
Question 121Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 122Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 123Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 124Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 125Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 126Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 127Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 128Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 129Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 130Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 131Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 132Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 133Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 134Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 135Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 136Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 137Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 138Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 139Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 140Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 141Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 142Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 143Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 144Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 146Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 147Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 148Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 149Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 150Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 151Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 152Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 153Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 154Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS. (II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 155Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 156Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 157Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 158Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 159Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 160Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 161Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 162Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 163Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 164Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 165Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 166Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 167Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 168Single Answer
Which organization leads World Environment Day celebrations?
A
UNESCO
B
IMF
C
WHO
D
UNEP
Question 169Single Answer
Which campaign was associated with the inauguration of Namo Oxygen Parks in Delhi on World Environment Day 2026?
A
Mission LiFE
B
Nagar Van Yojana
C
Green India Mission
D
Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam
Question 170Single Answer
Pope Leo XIV is scheduled to bless/inaugurate a tower at Sagrada Família in Barcelona in June 2026 to mark:
