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PPSC Civil Judge Prelims Exam - English

Duration: 120 ยท Questions: 125 ยท Max Marks: 125 ยท Language: 3

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Law

1
A. Government of India Act 1858 control     1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861                          2.Non official members in executive council 
C. Indian Council                                         3.Separate representation of Muslim community                       Act1909
D. Government of                                         4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces    
  1. A.A       B      C        D
    2       3       1        4
  2. B.4       1       2        3
  3. C.3       4       1        2
  4. D.1        2       3        4
2
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 3 and 4
3
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
  1. A.1 and 2 are correct
  2. B.2 and 3 are correct
  3. C.1 and 3 are correct
  4. D.None of the above
4
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 3
5
Which one is not correctly matched?
  1. A.Freedom of speech  -  include freedom of  and expression press
  2. B.Freedom of    -   include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
  3. C.conscience
    Right to personal -  include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
  4. D.(d) Right to equality  -   includes principles of natural justice
6
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the 
  1. A.Prime Minister
  2. B.Vice- President
  3. C.Chief Minister
  4. D.Chief Justice
7
 An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
 Arrange the protections in the order in which  they appear in the Indian constitution.
  1. A.Codes:
    1, 3, 2
  2. B.1, 2, 3
  3. C.3, 1, 2
  4. D.2, 1,3
8
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
  1. A.75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  2. B.76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  3. C.77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  4. D.78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
9
Match the following:
A. Right to go                  1. Bhim Singh's  case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right            2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty             3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's             4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
  1. A.Codes:
     A      B      C     D
     2       4       1     3
  2. B.4      2       3     1
  3. C.2      4       3      1
  4. D.4      2       1      3
10
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
  1. A.Three months
  2. B.Six months
  3. C.Nine months
  4. D.Twelve months
11
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
  1. A.Habeas corpus     - available against private individual as well.
  2. B.Quo warranto       - available against subordinate courts only
  3. C.Certiorari              - available against autonomous bodies only
  4. D.Prohibition           - directs a public authority to perform a task.
12
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad                 1. Bhim Singh's  case.
B. Prisoner's right                       2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty                         3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability           4. Sunil Batra's case.
  1. A.A      B      C     D
    2      4       1     3
  2. B.4      2       3     1
  3. C.2      4       3      1
  4. D.4      2       1      3
13
Match the following:
  1. A.Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
    from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
  2. B.Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
  3. C.In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
  4. D.In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
14
List-I                                                   List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore          1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights               
Maneka Gandhi                        2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus                          3. Right to life and  personal liberty
vs. State of MP           
Bashesher Nath                         4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr.                             5. Doctrine of severeability
  1. A.A      B      C      D
    4       2      3       1
  2. B.5       4      3       2
  3. C.4        3      2       1
  4. D.5        3     2        1
15
List-I                                  List-II
Independence of judiciary            1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation                     2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial  functions               3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility                4. Ordinance
  1. A.A     B     C    D
    2      1     4     3
  2. B.3      4     1     2
  3. C.2      4     1     3
  4. D.3      I     4      2
16
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
  1. A.3
  2. B.4
  3. C.2
  4. D.1
17
 List-I                       List-II
รขโ‚ฌโ€นA Habeas corpus     1. Violation of natural  justice
B. Mandamus           2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto       3. Exercise of power  without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari              4. Non performance of  public duty.
  1. A.A       B     C    D
    2      4       3    1
  2. B.1      3       4    2
  3. C.2       3      4   1
  4. D.1       4    3    2
18
The fundamental duties provided in the  constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our  composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these  fundamental duties include:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 3
19
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
  1. A.First
  2. B.Second
  3. C.Third
  4. D.Fourth
20
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
  1. A.It lists the distribution of powers between  the union and the states.
  2. B.It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
  3. C.It contains the provision regarding the  administration of tribal areas.
  4. D.It allocates seats in the council of states.
21
The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
  1. A.Fundamental rights
  2. B.DPSP
  3. C.List of languages recognised by the constitution
  4. D.Number of states and UTS
22
Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
  1. A.2nd schedule 
  2. B.5th schedule
  3. C.8th schedule    
  4. D.10th schedule
23
At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
  1. A.8
  2. B.10
  3. C.12
  4. D.11
24
The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
  1. A.30 days
  2. B.45 days
  3. C.60 days
  4. D.90 days
25
When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
  1. A.The President
  2. B.The prime minister
  3. C.The chief justice of India
  4. D.Council of ministers
26
The framers of the constitution borrowed the  idea of judicial review from the constitution  of:
  1. A.France
  2. B.USA
  3. C.United Kingdom
  4. D.None of these
27
Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
  1. A.The election commission
  2. B.President
  3. C.Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. D.Prime minister
28
Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
  1. A.Part IX
  2. B.Part IX-A
  3. C.Part X
  4. D.Part X-A
29
It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
  1. A.Preamble
  2. B.Fundamental rights
  3. C.Fundamental duties
  4. D.Directive principles of state policy
30
Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
  1. A.The President
  2. B.Speaker of Lok Sabha
  3. C.Speaker of Rajya Sabha
  4. D.Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
31
Preamble to the constitution of India:
  1. A.is not a Part of the constitution.
  2. B.Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
  3. C.Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
  4. D.Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.
32
The preamble to the Indian constitution is:
  1. A.A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
  2. B.A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity.
  3. C.A Part of the constitution and it confers  powers and impose duties as any other  provision of the constitution.
  4. D.Not a Part of the constitution.
33
The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced back to the constitution of
  1. A.USA
  2. B.United Nations
  3. C.United Kingdom
  4. D.Ireland
34
The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India
(a) Equality of status and opportunity
(b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith and worship.
(c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
(d) Unity and integrity of the nation .
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble ?
  1. A.5,1,2,4,3
  2. B.3,2,1,4,5
  3. C.3,1,2,5,4
  4. D.1,2,4,3,5
35
Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?
  1. A.Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
  2. B.Sovereign, secular, socialist,  democratic and republic
  3. C.Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
  4. D.Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
36
The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure  ?
  1. A.Fundamental rights to all individuals .
  2. B.Fundamental duties of citizen of India
  3. C.Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
  4. D.Security of service to government servants .
37
Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment  of the constitution.
  1. A.1st Amendment  Act
  2. B.24th Amendment Act
  3. C.42nd Amendment Act
  4. D.44th Amendment Act
38
Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.One
  4. D.Never
39
The word secular denotes:
  1. A.Keeping away from all religions.
  2. B.Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
  3. C.Belief in one god
  4. D.Practicing different religions
40
The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:
  1. A.Prohibit concentration of wealth
  2. B.Distribute equitably the natural resources
  3. C.Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
  4. D.That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.
41
In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
     
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
42
Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
1. Right to Education
2. Right to Information
3. Right to Vote
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.2 only
43
Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:
  1. A.Against arbitrary legislative action.
  2. B.Against arbitrary executive action.
  3. C.Both (a) and (b)
  4. D.Neither (a) nor (b)
44
Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct:
1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in Article 19 (1) of the constitution
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI Act.
3. Supreme Court of India has the advisory jurisdiction.
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.3 only
45
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements
w.r.t. Article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR
3. High courts have the power to issue writs  under Article 226 of the constitution.
  1. A.I only
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.3 only
46
Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."?
1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
47
Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
  1. A.Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
  2. B.Certiorari & Mandamus.
  3. C.Prohibition & Mandamus.
  4. D.Prohibition & Certiorari.
48
The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
49
Which of the following statement/s is/are  correct?
1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to  establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to  establish Economic Democracy.
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
50
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
3. Fundamental rights cannot be curtailed under any circumstances by the Parliament.
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.Only 2
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
51
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill?
1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment Bill in Parliament.
2. President must give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both houses.
3. Constitution amendment Bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.I only
52
The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
  1. A.A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed  by simple majority of Parliament.
  2. B.A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed  by special majority of Parliament.
  3. C.A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed  by special majority of the Parliament and  ratified by half of the state legislatures.
  4. D.By a normal legislative process that does  not require Constitutional Amendment.
53
Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution?
1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
2. Rigid Constitution.
3. Independent Judiciary.
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only   
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
54
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the  concurrent list, the legislative power rests  with the centre
3. Residuary powers are assigned to the  parliament.
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.3 only
55
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Center can give direction to a state on any matter.
2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states.
3. Word 'cabinet' is mentioned only once in the constitution under Art. 352.
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.3 only
56
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be  removed only by the President.
3. Finance commission is mentioned under  Art. 280 of the constitution.
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.2 and 3
57
Which of the following statement is correct  with regard to Proclamation of Emergency?
  1. A.Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed  by both houses of Parliament by a special
    majority.
  2. B.Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed  by either house of Parliament by a simple
    majority.
  3. C.Resolution disapproving the proclamation  of emergency is to be passed by either  house of Parliament by a simple majority.
  4. D.None of these
58
Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose President's rule in a state (Article 356)?
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no Party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
59
Which of the following situation/s are correct  with regard to Proclamation of Financial  Emergency (Article 360)?
1. It can be extended to an indefinite period  with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation  of financial emergency is to be passed by  either house of Parliament by simple
majority.
3. The President may issue directions for  reduction of salaries and allowances of  Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
60
The Electoral College for President's election
consist of:
1. Elected members of both the houses of
Parliament.
2. Elected members of the legislative
assemblies.
3. Elected members of all Union Territories.
  1. A.1
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
61
When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant Art. 95 provides that
  1. A.The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker
  2. B.The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
  3. C.The President appoints any member of  Lok Sabha as speaker.
  4. D.The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected
62
With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill -
  1. A.The President can reject the Bill but cannot return the Bill.
  2. B.The President cannot reject the Bill but can return the Bill.
  3. C.The President can neither reject the Bill nor return the Bill.
  4. D.The President can either reject the Bill or return the Bill.
63
The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are
1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both
  4. D.None
64
The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which  of the following manner?
  1. A.She/he can be impeached in similar  manner as President.
  2. B.A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by  special majority and agreed to by the Lok  Sabha.
  3. C.A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by  simple majority and agreed to by the Lok  Sabha.
  4. D.A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
65
The Council of Ministers' does not consist  of:
1. Deputy Ministers.
2. Parliamentary Secretaries.
3. Deputy Chairman-Planning Commission.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.None of these
66
The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
1. The members of the State Legislative  Assembly only.
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State legislative
assembly or electoral college of the UT  as the case may be.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.1 and 4
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.2 and 4
67
Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution Read with the Representation of the People Act, 1951, for a person
to be chosen a member of Parliament?
1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved  for SC/ST, he must be a member of a SC/ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for  preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry and sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.None of these
68
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. If an MLA is elected to be an MP, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both
  4. D.None
69
As observed by Salmond, jurisprudence is  concerned with
  1. A.to discover new rules
  2. B.to reflect all the rules already known
  3. C.to derive rules from authority and apply  them to problems
  4. D.logic.
70
Who said jurisprudence is formal science of  positive law?
  1. A.Bentham
  2. B.Stone
  3. C.Austin
  4. D.Holland
71
Who said "Jurisprudence is nothing but lawyers, extroversion"?
  1. A.Bentham
  2. B.Stone
  3. C.Austin
  4. D.Holland
72
Who is the author of the book, ‘Taking rights seriously’?
  1. A.R. Dworkin
  2. B.Hart
  3. C.Bentham
  4. D.Tom Bingham
73
The concept of law depends largely on the:
  1. A.social values
  2. B.accepted norms
  3. C.behavioural pattern of the particular  society at a given time
  4. D.All of the above
74
Law consists of social norms which are:
  1. A.coercive
  2. B.ethical
  3. C.non-coercive
  4. D.religious
75
Jurisprudence has been defined as the science of first principle of civil law by:
  1. A.Salmond
  2. B.Holland
  3. C.Gray
  4. D.Paton

Current events of national and international importance

1
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
  1. A.Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
  2. B.Purchase of Rafale jets
  3. C.Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
  4. D.Signing of a nuclear agreement
2
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
  1. A.GSAT-31
  2. B.Chandrayaan-4
  3. C.INSAT-4CR
  4. D.GSAT-32
3
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
  1. A.A new defence missile system
  2. B.Green hydrogen mission
  3. C.AI Tutoring initiative
  4. D.Digital payment platform
4
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
  1. A.1 May 2026
  2. B.1 January 2026
  3. C.1 July 2026
  4. D.31 December 2026
5
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
  1. A.At least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
  2. B.8
  3. C.25
  4. D.12
6
A wall collapse at a hospital in which city killed seven people around early May 2026?
  1. A.Bengaluru, Karnataka
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Hyderabad
  4. D.Chennai
7
Indian airlines (Air India, IndiGo, SpiceJet) informed the government about potential operational issues due to:
  1. A.Pilot shortage
  2. B.High fuel prices and Strait of Hormuz closure amid Iran war
  3. C.New DGCA regulations
  4. D.Airport congestion
8
RBI's April 2026 Monetary Policy kept the repo rate unchanged at:
  1. A.6.5%
  2. B.6.0%
  3. C.4.75%
  4. D.5.25%
9
Which initiative or mission was linked to Tatya Topeโ€™s letter discovery?
  1. A.Swachh Bharat
  2. B.Namami Gange
  3. C.Digital India
  4. D.Gyan Bharatam Mission
10
Neeraj Chopra began his pre-season training for 2026 in which country?
  1. A.Germany
  2. B.South Africa (Potchefstroom)
  3. C.USA
  4. D.Australia
11
What major global sporting event is scheduled from 11 June to 19 July 2026?
  1. A.Winter Olympics
  2. B.FIFA World Cup 2026
  3. C.Asian Games
  4. D.Commonwealth Games
12
Vaishnath (Railway Minister) flagged off the first direct Vande Bharat Express between:
  1. A.Delhi and Mumbai
  2. B.Jammu and Srinagar
  3. C.Chennai and Bengaluru
  4. D.Kolkata and Guwahati
13
What new framework did the RBI announce plans for regarding NBFCs in April 2026?
  1. A.Complete deregulation
  2. B.Classification into upper, middle, and lower layers
  3. C.Merger with banks
  4. D.Ban on new NBFCs
14
From 1 April 2026, RBI shifted processing of overseas investment references to:
  1. A.Only Mumbai office
  2. B.SEBI
  3. C.7 Regional Offices via PRAVAAH portal
  4. D.Ministry of Finance
15
The Iran war and closure of the Strait of Hormuz led to:
  1. A.Oil prices hitting four-year high
  2. B.Record low oil prices
  3. C.Increased Indian exports
  4. D.Rupee appreciation

Reasoning

1
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
  1. A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
  2. B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
  3. C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
  4. D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
  5. E.None of these
2
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
  1. A.Area
  2. B.Volume
  3. C.Length
  4. D.Sound
  5. E.Energy
3
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
  1. A.Fruit
  2. B.Stem
  3. C.Flower
  4. D.Root
  5. E.None of these
4
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
  1. A.Water        :           Drink
  2. B.Light         :        Night
  3. C.Teach       :      Student
  4. D.Air             :        Breathe
  5. E.Food         :        Hunger
5
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
  1. A.Fruit
  2. B.Stem
  3. C.Flower
  4. D.Root
  5. E.None of these
6
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
  1. A.Omnivorous
  2. B.Carnivorous
  3. C.Herbivorous
  4. D.Multivorous
  5. E.None of these
7
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
  1. A.Party : Dance
  2. B.Study : Book
  3. C.Lecture : Study
  4. D.Enjoy : Journey
  5. E.None of these
8
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
  1. A.Pity : Kindness
  2. B.Cruel : Anger
  3. C.Wise : Education
  4. D.Pride : Humility
  5. E.None of these
9
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
  1. A.Memory
  2. B.Highness
  3. C.Tongue
  4. D.Speak
  5. E.Voice
10
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
  1. A.Integrity
  2. B.Honesty
  3. C.Guide
  4. D.Competition
  5. E.None of these

Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121

Indian Legal and Constitution History

1
Which of the following is/are features of the Neolithic settlements in the Punjab ?
  1. A.A notable advance in agriculture
  2. B.Use of shell, semi-precious stones and metals tor ornaments
  3. C.Use of the two-wheel ox-cart
  4. D.All of the above
2
A site of this culture has been excavated at jalilpur on the old bed of the river
  1. A.Ravi
  2. B.Sutlej
  3. C.Jhelum
  4. D.Beas
3
Which of the following is/are the outermost sites of the settlements of the urban Hurappan culture ?
  1. A.Manda (in Jammu)
  2. B.Ropar
  3. C.Chandigarh
  4. D.All of the above
4
The name ‘Punjab’ was used for spatial or territorial identity. The oldest of these is  the Rigvedic ‘Sapta Sindhu’ which like the Persian ‘Punjab’ has been interpreted as
  1. A.the Eand of seven rivers
  2. B.the land of outsiders
  3. C.the region beyond Sutlej
  4. D.None of the above
5
The term Punjab has been found in
  1. A.Tarikh-e-Sher Shah Suri
  2. B.Ain-e-Akbari
  3. C.Tuzk-e-Jahangiri
  4. D.All of the above
6
Under Kanishka, the Punjab became part of an empire that covered much of the Northern india, Afghanistan and Central Asia, with its summer capital near
 
  1. A.Peshawar 
  2. B.Lahore
  3. C.Kannauj 
  4. D.Sanghai
7
Daimacus, a Greek ambassador, visited the court of
  1. A.Chandragupta Maurya
  2. B.Bindusara
  3. C.Ashoka
  4. D.Kunal
8
The discussion between king Menander and Buddhist philosopher, Nagasena has been compiled in
  1. A.Dipvamsa
  2. B.Mahavamsa
  3. C.Milindapanha
  4. D.None of these
9
Which of the following is not a Neolithic site?
  1. A.Brahmagiri
  2. B.Sanganakallu
  3. C.Arikamedu
  4. D.Piklihal
10
Match List-I (Harappan sites) with List-II (Archaeological remains) and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I                                            List-II                                     
(a) Mohenjodaro                 (i) Citadel and a lower town
(b) Lothal                             (ii) Large granary
(c) Kalkibangan                   (iii) Brick dockyard
(d) Sutkagen-dor                 (iv) Citadel and a lower fortified settlement 
  1. A.(a)      (b)       (c)        (d)
    รขโ‚ฌโ€น(i)         (ii)        (iv)       (iii)
  2. B.(ii)        (iii)       (i)         (iv)
  3. C.(iv)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)
  4. D.(iii)       (i)         (ii)        (iv)
11
Which of the following works was the first to suggest payment og cash to officers as salary?
  1. A.Kamandaka Nitisara
  2. B.Arthasastra
  3. C.Manu Smriti
  4. D.Nitivakyamitra
12
On whose coins do the symbols on the reverse generally match with the names of the kings on the obverse?
  1. A.Arjunayanas
  2. B.Maghas
  3. C.Malavas
  4. D.Panchalas
13
Which of the following works relates to Tamil grammar?
  1. A.Ahananuru
  2. B.Kural
  3. C.Tolkappiyam
  4. D.Padirruppattu
14
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the content of the Rummindei Pillar Inscription of Asoka?
  1. A.Reference to the King’s dharma
  2. B.Reference to the conquest of Kalinga
  3. C.Reduction of tax due from the village
  4. D.Non-slaughter of animals in the royal kitchen
15
Who, among the following, are mentioned in the Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela ?
Use the code given below :
i.Satakarni
ii.Bahasatimita
iii.Sakas
iv.Rathikas 
  1. A.(i) and (ii)
  2. B.(i), (iii) and (iv)
  3. C.(ii), (iii) and (iv)
  4. D.(i), (ii) and (iv)
Question for PPSC Civil Judge 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam