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PPSC Draftsmen Exam (Civil) - English

Duration: 120 Β· Questions: 120 Β· Max Marks: 120 Β· Language: 3

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Civil

1
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. A.Maximum daily demand 
  2. B.Maximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. C.Average demand 
  4. D.Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
2
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. A.Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. B.Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. C.Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. D.Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
3
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A.40.5m3
  2. B.50m3
  3. C.75m3
  4. D.94.7m3
4
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. A.Flow rate through the tank 
  2. B.Diameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. C.Volume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. D.Detention time in the tank
5
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D.3 and 4 only   
6
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
  1. A.3.6 mg/l
  2. B.13.6 mg/l
  3. C.33.6 mg/l
  4. D.53.6 mg/l
7
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.  
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.3 and 4 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
8
Quick sand condition occurs when 
  1. A.the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0  
  2. B.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero 
  3. C.the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil 
  4. D.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil 
9
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
  1. A.5 m2
  2. B.25 m2
  3. C.10 m2
  4. D.20 m2 
10
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2 and 4 only
11
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank 
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 4
12
Sewage sickness relates to 
  1. A.Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment 
  2. B.Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage 
  3. C.reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil 
  4. D.Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
13
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
  1. A.8.6 
  2. B.7.9 
  3. C.5.4 
  4. D.4.5 
14
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4 only 
  2. B.3 and 4 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
15
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
16
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4 
17
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
  1. A.0.5m
  2. B.1.25m
  3. C.2.75m
  4. D.4.25m
18
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
  1. A.7.5% 
  2. B.9.5% 
  3. C.13.5% 
  4. D.16.5% 
19
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
  1. A.10 h 32 m 40 s AM
  2. B.11h 32 m 39s PM
  3. C.0 h 32 m 39s PM 
  4. D.11 h 32 m 39s AM
20
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
  1. A.10 m
  2. B.15 m
  3. C.20 m
  4. D.25 m
21
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 4 only
  3. C.2 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
22
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
23
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. A.Methane and Hydrogen
  2. B.Hydrogen Sulphide
  3. C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. D.Ammonia
24
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. A.Excessive burning of bricks
  2. B.High silt content in brick clay
  3. C.High porosity of bricks
  4. D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
25
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
26
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
27
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
28
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
  1. A.Tricalcium silicate
  2. B.Dicalcium silicate
  3. C.Tricalcium aluminate
  4. D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
29
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 4 only
30
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
  1. A.3.00
  2. B.3.45
  3. C.4.50
  4. D.6.00
31
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
  1. A.Sprinkling water
  2. B.Membrane curing
  3. C.High-pressure steam curing
  4. D.Infrared radiation curing
32
Which of the following is appropriate as  simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
  1. A.Compacting factor
  2. B.Slump test
  3. C.Vee-Bee test
  4. D.Kelly Ball test
33
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
34
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
35
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
36
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 3 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
37
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
  1. A.Inner Bark and Sap Wood
  2. B.Pith and Heart Wood
  3. C.Sap Wood and Heart Wood
  4. D.Outer Bark and Sap Wood
38
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
39
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
  1. A.Vertical displacements in a structure
  2. B.Rotational displacements in a structure
  3. C.System of forces in equilibrium
  4. D.Stress-strain behavior of a material
40
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
  1. A.2.5 and 2.5
  2. B.2.5 and 5
  3. C.5 and 1.67
  4. D.6 and 2.50
41
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
  1. A.30 l 
  2. B.35 l
  3. C.40 l
  4. D.45 l
42
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
  1. A.1 : 1 : 1
  2. B.1 : 2 : 3
  3. C.1 : 2 : 4
  4. D.1 : 3 : 4
43
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls. 
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.1, 3 and 5
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 4 and 5
44
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
  1. A.10
  2. B.20
  3. C.25
  4. D.30
45
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
  1. A.11.8
  2. B.12.4
  3. C.14.2 
  4. D.14.8
46
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water 
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 3 and 4
47
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4
48
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case? 
  1. A.1, 2 and  3 only
  2. B.1, 3 and  4 only
  3. C.2, 3 and  4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
49
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 5 only
  3. C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 
50
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
  1. A.165 l
  2. B.205 l
  3. C.245 l
  4. D.285 l 
51
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
  1. A.IS : 4970-1973
  2. B.IS : 1708-1969
  3. C.IS : 1141-1958
  4. D.IS : 399-1963 
52
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them 
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
53
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
  1. A.Parallel to each other
  2. B.At right angle to one another
  3. C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
  4. D.Not constrained by any consideration
54
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
  1. A.It must be free from lumps of lime
  2. B.It should not be mixed with salty water
  3. C.It must be non-homogeneous
  4. D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter 
55
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
  1. A.440 kg/cm2
  2. B.175 kg/cm2
  3. C.100kg/cm2
  4. D.75kg/cm2 
56
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.3 and 4
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 4
57
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.1, 2 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 4
58
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
  1. A.Magnesium oxide
  2. B.Silica
  3. C.Alumina
  4. D.Calcium sulphate
59
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
  1. A.Ordinary Portland
  2. B.High Alumina
  3. C.Low-heat Portland
  4. D.Portland Cement
60
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.2, 3 and 4
  3. C.3, 4 and 5
  4. D.2, 3 and 5 
61
Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 4
  4. D.3 and 4 
62
Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes 
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
  1. A.1 and 4
  2. B.3 and 4 
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.2 and 3
63
Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar. 
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.2, 3 and 4 
  3. C.1, 4 and 5
  4. D.3, 4 and 5 
64
Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability 
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’? 
  1. A.4 and 5
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 4
  4. D.3 and 5
65
Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4 
66
The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
  1. A.625
  2. B.480
  3. C.330
  4. D.250
67
Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
  1. A.A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
  2. B.A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
  3. C.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
  4. D.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate 
68
Consider the following statements concerning  ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 2 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
69
Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 2
70
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only
71
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
72
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.2 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 4 only
73
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.3 and 4 only
74
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
75
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 4 only
76
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only
77
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 4 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 4 only
78
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
  1. A.100.6 N/mm2
  2. B.120.4 N/mm2
  3. C.140.2 N/mm2
  4. D.160.0 N/mm2
79
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
  1. A.Annealing effect
  2. B.Bauschinger effect
  3. C.Strain rate effect
  4. D.Fatigue effect
80
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.3 only
81
The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm4. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm2. The safe concentrated load at the free end would be
  1. A.100 N
  2. B.200 N
  3. C.300 N
  4. D.400 N
82
Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 4 only
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
83
Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only
84
A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is
  1. A.49.27 mm
  2. B.39.27 mm
  3. C.30.27  mm
  4. D.20.27  mm
85
The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.3 only
86
A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly
  1. A.0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
  2. B.0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
  3. C.4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
  4. D.0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
87
A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly
  1. A.136 N
  2. B.131 N
  3. C.131 N
  4. D.121 N
88
The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
89
A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM1 and SM2 as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively
  1. A.SM1 > SM2
  2. B.SM1 < SM2
  3. C.SM1 = SM2
  4. D.Cannot be ascertained
90
Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
91
A three-hinged parabolic arch ABC has a span of 20 m and a central rise of 4·0 m. The arch has hinges at the ends and at the crown. A train of two point loads of 20 kN and 10 kN, 5 m apart, crosses this arch from left to right, with the 20 kN load leading. The maximum thrust induced at the supports is
  1. A.25·0 kN
  2. B.28·13 kN
  3. C.31·25 kN
  4. D.32·81 kN
92
According to IS : 875 Part 3, the design wind speed acting on industrial roof is estimated based on the basic wind speed by multiplying it by factors K1,K2 andK3, where K1 is called
  1. A.Risk coefficient
  2. B.Structure size factor
  3. C.Topography factor
  4. D.Risk coefficient
93
Consider the following two statements regarding Bearing stiffeners provided at the location of a concentrated load:
1. Bearing stiffeners have to resist bearing and buckling loads.
2. Bearing area and the area resisting buckling load are the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.2 only
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
94
In a plate girder, the web plate is connected to the flange plates by fillet welding. The size of the fillet welds is designed to safely resist
  1. A.The bending stresses in the flange
  2. B.The vertical shear force at the section
  3. C.The horizontal shear force between the flanges and the web plate
  4. D.The forces causing buckling in the web
95
A certain R.C. short column with 300 mm square cross-section is made of M 20 grade concrete and has 4 numbers, 20 mm diameter, longitudinal bars of Fe 415 grade steel. It is under the action of a concentric axial compressive load. Ignoring the reduction in the area of concrete due to the steel bars, the ultimate axial load carrying capacity of the column as by the relevant code is
  1. A.1069 kN
  2. B.1198 kN
  3. C.1548kN
  4. D.1659 kN
96
A rectangular beam of size 230 mm × 350 mm beam is (effective depth). The factored shear force acting at a section is 80 kN. If the permissible shear stress in concrete is 0·25 MPa, the design shear force is nearly
  1. A.100 kN
  2. B.80 kN
  3. C.60kN
  4. D.20 kN
97
In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging moment occurs at
  1. A.The inside face of the heavier column
  2. B.A section equidistant from both the columns
  3. C.A section subjected to maximum shear force
  4. D.A section subjected to zero shear force
98
Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum steel requirements of slabs are based on considerations of shrinkage and temperature effects alone, and not on strength.
2. Providing excessive reinforcement in beams can result in congestion, thereby adversely affecting the proper placement and compaction of concrete.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
99
A T-beam becomes identical to a rectangular beam with width equal to its flange width when the neutral axis is
  1. A.Through the geometrical centre of the beam
  2. B.At the junction of the rib and the flange
  3. C.Below the slab
  4. D.Within the flange
100
Consider the following statements in the light of IS : 456 - 2000 :
1. There is an upper limit on the nominal shear stress in beams (even with shear reinforcement) due to the possibility of crushing of concrete in diagonal compression.
2. A rectangular concrete slab whose length is equal to its width may not be a two-way slab for certain definable support conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2

General Knowledge

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
7
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
8
In which state, the Department of Posts delivered mail using a drone for the first time ?
  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Telangana
  3. C.Gujarat
  4. D.Odisha
9
Bandhan Express and Maitree Express, which were seen in the news, run between India and which country ?
  1. A.Nepal
  2. B.Sri Lanka
  3. C.Bangladesh
  4. D.Myanmar
10
What is the theme of the ‘United Nations Peace keepers 2022’ ?
  1. A.People Peace Progress
  2. B.Peace for All
  3. C.Plant Peace Partnerships
  4. D.Tribute to Peacekeepers

Logical Reasoning & Mental Ability

1
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
2
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
3
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
4
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
5
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
7
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
8
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
9
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
10
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three