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Latest PPSC Inspector Cooperative Societies Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : GK, General Studies, Reasoning, ​Mental Ability
Question Bank PPSC Inspector Cooperative Societies Exam - English
General Studies
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
GK
Q 21 :
Which of the following is/are features of the Neolithic settlements in the Punjab ?
A.A notable advance in agriculture
B.Use of shell, semi-precious stones and metals tor ornaments
C.Use of the two-wheel ox-cart
D.All of the above
Q 22 :
A site of this culture has been excavated at jalilpur on the old bed of the river
A.Ravi
B.Sutlej
C.Jhelum
D.Beas
Q 23 :
Which of the following is/are the outermost sites of the settlements of the urban Hurappan culture ?
A.Manda (in Jammu)
B.Ropar
C.Chandigarh
D.All of the above
Q 24 :
The name ‘Punjab’ was used for spatial or territorial identity. The oldest of these is the Rigvedic ‘Sapta Sindhu’ which like the Persian ‘Punjab’ has been interpreted as
A.the Eand of seven rivers
B.the land of outsiders
C.the region beyond Sutlej
D.None of the above
Q 25 :
The term Punjab has been found in
A.Tarikh-e-Sher Shah Suri
B.Ain-e-Akbari
C.Tuzk-e-Jahangiri
D.All of the above
Q 26 :
Under Kanishka, the Punjab became part of an empire that covered much of the Northern india, Afghanistan and Central Asia, with its summer capital near
A.Peshawar
B.Lahore
C.Kannauj
D.Sanghai
Q 27 :
Daimacus, a Greek ambassador, visited the court of
A.Chandragupta Maurya
B.Bindusara
C.Ashoka
D.Kunal
Q 28 :
The discussion between king Menander and Buddhist philosopher, Nagasena has been compiled in
A.Dipvamsa
B.Mahavamsa
C.Milindapanha
D.None of these
Q 29 :
Who founded the Kushan kingdom ?
A.King Heraios
B.Kanishka
C.Kujula Kadphises
D.None of these
Q 30 :
Consider the following about the Pale empire
I. The Palas were the followers of the Hinayana and Tantric schools of Buddhism.
II. The empire reached its peak under Dharrnapala and Devpala.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.Both I and II
D.None of these
Q 31 :
The Brahmi script was Introduced in the Punjab by which of the following Mauryan emperor ?
A.Chanciragupta
B.Ashok
C.Bindusara
D.None of the above
Q 32 :
Which of the following ruler of Indo-Greek established independent kingdom centred at Taxila and later moved his cdpital to Sagala, (modern Sialkot) ?
A.Menander
B.Demetros ll
C.Demetros I
D.None of these
Q 33 :
Which of the following Kushan ruler had a winter capital at Purushapara (Peshawar) and a summer capital at Kapisa (Bagram) ?
A.Heraios
B.Kujula Kadphises
C.Kanishka I
D.None of these
Q 34 :
Arrange the following rulers of Punjab chronologically.
1 Huns
2 Palas
3 Mauryan
4 Indo-Greek
A.3, 4, 2, 1
B.1, 2, 3, 4
C.3, 4, 1, 2
D.4, 3, 2, 1
Q 35 :
The name Punjab is mentioned again in Ain-e-Akbari, written by
A.Tarikh-e-Sher Shah Suri
B.Abul Fazal
C.Multan
D.Jahangir
Q 36 :
In the 9th and 10th centuries which of the following rulers became dominant in the north-west of Punjab.
A.Palas
B.Huns
C.Shahiss
D.Tomaras
Q 37 :
In which of the following centuries, Western Punjab became 11 part of the Ghaznavid empire, while the Rajputs held the Yamuna-Sutlej divide ?
A.9th century
B.10th century
C.11th century
D.7th-8th century
Q 38 :
Consider the following statements
1.The conquest of Sindh and Southern Punjab was the first and last great achievement of Arabs in India.
II. They failed to end their dominance beyond Sindh and Southern Punjab.
!II. The Ghaznavids had conquered almost all Muslim ruled areas to the West and North of Ghazni before they occupied Punjab.
IV. Punjab became the spring board for Arabs for attacking deep inside India
Which of the statements given above are corect?
A.II, III and IV
B.III and IV
C.I, II and IV
D.AII of these
Q 39 :
Consider the following statements in relation to conquest of Punjab by Muhammad of Ghor
I. In AD 1173, Shahab-ud-din Muhammad ascended the throne of Ghazni.
II.He led his first expedition againstMultan
III. He realised the necessity of creating a suitable base in Punjab before venturing on the further conquest of India.
IV. He was unable to conquer the fort of Sialkot and Debol.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
A.I, II and Ill
B.III and IV
C.ll, III and IV
D.All of the above
Q 40 :
During the reign of whom, the Mango appeared for the first time on the banks of Indus under Changez Khan
A.lltutmish
B.Qutb-ud-din Aibak
C.Razia Suttana
D.Ala-ud-din Khilji
Q 41 :
Which Indian chess team, featuring R Praggnanandhaa and Anish Giri, won the Global Chess League 2025 Season 3 title?
A.Triveni Continental Kings
B.Alpine SG Pipers
C.PBG Alaskan Knights
D.Mumba Masters
Q 42 :
Which global health organization was the U.S. scheduled to officially leave in January 2026?
A.WHO
B.UNICEF
C.WTO
D.IMF
Q 43 :
In skywatching for January 2026, which planet was highlighted alongside the Wolf Moon and meteor showers?
A.Mars
B.Venus
C.Jupiter
D.Saturn
Q 44 :
Which campaign encouraging alcohol abstinence starts annually on January 1?
A.Veganuary
B.Dry January
C.Stoptober
D.No-Shave November
Q 45 :
As of January 1, 2026, how does the Gregorian calendar describe the year 2026?
A.Leap year starting on Wednesday
B.Common year starting on Thursday
C.Leap year starting on Friday
D.Common year starting on Saturday
Q 46 :
India's Market Access Support (MAS) Intervention aims to help which group primarily?
A.Large corporations
B.MSMEs and first-time exporters
C.Foreign investors
D.Farmers only
Q 47 :
A deadly fire at a bar in which Swiss ski resort on January 1, 2026, killed around 47 people and injured over 100?
A.Zermatt
B.Davos
C.Crans-Montana
D.St. Moritz
Q 48 :
Which historic church in Amsterdam was severely damaged by fire on January 1, 2026?
A.Westerkerk
B.Vondelkerk
C.Oude Kerk
D.Nieuwe Kerk
Q 49 :
Who won the women's World Blitz Chess Championship final held around early January 2026?
A.Anna Muzychuk
B.Bibisara Assaubayeva
C.Ju Wenjun
D.Humpy Koneru
Q 50 :
India Post discontinued certain outward international letter mail services starting from which date in 2026?
A.January 1
B.February 1
C.December 30, 2025
D.January 15
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GK
Q 51 :
What major trade change for Indian exports to Australia began in 2026?
A.Higher tariffs
B.Zero customs duties on all lines
C.Quotas imposed
D.Bans on certain goods
Q 52 :
The 11th India International Youth Sailing Championship 2026 is scheduled to be held in which Indian city?
A.Mumbai
B.Chennai
C.Goa
D.Visakhapatnam
Q 53 :
Select provisions of which Indian Act came into force from January 1, 2026, focusing on sports governance?
A.National Sports Development Act, 2025
B.National Sports Governance Act, 2025
C.Olympic Charter Compliance Act, 2025
D.Sports Transparency Act, 2025
Q 54 :
Reports in early 2026 projected India's gig economy to create how many new jobs?
A.1 million
B.2 million
C.5 million
D.10 million
Q 55 :
India surpassed which country to become the world's 4th-largest economy as reported in early 2026?
A.Germany
B.United Kingdom
C.Japan
D.France
Q 56 :
The 8th Pay Commission for central government employees in India is set to implement from which date?
A.January 1, 2026
B.February 1, 2026
C.December 31, 2025
D.April 1, 2026
Q 57 :
Banks in India updated minimum balance requirements for savings accounts starting from when in 2026?
A.December 2025
B.January 2026
C.February 2026
D.March 2026
Q 58 :
Guy Parmelin was sworn in as President of Switzerland on which date in 2026?
A.January 1
B.January 2
C.December 31, 2025
D.January 6
Q 59 :
World Introvert Day is observed on which date?
A.January 1
B.January 2
C.January 4
D.January 12
Q 60 :
Credit bureaus in India began refreshing customer data how frequently starting January 2026?
A.Daily
B.Weekly
C.Monthly
D.Quarterly
Q 61 :
In which city did Big Ben's chimes usher in 2026 for UTC time zones?
A.Edinburgh
B.London
C.Dublin
D.Manchester
Q 62 :
Which Pacific island nation was among the first to welcome the New Year 2026 due to its time zone?
A.Fiji
B.Tonga
C.Kiribati
D.Samoa
Q 63 :
In which city did fireworks explode over the Sydney Harbour Bridge to mark the arrival of 2026, despite heightened security?
A.Melbourne
B.Brisbane
C.Sydney
D.Perth
Q 64 :
Which iconic building in Dubai hosted a major fireworks display for New Year's 2026 celebrations?
A.Emirates Towers
B.Burj Khalifa
C.Burj Al Arab
D.Etihad Towers
Q 65 :
What major event began on January 1, 2026, in the sporting world, particularly in tennis?
A.French Open
B.Wimbledon
C.Australian Open
D.US Open
Q 66 :
Which city projected a video mapping light show onto the Arc de Triomphe for New Year's 2026?
A.Rome
B.Paris
C.Berlin
D.Madrid
Q 67 :
On January 1, 2026, which river in Bangkok saw fireworks displays for New Year celebrations?
A.Mekong River
B.Chao Phraya River
C.Irrawaddy River
D.Yangtze River
Q 68 :
Which European country began its presidency of the Council of the European Union on January 1, 2026?
A.Cyprus
B.Hungary
C.Poland
D.Denmark
Q 69 :
What is the common name for the full moon that peaked around early January 2026?
A.Snow Moon
B.Wolf Moon
C.Harvest Moon
D.Blue Moon
Q 70 :
Which global event concluded its extended period on January 6, 2026?
A.Paris Olympics
B.2025 Jubilee
C.COP30
D.FIFA World Cup
Q 71 :
Which country adopted the euro as its official currency on January 1, 2026, becoming the 21st member of the eurozone?
A.Romania
B.Bulgaria
C.Croatia
D.Sweden
Q 72 :
Which country scheduled a presidential election for January 18, 2026?
A.Portugal
B.Costa Rica
C.Myanmar
D.Benin
Q 73 :
What major New Year tradition occurred at Copacabana Beach on January 1, 2026?
A.Lantern Festival
B.Fireworks and beach parties
C.Polar Bear Plunge
D.Parade
Q 74 :
Which awareness campaign often starts on January 1, encouraging plant-based eating?
A.Dry January
B.Veganuary
C.Movember
D.Pink October
Q 75 :
In 2026, which rugby championship was set to kick off on January 31?
A.Rugby World Cup
B.Super Rugby
C.Rugby Championship
D.Six Nations
Q 76 :
Which U.S. holiday is observed on January 1 if it falls on a weekday?
A.Martin Luther King Jr. Day
B.New Year's Day
C.Presidents' Day
D.Independence Day
Q 77 :
What celestial event, like the Quadrantid meteor shower, peaks in early January?
A.Perseids
B.Quadrantids
C.Leonids
D.Geminids
Q 78 :
Which city in Japan featured projection mapping on its government building for New Year 2026?
A.Osaka
B.Kyoto
C.Tokyo
D.Hiroshima
Q 79 :
On January 1, 2026, many countries observed which restricted or public holiday?
A.Christmas
B.New Year's Day
C.Easter
D.Diwali
Q 80 :
Which Middle Eastern city in Qatar hosted fireworks in its Lusail district for 2026?
A.Doha
B.Dubai
C.Abu Dhabi
D.Riyadh
​Mental Ability
Q 81 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 82 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 83 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 84 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 85 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 86 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 87 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 88 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 89 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 90 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 91 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 92 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 93 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 94 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 95 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 96 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 97 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 98 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 99 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 100 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Reasoning
Q 101 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 102 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 103 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 104 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 105 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 106 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 107 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 108 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 109 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 110 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 111 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 112 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 113 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 114 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 115 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 116 :
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A.Two
B.One
C.None
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 117 :
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 118 :
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 119 :
If the positions of the first and last letters of all of the words are interchanged and then the words thus formed are arranged alphabetically form left to right, which of the following will be second from the left?
A.SAT
B.DEN
C.ROD
D.PIN
E.FUN
Q 120 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged in alphabetical order (within the word) how many words will remain unchanged?