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Objective Questions

Latest PPSC JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Civil, Logical Reasoning & Mental Ability, General Knowledge

Question Bank PPSC JE Exam (Civil) - English

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Civil

Question 1Single Answer

A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for

A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher

Question 2Single Answer

A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where

A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days

Question 3Single Answer

100 m³ of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be

A
40.5m³
B
50m³
C
75m³
D
94.7m³

Question 4Single Answer

The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering

A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank

Question 5Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 6Single Answer

A drain carrying 5m³/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m³/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?

A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l

Question 7Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 8Single Answer

Quick sand condition occurs when

A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil

Question 9Single Answer

The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.

A
5 m²
B
25 m²
C
10 m²
D
20 m²

Question 10Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 11Single Answer

Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4

Question 12Single Answer

Sewage sickness relates to

A
Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment
B
Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage
C
reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil
D
Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land

Question 13Single Answer

The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10^–5.6 mmol of OH^– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is

A
8.6
B
7.9
C
5.4
D
4.5

Question 14Single Answer

Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NO_x in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO₂ in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?

A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 15Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 16Single Answer

Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 17Single Answer

For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is

A
0.5m
B
1.25m
C
2.75m
D
4.25m

Question 18Single Answer

A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is

A
7.5%
B
9.5%
C
13.5%
D
16.5%

Question 19Single Answer

Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42⁰36’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is

A
10 h 32 m 40 s AM
B
11h 32 m 39s PM
C
0 h 32 m 39s PM
D
11 h 32 m 39s AM

Question 20Single Answer

A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is

A
10 m
B
15 m
C
20 m
D
25 m

Question 21Single Answer

A transportation trip survey was undertaken between private car, and public car transportation. The proportion of those using private cars is 0.45. While using the public transport, the further choices available are Metro Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such a situation, the choice of interest in using a Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be respectively.

A
0.25, 0.3 and 0.45
B
0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
C
0.25, 0.45 and 0.3
D
0.3, 0.25 and 0.45

Question 22Single Answer

An airfoil of surface area 0.1 m² is tested for lift L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22 kg/m³, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is measured to be 3.2 kgf. What is the lift coefficient? For a prototype wing of area 10 m², what is the approximate lift at an air speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack of 5°?

A
0.572 and 700 kgf
B
0.603 and 700 kfg
C
0.572 and 570 kgf
D
0.603 and 570 kgf

Question 23Single Answer

Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional areas of 10 m² and 2.5 m², respectively, are connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = 0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is 3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m3 of water to flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h, where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec²; also, may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m².

A
535 seconds
B
516 seconds
C
485 seconds
D
467 seconds

Question 24Single Answer

The consistency and flow resistance of a sample of bitumen can be determined through which of the following tests?

A
Viscosity test
B
Penetration test
C
Ductility test
D
Softening point test

Question 25Single Answer

A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with 15 m difference in their water levels through a 1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge through the pipe?

A
104 lps
B
134 lps
C
165 lps
D
196 lps

Question 26Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 27Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 28Single Answer

Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly

A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia

Question 29Single Answer

Efflorescence of bricks is due to

A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay

Question 30Single Answer

Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 31Single Answer

Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 32Single Answer

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 33Single Answer

The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is

A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

Question 34Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 35Single Answer

In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be

A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00

Question 36Single Answer

Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?

A
Sprinkling water
B
Membrane curing
C
High-pressure steam curing
D
Infrared radiation curing

Question 37Single Answer

Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?

A
Compacting factor
B
Slump test
C
Vee-Bee test
D
Kelly Ball test

Question 38Single Answer

Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 39Single Answer

The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 40Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 41Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 42Single Answer

In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in

A
Inner Bark and Sap Wood
B
Pith and Heart Wood
C
Sap Wood and Heart Wood
D
Outer Bark and Sap Wood

Question 43Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 44Single Answer

Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?

A
Vertical displacements in a structure
B
Rotational displacements in a structure
C
System of forces in equilibrium
D
Stress-strain behavior of a material

Question 45Single Answer

Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm²and 40 N/mm², both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm². The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are

A
2.5 and 2.5
B
2.5 and 5
C
5 and 1.67
D
6 and 2.50

Question 46Single Answer

The principal stresses at a point are 2 (tensile) and (compressive), and the stress at elastic limit for the material in simple tension is 210 N/mm². According to maximum shear strain theory, the value of at failure is

A
70 N/mm²
B
105 N/mm²
C
140 N/mm²
D
210 N/mm²

Question 47Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or hoisting loads.
2. With the use of dipper and stick, power shovels can be used as hoes.
3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often used comfortably in the working of a tractor.
4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines if the material is water-saturated.

A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 48Single Answer

Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are heated to a same temperature. Forces are applied at the ends of the bars to maintain their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the stress on the Aluminium bar if the stress on the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?

A
16.7 MPa
B
66.7 MPa
C
136.7 MPa
D
150.0 MPa

Question 49Single Answer

A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and bottom are 120 N/mm² and 80 N/mm², respectively. The depth of the natural axis from the top of the beam will be

A
120 mm
B
100 mm
C
80 mm
D
60 mm

Question 50Single Answer

In the analysis of beams subjected to loads, the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a
1. Point of Contraflexure
2. Point of Maximum Shear Force
3. Point of Inflection
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

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Civil

Question 51Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 52Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 53Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 54Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 55Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 56Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 57Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 58Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 59Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 60Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

Question 61Single Answer

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963

Question 62Single Answer

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 63Single Answer

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are

A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration

Question 64Single Answer

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?

A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Question 65Single Answer

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than

A
440 kg/cm²
B
175 kg/cm²
C
100kg/cm²
D
75kg/cm²

Question 66Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 67Single Answer

Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 68Single Answer

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate

Question 69Single Answer

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?

A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement

Question 70Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5

Question 71Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 4
D
3 and 4

Question 72Single Answer

Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A
1 and 4
B
3 and 4
C
1 and 2
D
2 and 3

Question 73Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 4 and 5
D
3, 4 and 5

Question 74Single Answer

Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?

A
4 and 5
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 4
D
3 and 5

Question 75Single Answer

Consider the following statements:Presence of Na₂O and K₂O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 76Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 77Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only

Question 78Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 79Single Answer

Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 80Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 81Single Answer

Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 82Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 83Single Answer

A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm² and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is

A
100.6 N/mm²
B
120.4 N/mm²
C
140.2 N/mm²
D
160.0 N/mm²

Question 84Single Answer

In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called

A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect

Question 85Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 86Single Answer

The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm⁴. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm². The safe concentrated load at the free end would be

A
100 N
B
200 N
C
300 N
D
400 N

Question 87Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 88Single Answer

Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 89Single Answer

A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is

A
49.27 mm
B
39.27 mm
C
30.27 mm
D
20.27 mm

Question 90Single Answer

The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 91Single Answer

A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly

A
0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
B
0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
C
4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
D
0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec

Question 92Single Answer

A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly

A
136 N
B
131 N
C
131 N
D
121 N

Question 93Single Answer

The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 94Single Answer

A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM₁ and SM₂ as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively

A
SM₁ > SM₂
B
SM₁ < SM₂
C
SM₁ = SM₂
D
Cannot be ascertained

Question 95Single Answer

Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 96Single Answer

A three-hinged parabolic arch ABC has a span of 20 m and a central rise of 4·0 m. The arch has hinges at the ends and at the crown. A train of two point loads of 20 kN and 10 kN, 5 m apart, crosses this arch from left to right, with the 20 kN load leading. The maximum thrust induced at the supports is

A
25·0 kN
B
28·13 kN
C
31·25 kN
D
32·81 kN

Question 97Single Answer

According to IS : 875 Part 3, the design wind speed acting on industrial roof is estimated based on the basic wind speed by multiplying it by factors K₁,K₂ andK₃, where K₁ is called

A
Risk coefficient
B
Structure size factor
C
Topography factor
D
Risk coefficient

Question 98Single Answer

Consider the following two statements regarding Bearing stiffeners provided at the location of a concentrated load:
1. Bearing stiffeners have to resist bearing and buckling loads.
2. Bearing area and the area resisting buckling load are the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
2 only
B
1 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 99Single Answer

In a plate girder, the web plate is connected to the flange plates by fillet welding. The size of the fillet welds is designed to safely resist

A
The bending stresses in the flange
B
The vertical shear force at the section
C
The horizontal shear force between the flanges and the web plate
D
The forces causing buckling in the web

Question 100Single Answer

A certain R.C. short column with 300 mm square cross-section is made of M 20 grade concrete and has 4 numbers, 20 mm diameter, longitudinal bars of Fe 415 grade steel. It is under the action of a concentric axial compressive load. Ignoring the reduction in the area of concrete due to the steel bars, the ultimate axial load carrying capacity of the column as by the relevant code is

A
1069 kN
B
1198 kN
C
1548kN
D
1659 kN

Logical Reasoning & Mental Ability

Question 101Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 102Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 103Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 104Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 105Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 106Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 107Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 108Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 109Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 110Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 111Single Answer

If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?

A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these

Question 112Single Answer

How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 113Single Answer

Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .

A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong

Question 114Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

Question 115Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 116Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 117Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 118Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 119Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 120Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 121Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 122Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 123Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 124Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 125Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

General Knowledge

Question 126Single Answer

Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?

A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar

Question 127Single Answer

What is active desktop ?

A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these

Question 128Single Answer

What is meant by an active window?

A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first

Question 129Single Answer

What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?

A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system

Question 130Single Answer

An application is

A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these

Question 131Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 132Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 133Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 134Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 135Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 136Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 137Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 138Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 139Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 140Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 141Single Answer

’National Health Authority’s Scan and Share Service’ was launched as part of which scheme ?

A
Swachh Bharat Mission
B
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
C
Mission Indradhanush
D
Janani Suraksha Yojana

Question 142Single Answer

Kaziranga National Park is located in which state ?

A
West Bengal
B
Assam
C
Odisha
D
Sikkim

Question 143Single Answer

Which country launched the ‘National Green Fiscal Incentives Policy Framework’ ?

A
USA
B
UAE
C
Australia
D
Kenya

Question 144Single Answer

Which state was ranked the top performer in the ‘Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Index 2022’ ?

A
West Bengal
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Karnataka
D
Madhya Pradesh

Question 145Single Answer

A mix of Fentanyl and animal tranquilizer called Xylazine, known as ‘Tranq Dope’ is causing concerns in which country ?

A
India
B
Sri Lanka
C
USA
D
China

Question 146Single Answer

49^th Pre-Retirement Counselling Workshop held in which city ?

A
Dehradun
B
Delhi
C
Chandigarh
D
Lucknow

Question 147Single Answer

For which movie Sam Elliott won Outstanding Performance by a Male Actor in a Television Movie in Screen Actors Guild Awards 2023 ?

A
George & Tammy
B
The Whale
C
1883
D
Ozark

Question 148Single Answer

Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi get the 13^th instalment of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sammaan Yojana ?

A
Kalaburgi
B
Vijayawada
C
Palakkad
D
Belagavi

Question 149Single Answer

Unique Identification Authority of India works under which ministry ?

A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Question 150Single Answer

Molasses Control Amendment Bill 2023 was passed by which state ?

A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Rajasthan
D
Odisha

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