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Latest PSSSB ADA Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Questions from the Subject, General Knowledge and Current Affairs, Punjab History and Culture, Logical Reasoning & Mental Ability, Punjabi, English, ICT
Question Bank PSSSB ADA Exam - English
Questions from the Subject
Q 1 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 2 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 3 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 4 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 5 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 6 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A.Original jurisdiction only
B.Appellate jurisdiction only
C.Advisory jurisdiction only
D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 7 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A.14 and 7
B.11 and 7
C.15 and 9
D.None of the above
Q 8 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A.Government of India Act, 1919
B.Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.None of the above
Q 9 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A.3 June, 1947
B.4 July, 1947
C.15 July, 1947
D.18 July, 1947
Q 10 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A.Simon Commission
B.Cripps Mission
C.Cabinet Mission Plan
D.The Mountbatten plan
Q 11 :
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
A.Lord Macaulay
B.Sir James F. Stephen
C.Huxley
D.Sir Henery Maine
Q 12 :
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
A.Lord Denning
B.A.V. Dicey
C.Lord Macaulay
D.J. F. Stephen
Q 13 :
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
A.Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
B.Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
C.The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
D.None of the above
Q 14 :
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
A.Substantive Law
B.Procedural Law
C.Substantive and Procedural Law
D.None of the above
Q 15 :
Law of evidence is
A.A substantive law
B.an adjective law
C.Both (A) and (B)
D.Neither (A) nor (B)
Q 16 :
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
A.Only civil proceedings
B.Only criminal proceedings
C.Civil and criminal Proceeding both
D.None of the above
Q 17 :
Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :
A.Not correct
B.Correct
C.Partly correct
D.None of the above
Q 18 :
Law of Evidence :
A.Retrospective
B.Effect the fundamental right of person
C.Always have prospective effect
D.Not a procedural law
Q 19 :
Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is
A.Lex Talionis
B.Lex Fori
C.Lex Loci
D.Lex Situ
Q 20 :
The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :
A.Law of the Land is Supreme
B.Law of Land
C.Local Laws
D.Law of England
Q 21 :
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
A.Only (i) is correct
B.Only (ii) is correct
C.Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
D.Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Q 22 :
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
A.Chapter VIII
B.Chapter IX
C.Chapter X
D.Chapter XI
Q 23 :
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
A.State of Tripura
B.State of Assam
C.State of Meghalya
D.State of Nagaland
Q 24 :
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
A.State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
B.Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
C.Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
D.State of Nagaland v. Chung
Q 25 :
What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
A.Municipal area of Shilong
B.Municipal area of Mizoram
C.Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
D.Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Q 26 :
Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 27 :
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?
A.On April 1, 1973
B.On April 1, 1974
C.On January 1, 1974
D.On March 1, 1974
Q 28 :
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?
A.25-12-1973
B.25-01-1974
C.25-02-1974
D.25-05-1974
Q 29 :
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :
A.21st July, 2005
B.23rd June, 2005
C.22nd August, 2005
D.20th September, 2005
Q 30 :
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on
A.6th April, 2013
B.3rd February, 2013
C.7th January, 2013
D.5th March, 2013
Q 31 :
What is the short title of the Act replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
B.Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
C.Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
D.Indian Evidence (Amendment) Act, 2023
Q 32 :
When did the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, receive presidential assent?
A.August 11, 2023
B.December 25, 2023
C.July 1, 2024
D.December 12, 2023
Q 33 :
When did the BSA, 2023, come into force?
A.January 1, 2024
B.December 25, 2023
C.July 1, 2024
D.August 11, 2023
Q 34 :
To which proceedings does the BSA, 2023, apply?
A.Only civil proceedings
B.Only criminal proceedings
C.All judicial proceedings, including court-martial
D.Only arbitration proceedings
Q 35 :
Which proceedings are excluded from the BSA’s application?
A.Criminal trials
B.Civil suits
C.Court-martial
D.Affidavits and arbitrations
Q 36 :
What is the official name of the legislation that replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A.Bharatiya Penal Code, 2023
B.Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
C.Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
D.Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Q 37 :
When did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 receive presidential assent?
A.August 11, 2023
B.December 12, 2023
C.December 25, 2023
D.July 1, 2024
Q 38 :
On which date did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 come into force?
A.December 25, 2023
B.January 1, 2024
C.July 1, 2024
D.August 15, 2024
Q 39 :
What is the primary purpose of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A.To regulate civil disputes
B.To consolidate and amend laws relating to offences
C.To reform tax laws
D.To update family laws
Q 40 :
How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 contain?
A.511
B.358
C.400
D.300
Q 41 :
The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 extends to?
A.Whole of India including Jammu & Kashmir
B.Whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir
C.Only metropolitan cities
D.Only rural areas
Q 42 :
When did the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 come into force?
A.1 January 1909
B.1 January 1908
C.1 January 1910
D.1 January 1911
Q 43 :
Which section of CPC defines “plaintiff” and “defendant”?
A.Section 4
B.Section 3
C.Section 2
D.Section 5
Q 44 :
The term “Court” under CPC means?
A.Civil Court only
B.Criminal Court only
C.Both civil and criminal courts
D.Administrative tribunal
Q 45 :
“Decree” under CPC means?
A.Formal expression of adjudication which conclusively determines rights of parties
B.Any order passed by court
C.Only interim order
D.None of the above
Q 46 :
Section 2(2) of CPC defines “judgment” as?
A.Court’s oral statement
B.Pronouncement of court expressing decision on matter
C.Only decree
D.Administrative order
Q 47 :
The term “pleader” under CPC refers to?
A.Only a lawyer
B.Only government officer
C.Any litigant
D.Person allowed to act before court for parties
Q 48 :
Section 3 of CPC deals with?
A.Courts to try all civil suits unless barred
B.Transfer of suits
C.Execution of decrees
D.Temporary injunctions
Q 49 :
Which suits cannot be tried by Civil Courts as per Section 9?
A.Suits relating to property
B.Suits relating to marriage
C.Suits barred by any law
D.Suits relating to contracts
Q 50 :
Section 10 CPC deals with?
A.Stay of suit in case of pending another suit
B.Res judicata
C.Execution of decrees
D.Court fees
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Which authority under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sahita, 2023 has the power to issue a proclamation for a person absconding from justice?
A.Judicial Magistrate
B.Sessions Court
C.Executive Magistrate
D.District Collector
Q 52 :
Under BNSS, which procedure must generally be followed before conducting a personal search of an arrested female?
A.Search by any police officer in the presence of witnesses
B.Search only after court permission
C.Search only during daytime
D.Search by another female with strict regard to decency
Q 53 :
Which provision under BNSS emphasizes the use of electronic communication and digital records in criminal proceedings?
A.Preventive detention provision
B.Revenue recovery provision
C.Digital evidence recognition provision
D.Administrative tribunal provision
Q 54 :
Which officer is empowered to investigate cognizable offences without prior approval from a Magistrate under BNSS?
A.Revenue Officer
B.Public Prosecutor
C.District Judge
D.Police Officer in charge of a police station
Q 55 :
Under BNSS, what is the primary object of granting anticipatory bail?
A.To protect individuals from unnecessary arrest
B.To secure attendance in civil disputes
C.To punish habitual offenders
D.To increase police custody duration
Q 56 :
Under the Punjab Excise Act, 1914, which authority is primarily empowered to regulate the manufacture and sale of intoxicants?
A.District Collector alone
B.Panchayat Committee
C.Municipal Corporation
D.Excise Commissioner
Q 57 :
Which activity generally requires a valid license under the Punjab Excise Act, 1914?
A.Agricultural cultivation only
B.Educational administration
C.Manufacture and sale of liquor
D.Transport of food grains
Q 58 :
Under the Punjab Excise Act, 1914, what is the primary purpose of imposing excise duty?
A.Regulation and revenue collection on intoxicants
B.Promotion of foreign trade
C.Agricultural subsidy distribution
D.Judicial administration
Q 59 :
Which officer under the Punjab Excise Act has authority to inspect licensed premises?
A.Block Development Officer
B.Revenue Patwari
C.Excise Officer
D.Civil Judge
Q 60 :
Under the Punjab Excise Act, 1914, which term generally refers to alcoholic substances fit for human consumption?
A.Intoxicant
B.Narcotic
C.Fertilizer
D.Solvent
Q 61 :
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, which term refers to any information generated, sent, received, or stored in electronic form?
A.Digital archive
B.Electronic record
C.Virtual asset
D.Cyber registry
Q 62 :
Which authority under the Information Technology Act is empowered to issue Digital Signature Certificates?
A.Cyber Appellate Tribunal
B.National Informatics Centre
C.Certifying Authority
D.Data Protection Board
Q 63 :
Which cyber offence involves unauthorized access to a computer system with malicious intent?
A.Cyber trespass
B.Packet routing
C.Data mirroring
D.Hacking
Q 64 :
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, which section primarily deals with punishment for identity theft?
A.Section 66C
B.Section 43
C.Section 72
D.Section 79
Q 65 :
Which concept under cyber law ensures that electronic records cannot be denied legal validity merely because they are electronic?
A.Digital neutrality principle
B.Cyber immunity doctrine
C.Electronic governance recognition
D.Virtual sovereignty principle
Q 66 :
Under the Prevention of Damage to Public and Private Property Act, 2014, what is the primary objective of the legislation?
A.Promotion of commercial construction
B.Control of industrial licensing
C.Regulation of agricultural markets
D.Prevention of destruction and defacement of property
Q 67 :
Which category of property is protected under the Prevention of Damage to Public and Private Property Act, 2014?
A.Both public and private property
B.Private property only
C.Government property only
D.Religious property only
Q 68 :
Under the Act, which action generally constitutes damage to property?
A.Destruction, defacement, or misuse causing loss
B.Authorized renovation work
C.Lawful maintenance activity
D.Registered transfer of ownership
Q 69 :
Which authority is generally empowered to investigate offences under the Prevention of Damage to Public and Private Property Act, 2014?
A.Commercial tax officer
B.Election Commission
C.Panchayat secretary only
D.Police authorities
Q 70 :
Under the Act, which public asset may fall within the meaning of protected public property?
A.Personal household furniture only
B.Public transport infrastructure
C.Private bank lockers only
D.Agricultural produce exclusively
Q 71 :
Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, which category of persons primarily falls within the definition of “public servant”?
A.Agricultural labourers exclusively
B.Private household employees only
C.Government officials performing public duties
D.Independent traders only
Q 72 :
Which conduct constitutes an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
A.Compliance with departmental procedures
B.Performance of lawful public duty
C.Submission of official reports
D.Acceptance of undue advantage for official favour
Q 73 :
Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, which term is commonly used for illegal gratification received by a public servant?
A.Administrative fee
B.Revenue collection
C.Undue advantage
D.Judicial deposit
Q 74 :
Which authority is generally empowered to investigate offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
A.Authorized anti-corruption agency or police officer
B.Municipal sanitation officer
C.Election polling officer
D.Panchayat librarian
Q 75 :
Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, which principle is promoted through anti-corruption laws?
A.Encouragement of favouritism
B.Immunity for misuse of office
C.Elimination of accountability
D.Integrity in public administration
Q 76 :
Which Punjabi legal term is used for “Mutation” in revenue records?
A.ਇੰਤਕਾਲ
B.ਜਮਾਬੰਦੀ
C.ਖਸਰਾ
D.ਗਿਰਦਾਵਰੀ
Q 77 :
Which Punjabi revenue term refers to the record of cultivation inspection?
A.ਫਰਦ
B.ਰਜਿਸਟਰੀ
C.ਪਰਵਾਨਾ
D.ਗਿਰਦਾਵਰੀ
Q 78 :
Which Punjabi legal term is commonly used for “Registry” of property?
A.ਤਹਿਸੀਲ
B.ਰਜਿਸਟਰੀ
C.ਵਾਰੰਟ
D.ਦਰਖ਼ਾਸਤ
Q 79 :
Which Punjabi revenue term denotes a village revenue officer’s jurisdiction?
A.ਹੱਦਬੰਦੀ
B.ਕਬਜ਼ਾ
C.ਮੁਕੱਦਮਾ
D.ਪਟਵਾਰ ਸਰਕਲ
Q 80 :
Which Punjabi legal term means “Possession” of land or property?
A.ਬਿਆਨ
B.ਹਲਫਨਾਮਾ
C.ਦਸਤਾਵੇਜ਼
D.ਕਬਜ਼ਾ
General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Q 81 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 82 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 83 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 84 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 85 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 86 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 87 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 88 :
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A.New planet in solar system
B.Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C.Black hole merger
D.Exoplanet with life signs
Q 89 :
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A.15 March
B.20 March
C.22 March
D.25 March
Q 90 :
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A.Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B.Atal Tunnel
C.Noida International Airport
D.Chenab Bridge
Punjab History and Culture
Q 91 :
What does the term 'Punjab' literally mean in Persian?
The term 'Punj-aab' (Punjab) is derived from which language?
A.Sanskrit
B.Greek
C.Persian
D.Latin
Q 95 :
The Persian Emperor who first annexed parts of Punjab was?
A.Cyrus
B.Xerxes
C.Cambyses
D.Darius I
Logical Reasoning & Mental Ability
Q 96 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 97 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 98 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 99 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 100 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 101 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 102 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 103 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 104 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 105 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Punjabi
Q 106 :
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਗਲਤ ਹੈ? (Which word is incorrect?)
A. ਕਿਤਾਬ (kitab)
B. ਪੰਨਾ (panna)
C. ਬੇਤਾ (beta)
D. ਗਰੰਮ (garam)
Q 107 :
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਪੰਜਾਬੀ ਵਿਚ "ਮਾਤਰ" ਦਾ ਸਮਾਨ ਹੈ? (Which word is equivalent to "mother" in Punjabi?)
A. ਪਿਓ (pio)
B. ਮਾਂ (maan)
C. ਬਾਪੂ (baapu)
D. ਬੇਟਾ (beta)
Q 108 :
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਵਿਚਾਰਕ ਨੰਬਰ ਹੈ? (Which word is a numeral?)
A. ਫੁਲ (phul)
B. ਕੁੜੀ (kudi)
C. ਪੰਨੀ (panni)
D. ਦੋ (do)
Q 109 :
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਦੇ ਮੁਲਾਂਕਣ ਦੀ ਕਿਸੇ ਗਿਆਨੀ ਜਾਂ ਮਾਨਸਿਕ ਸਿਖਲੇ ਵਾਲੇ ਵਾਲੇ ਵਿਚਾਰ ਨੰਬਰ ਨਾਲ ਸੋਂਪਿਆ ਜਾ ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ? (Which word can be associated with a philosophical or intellectual concept?)
A. ਆਲਸੀ (aalsi)
B. ਅਕਲੀ (akali)
C. ਖੁਸ਼ (khush)
D. ਛੋਟਾ (chhota)
Q 110 :
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਕਿਸਮਾਂ ਦਾ ਹੈ? (Which word belongs to the category of animals?)
A. ਪੰਛੀ (panchhi)
B. ਫੁਲ (phul)
C. ਖੇਤ (khet)
D. ਗੁੱਸ (gus)
English
Q 111 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 112 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 113 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 114 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 115 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
ICT
Q 116 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 117 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 118 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 119 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 120 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
