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PSTCL ASSA Exam - English

Duration: 180 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150 · Language: 3

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Punjabi Language

1
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਗਲਤ ਹੈ? (Which word is incorrect?)
  1. A. ਕਿਤਾਬ (kitab)
  2. B. ਪੰਨਾ (panna)
  3. C. ਬੇਤਾ (beta)
  4. D. ਗਰੰਮ (garam)
2
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਪੰਜਾਬੀ ਵਿਚ "ਮਾਤਰ" ਦਾ ਸਮਾਨ ਹੈ? (Which word is equivalent to "mother" in Punjabi?)
  1. A. ਪਿਓ (pio)
  2. B. ਮਾਂ (maan)
  3. C. ਬਾਪੂ (baapu)
  4. D. ਬੇਟਾ (beta)
3
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਵਿਚਾਰਕ ਨੰਬਰ ਹੈ? (Which word is a numeral?)
  1. A. ਫੁਲ (phul)
  2. B. ਕੁੜੀ (kudi)
  3. C. ਪੰਨੀ (panni)
  4. D. ਦੋ (do)
4
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਦੇ ਮੁਲਾਂਕਣ ਦੀ ਕਿਸੇ ਗਿਆਨੀ ਜਾਂ ਮਾਨਸਿਕ ਸਿਖਲੇ ਵਾਲੇ ਵਾਲੇ ਵਿਚਾਰ ਨੰਬਰ ਨਾਲ ਸੋਂਪਿਆ ਜਾ ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ? (Which word can be associated with a philosophical or intellectual concept?)
  1. A. ਆਲਸੀ (aalsi)
  2. B. ਅਕਲੀ (akali)
  3. C. ਖੁਸ਼ (khush)
  4. D. ਛੋਟਾ (chhota)
5
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਕਿਸਮਾਂ ਦਾ ਹੈ? (Which word belongs to the category of animals?)
  1. A. ਪੰਛੀ (panchhi)
  2. B. ਫੁਲ (phul)
  3. C. ਖੇਤ (khet)
  4. D. ਗੁੱਸ (gus)
6
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਨੂੰ ਇਸਤੇਮਾਲ ਕਰਕੇ ਇੱਕ ਸਮਲੈੱਂਗਕ ਵਾਕ ਬਣਾਉਣ ਦਾ ਪ੍ਰਯਾਸ ਨਾ ਕਰੋ? (Which word should not be used to form a gender-neutral sentence?)
  1. A. ਸਿੱਖ (sikh)
  2. B. ਮਾਂ (maan)
  3. C. ਪੜਿਆ (parhia)
  4. D. ਖਿੱਚ (khich)
7
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਵਿਚਾਰਕ ਨੰਬਰ ਹੈ? (Which word is an adjective?)
  1. A. ਕਿਤਾਬ (kitab)
  2. B. ਵੱਡਾ (vadda)
  3. C. ਖੁਸ਼ (khush)
  4. D. ਮਾਂ (maan)
8
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਨੂੰ ਇਸਤੇਮਾਲ ਕਰਕੇ ਇੱਕ ਗਾਣਾ ਦੀ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵਾਲੀ ਬਿਲਡਿੰਗ ਬਾਰੇ ਗੀਤ ਬਣਾ ਸਕਦੇ ਹੋ? (Which word can be used to create a song about a government building?)
  1. A. ਮੰਦਿਰ (mandir)
  2. B. ਬਾਗ (bag)
  3. C. ਮੰਝਾ (manja)
  4. D. ਸਰਕਾਰ (sarkar)
9
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਪ੍ਰਿਆ ਕਾਰਣ ਦੀ ਕਿਸਮ ਦਾ ਹੈ? (Which word belongs to the category of emotions?)
  1. A. ਕਾਮ (kaam)
  2. B. ਖੁਸ਼ (khush)
  3. C. ਮਾਂ (maan)
  4. D. ਦੋਖ (dokh)
10
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਦੇ ਮੁਲਾਂਕਣ ਦੀ ਕਿਸੇ ਸੁੰਦਰ ਫੁਲ ਨੂੰ ਦਰਸਾਉਣ ਲਈ ਵਰਤਿਆ ਜਾ ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ? (Which word can be used to describe a beautiful flower?)
  1. A. ਪੰਨੀ (panni)
  2. B. ਮੱਛੀ (machi)
  3. C. ਸੰਦਲ (sandal)
  4. D. ਗੁੱਸ (gus)
11
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਖੇਡ ਦੇ ਸੰਬੰਧ ਵਿਚ ਸਹੀ ਹੈ? (Which word is related to sports?)
  1. A. ਪਰੀ (pari)
  2. B. ਖਾਣਾ (khana)
  3. C. ਦਫ਼ਤਰ (daftar)
  4. D. ਖਿਡਾਰੀ (khidari)
12
ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਵਿਚਾਰਕ ਨੰਬਰ ਹੈ? (Which word is a preposition?)
  1. A. ਗਾਣਾ (gana)
  2. B. ਸਿੱਖਣਾ (sikhna)
  3. C. ਪਿੰਡ (pind)
  4. D. ਦੇ (de)
13
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਨੂੰ ਇਸਤੇਮਾਲ ਕਰਕੇ ਸ਼ੇਰ ਦੇ ਬਾਰੇ ਕੋਈ ਸੁਣਦਰ ਕਹਾਣੀ ਲਿਖ ਸਕਦੇ ਹੋ? (Which word can be used to write a beautiful story about a lion?)
  1. A. ਪੰਖ (pankh)
  2. B. ਮੁਰਗਾ (murga)
  3. C. ਸ਼ੇਰ (sher)
  4. D. ਪੱਖੀ (pakhi)
14
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਪ੍ਰਾਣੀ ਦੇ ਸੰਬੰਧ ਵਿਚ ਸਹੀ ਹੈ? (Which word is related to animals?)
  1. A. ਕਿਤਾਬ (kitab)
  2. B. ਸੜਕ (sarak)
  3. C. ਬੇਤਾ (beta)
  4. D. ਬਚਾ (bacha)
15
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਗੁਰਮੁਖੀ ਵਰਣਮਾਲਾ ਦਾ ਹਿੱਸਾ ਹੈ? (Which word is part of the Gurmukhi alphabet?)
  1. A. ਕੁੜੀ (kudi)
  2. B. ਪੰਨਾ (panna)
  3. C. ਨੰਬਰ (number)
  4. D. ਖੁਸ਼ (khush)
16
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਸ਼ਾਸਤ੍ਰ ਦੇ ਸੰਬੰਧ ਵਿਚ ਸਹੀ ਹੈ? (Which word is related to science?)
  1. A. ਬਚਾ (bacha)
  2. B. ਗੁਰੂ (guru)
  3. C. ਵਿਗਿਆਨ (vigyan)
  4. D. ਮੰਦਿਰ (mandir)
17
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਪੰਜਾਬੀ ਵਿਚ "ਪਿੰਡ" ਦਾ ਸਮਾਨ ਹੈ? (Which word is equivalent to "village" in Punjabi?)
  1. A. ਸ਼ਹਿਰ (shahr)
  2. B. ਗਾਂਵ (gaav)
  3. C. ਮੇਲਾ (mela)
  4. D. ਪੰਛੀ (panchhi)
18
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਨੂੰ ਇਸਤੇਮਾਲ ਕਰਕੇ ਕਿਸੇ ਪੰਜਾਬੀ ਸੰਗੀਤ ਦਾ ਬੋਲਚਾਲ ਸਥਿਤੀ ਦਾ ਵਰਣਨ ਕਰ ਸਕਦੇ ਹੋ? (Which word can be used to describe a Punjabi music performance situation?)
  1. A. ਜੰਗਲ (jangal)
  2. B. ਸ਼ਾਦੀ (shaadi)
  3. C. ਸੰਗੀਤ (sangeet)
  4. D. ਗਿਆਨੀ (gyani)
19
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਪੰਜਾਬੀ ਖਾਣੇ ਦੇ ਸੰਬੰਧ ਵਿਚ ਸਹੀ ਹੈ? (Which word is related to Punjabi cuisine?)
  1. A. ਸਕੂਲ (school)
  2. B. ਰੋਟੀ (roti)
  3. C. ਬੱਚਾ (bachha)
  4. D. ਤਰਲੀ (tarli)
20
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਦੇ ਮੁਲਾਂਕਣ ਦੀ ਕਿਸੇ ਫ਼ਿਲਮ ਦੇ ਬਾਰੇ ਵਿਚ ਹੋ ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ? (Which word can be used to describe a film?)
  1. A. ਪੰਨਾ (panna)
  2. B. ਚੀਰ (cheer)
  3. C. ਮੁਲਾਂਕਣ (mulankana)
  4. D. ਫ਼ਿਲਮ (film)
21
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਵਿਚਾਰਕ ਨੰਬਰ ਹੈ? (Which word is an adverb?)
  1. A. ਕੁੜੀ (kudi)
  2. B. ਹਰ ਵੇਲ (har vel)
  3. C. ਬੱਚਾ (bachha)
  4. D. ਪੰਨਾ (panna)
22
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਵਿਚਾਰਕ ਨੰਬਰ ਹੈ? (Which word is a pronoun?)
  1. A. ਮਾਂ (maan)
  2. B. ਉਸ (us)
  3. C. ਗਾਣਾ (gaana)
  4. D. ਪੰਛੀ (panchhi)
23
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਨੂੰ ਇਸਤੇਮਾਲ ਕਰਕੇ ਇੱਕ ਦੇਸ਼ ਦੇ ਬਾਰੇ ਗੀਤ ਲਿਖਣ ਵਿਚ ਕੋਈ ਸਰਕਾਰੀ ਹਵਾਲਾ ਨਾ ਦਿਓ? (Which word should not be used to write a song about a country without any government reference?)
  1. A. ਮੁਲਾਂਕਣ (mulankana)
  2. B. ਸ਼ੇਰ (sher)
  3. C. ਦੇਸ਼ (desh)
  4. D. ਸਰਕਾਰ (sarkar)
24
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇ ਸਿਖ ਧਰਮ ਦੇ ਸੰਬੰਧ ਵਿਚ ਸਹੀ ਹੈ? (Which word is related to the Sikh religion of Guru Nanak?)
  1. A. ਖੇਤ (khet)
  2. B. ਸ਼ਾਹ (shah)
  3. C. ਗੁਰੂ (guru)
  4. D. ਸਿੱਖ (sikh)
25
ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਬੱਚੇ ਦੇ ਸੰਬੰਧ ਵਿਚ ਸਹੀ ਹੈ? (Which word is related to a child?)
  1. A. ਪੁਸ਼ਪ (pushp)
  2. B. ਜਵਾਨ (jawan)
  3. C. ਮੁੰਡਾ (munda)
  4. D. ਤਰਲੀ (tarli)
26
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦਾ ਜਨਮ ਕਿੱਥੇ ਹੋਇਆ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਅੰਮ੍ਰਿਤਸਰ
  2. B. ਤਲਵੰਡੀ
  3. C. ਪਟਨਾ
  4. D. ਦਿੱਲੀ
27
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦੇ ਪਿਤਾ ਦਾ ਨਾਮ ਕੀ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਕਾਲੂ ਚੰਦ
  2. B. ਮੇਹਰ ਚੰਦ
  3. C. ਸੂਰ ਚੰਦ
  4. D. ਲਾਲ ਚੰਦ
28
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦੀ ਵਧੀਕ ਕਿੱਥੇ ਹੋਈ ?
  1. A. ਕਰਤਾਰਪੁਰ
  2. B. ਪਟਨਾ
  3. C. ਅੰਮ੍ਰਿਤਸਰ
  4. D. ਬਟਾਲਾ
29
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦੇ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਭਾਈ ਸਾਥੀ ਨਾਲ ਭਾਵਨਾ ਦੀ ਘਾਹ ਕੱਟਣ ਵਾਲੀ ਕਥਾ ਸਬੰਧਿਤ ਹੈ ?
  1. A. ਮਰਦਾਨਾ
  2. B. ਬਾਲਾ
  3. C. ਲਹਨਾ
  4. D. ਗੁਰਦਾਸ
30
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸਿਧਾਂਤ ਸਿਖਿਆ ?
  1. A. ਤਿੰਨ ਪੰਥ
  2. B. ਨਾਮ ਜਪੋ, ਕਿਰਤ ਕਰੋ, ਵੰਡ ਛਕੋ
  3. C. ਕਲਾ ਅਤੇ ਸੰਗੀਤ
  4. D. ਯੋਧਾ ਬਣੋ
31
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਕਿਹੜੀ ਭੂਮਿਕਾ ਨਿਭਾਈ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਰਾਜਾ
  2. B. ਗੁਰੁ, ਸੰਤ, ਅਤੇ ਰਿਸ਼ੀ
  3. C. ਰਸੂਲ
  4. D. ਜਨਰਲ
32
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਆਪਣਾ ਪਹਿਲਾ ਉਪਦੇਸ਼ ਕਿੱਥੇ ਦਿੱਤਾ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਹਿਮਾਲਿਆ
  2. B. ਕਰਤਾਰਪੁਰ
  3. C. ਹਰਮੰਦਰ ਸਾਹਿਬ
  4. D. ਸਾਧੂਆਂ ਦੇ ਦਰਬਾਰ
33
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਕਿਹੜੀ ਭਾਸ਼ਾ ਵਿੱਚ ਬਾਣੀ ਰਚੀ ?
  1. A. ਸੰਸਕ੍ਰਿਤ
  2. B. ਪੰਜਾਬੀ
  3. C. ਹਿੰਦੀ
  4. D. ਫਾਰਸੀ
34
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦੀਆਂ ਰਚਨਾਵਾਂ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਗ੍ਰੰਥ ਵਿੱਚ ਸੰਗ੍ਰਹੀਤ ਹਨ ?
  1. A. ਬਚਿਤਰ ਨਾਟਕ
  2. B.` ਸ੍ਰੀ ਗੁਰੂ ਗ੍ਰੰਥ ਸਾਹਿਬ
  3. C. ਆਦਿ ਗ੍ਰੰਥ
  4. D. ਦਸਮ ਗ੍ਰੰਥ
35
ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦੇ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਪ੍ਰਸਿੱਧ ਸਾਥੀ ਸੰਗੀ ਨੇ ਰਬਾਬ ਵਜਾਈ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਭਾਈ ਮਰਦਾਨਾ
  2. B. ਭਾਈ ਬਾਲਾ
  3. C. ਭਾਈ ਲਹਨਾ
  4. D. ਭਾਈ ਗੁਰਦਾਸ
36
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦਾ ਜਨਮ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸਾਲ ਵਿੱਚ ਹੋਇਆ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. 1504
  2. B. 1508
  3. C. 1500
  4. D.` 1503
37
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦਾ ਮੁਲ ਨਾਂ ਕੀ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਲਹਨਾ
  2. B. ਅਮਰਦਾਸ
  3. C. ਰਾਮਦਾਸ
  4. D. ਮਰਦਾਨਾ
38
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੂੰ ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਤੋਂ ਗੁਰੂ ਗੱਦੀ ਕਦੋਂ ਪ੍ਰਾਪਤ ਹੋਈ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. 1535
  2. B. 1539
  3. C. 1526
  4. D. 1540
39
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦਾ ਜਨਮ ਕਿੱਥੇ ਹੋਇਆ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਸਰੀ ਹਰੀ ਗੋਬਿੰਦਪੁਰ
  2. B. ਮਕੁਹੇ
  3. C. ਮਥੁਰਾ
  4. D. ਸਿੰਧ
40
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਸਿੱਖ ਧਰਮ ਨੂੰ ਕਿਹੜੀ ਸਿੱਧਾਂਤ ਸਿੱਖਾਈ ?
  1. A. ਹਿੰਸਾ
  2. B. ਸੇਵਾ
  3. C. ਧਨ ਇਕੱਠਾ ਕਰਨਾ
  4. D. ਯਾਤ੍ਰਾ
41
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਕਿਹੜੀ ਭਾਸ਼ਾ ਦੀ ਸਹੂਲਤ ਲਈ ਲਿਪੀ ਦਾ ਵਿਕਾਸ ਕੀਤਾ ?
  1. A. ਗੁਰਮੁਖੀ
  2. B. ਫਾਰਸੀ
  3. C. ਸੰਸਕ੍ਰਿਤ
  4. D. ਬ੍ਰਜ
42
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਕਿਹੜੀ ਪ੍ਰਸਿੱਧ ਸੰਸਥਾ ਸਥਾਪਿਤ ਕੀਤੀ ?
  1. A. ਮਨੀ ਦੇਵ ਸੰਥਾ
  2. B. ਲੰਗਰ ਪ੍ਰਥਾ
  3. C. ਸਿੰਘ ਸਭਾ
  4. D. ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਪ੍ਰਕਾਸ਼
43
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦੇ ਜੀਵਨ ਦੇ ਅੰਤ ਸਮੇਂ ਗੱਦੀ ਕਿਸ ਨੂੰ ਸੌਂਪੀ ?
  1. A. ਗੁਰੂ ਅਮਰਦਾਸ ਜੀ
  2. B. ਗੁਰੂ ਰਾਮਦਾਸ ਜੀ
  3. C. ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਜੀ
  4. D. ਭਾਈ ਮਰਦਾਨਾ
44
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਬੱਚਿਆਂ ਦੀ ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਲਈ ਕੀ ਕਾਰਜ ਕੀਤਾ ?
  1. A. ਧਰਮਕ ਸਟੋਰ
  2. B. ਮੱਕੀ ਦੀ ਸਿੱਖਿਆ
  3. C. ਸਕੂਲ ਸਥਾਪਨਾ
  4. D. ਸੇਵਕ ਪ੍ਰਬੰਧ
45
ਗੁਰੂ ਅੰਗਦ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਗੁਰੂ ਨਾਨਕ ਦੇਵ ਜੀ ਦੀਆਂ ਰਚਨਾਵਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਕਿਵੇਂ ਸੰਗ੍ਰਹਿਤ ਕੀਤਾ ?
  1. A. ਪੁਸਤਕਾਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਲਿਖ ਕੇ
  2. B. ਮੈਮੋਰੀ ਵਿੱਚ ਰੱਖ ਕੇ
  3. C. ਫਾਰਸੀ ਵਿੱਚ ਲਿਖ ਕੇ
  4. D. ਗੁਰਮੁਖੀ ਵਿੱਚ ਲਿਖ ਕੇ
46
ਗੁਰੂ ਰਾਮਦਾਸ ਜੀ ਦਾ ਜਨਮ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸਾਲ ਵਿੱਚ ਹੋਇਆ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. 1534
  2. B. 1524
  3. C. 1504
  4. D. 1540
47
ਗੁਰੂ ਰਾਮਦਾਸ ਜੀ ਦਾ ਮੁਲ ਨਾਂ ਕੀ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਲਹਨਾ
  2. B. ਜੈਠਾ
  3. C. ਹਰਿ ਦਾਸ
  4. D. ਅਰਜਨ
48
ਗੁਰੂ ਰਾਮਦਾਸ ਜੀ ਦਾ ਜਨਮ ਕਿੱਥੇ ਹੋਇਆ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਲਹੌਰ
  2. B. ਚੁਨਾ ਮੰਡੀ
  3. C. ਮਟਟੇ ਦੀ ਸਰਨ
  4. D. ਅੰਮ੍ਰਿਤਸਰ
49
ਗੁਰੂ ਰਾਮਦਾਸ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸ਼ਹਿਰ ਸਥਾਪਿਤ ਕੀਤਾ ?
  1. A. ਅੰਮ੍ਰਿਤਸਰ
  2. B. ਕਰਤਾਰਪੁਰ
  3. C. ਅਨੰਦਪੁਰ
  4. D. ਪਟਨਾ
50
ਗੁਰੂ ਰਾਮਦਾਸ ਜੀ ਦੇ ਪਿਤਾ ਦਾ ਨਾਮ ਕੀ ਸੀ ?
  1. A. ਤੀਰਥ ਮਲ
  2. B. ਕਾਲੂ
  3. C. ਰਾਮਦਾਸ
  4. D. ਪਾਰੋ
51
Which of the following is a noun?
  1. A.Quickly
  2. B.Run
  3. C.Beautiful
  4. D.Happiness
52
Identify the pronoun in the sentence: “She is reading a book.”
  1. A.She
  2. B.Reading
  3. C.Book
  4. D.Is
53
Which of the following is a verb?
  1. A.Quickly
  2. B.Tall
  3. C.Dance
  4. D.Happiness
54
The comparative degree of “good” is?
  1. A.Goodest
  2. B.Best
  3. C.Better
  4. D.More good
55
Which one is an adjective?
  1. A.Run
  2. B.Jump
  3. C.Blue
  4. D.Slowly

Electrical

1
When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its conductivity will 
  1. A.increase
  2. B. decrease
  3. C.remain the same 
  4. D.increase or decrease depending on the impurity
2
An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its outermost shell. The materials made of such atom is
  1. A.a conductor
  2. B.an insulator
  3. C.a semiconductor 
  4. D.a superconductor
3
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a doped semiconductor is
  1. A.always positive
  2. B.always negative
  3. C.zero 
  4. D.positive or negative depending upon the level of doping 
4
In the slice processing of an integrated circuit
  1. A.components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide remains
  2. B.components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide has been removed
  3. C.the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon dioxide 
  4. D.only on diffusion process is used 
5
Permanent magnet loses the magnetic behaviour when heated because of
1. atomic vibration
2. dipole vibration
3. realignment of dipoles
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.1  and 2 only 
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3         
  4. D.2 and 3
6
A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140  and 10k  The maximum resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be
  1. A.3.3
  2. B.6.6
  3. C.36.6
  4. D.93.3
7
A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decreases
3. current to increase
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.2  and 3 
  2. B.2 and 4
  3. C.1 and 4 
  4. D.1 and 3 
8
An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm2 and length l = 100 cm. The value of its inductance is
  1. A.0.425 mH          
  2. B.0.628 mH
  3. C.0.751 mH 
  4. D.0.904 mH
9
The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is
  1. A.0.5 H 
  2. B.1 H
  3. C.2 H       
  4. D.4 H 
10
In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4A to zero in 10 s.  A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance between the coils is
  1. A.100 H 
  2. B.10 H
  3. C.0.1 H 
  4. D.0.01 H 
11
A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has
  1. A.Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band
  2. B.Only one path for holes in the conduction band
  3. C.Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively 
  4. D.Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively 
12
Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?
  1. A.Monostablemultivibrator
  2. B.Bistablemultivibrator
  3. C.Schmitt trigger circuit 
  4. D.Darlington complementary pair
13
Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm’s law ?
  1. A.Capacitors
  2. B.​Inductors
  3. C.Transistors
  4. D.Resistance
14
Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1  and 2 only 
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only 
  4. D.1, 2 and 3 
15
Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is
  1. A.71 dB 
  2. B.82 dB 
  3. C.91 dB 
  4. D.102 dB 
16
If a square matrix of order 100 has exactly 15 distinct eigenvalues, then the degree of the minimum polynomial is 
  1. A.At least 15 
  2. B.At most 15 
  3. C.Always 15 
  4. D.Exactly 100
17
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the core shall be of 
  1. A.Ferrite 
  2. B.Piezoelectric 
  3. C.Pyroelectric 
  4. D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
18
Soft magnetic materials should have 
  1. A.Large saturation magnetization and large permeability 
  2. B.Low saturation magnetization and large permeability 
  3. C.Large saturation magnetization and low permeability 
  4. D.Low saturation magnetization and low permeability 
19
Orbital magnetic moment of an electron, in an atom, is of the order of 
  1. A.0.1 Bohr magneton 
  2. B.1.0 Bohr magneton 
  3. C.10 Bohr magneton 
  4. D.100 Bohr magneton
20
When the temperature of a ferromagnetic material exceeds the Curie temperature, it behaves similar to a 
  1. A.Diamagnetic material 
  2. B.Ferrimagnetic material 
  3. C.Paramagnetic material 
  4. D. Antiferromagnetic material
21
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

                 
  1. A.0.8 Ω
  2. B.1.4 Ω
  3. C.2 Ω
  4. D.2.8 Ω
22
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
  1. A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
  2. B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
  3. C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
  4. D.7.0 × 1012 m3
23
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
  1. A.9.2 × 105/m3
  2. B.2.77 × 103/m3
  3. C.2.43 × 1019/m3
  4. D.8.9 × 1012/m3
24
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
  1. A.By the mobility of the carriers
  2. B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
  3. C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
  4. D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
25
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
  1. A.Parallel polarized
  2. B.Perpendicularly polarized
  3. C.Normally polarized
  4. D.None of the above
26
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
  1. A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
  2. B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
  3. C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
  4. D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
27
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
  1. A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
  2. B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
  3. C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
  4. D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
28
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
  1. A.High stiffness and strengths
  2. B.Low densities
  3. C.Unusual electrical property
  4. D.Non-ductile
29
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
  1. A.Meissner effect
  2. B.Josephson effect
  3. C.Isotope effect
  4. D.x quantization experiments
30
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
  1. A.Phenol formaldehyde
  2. B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
  3. C.Polyvinyl chloride
  4. D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
31
Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of
  1. A.Air blast CB
  2. B.Bulk oil CB
  3. C.Minimum oil CB
  4. D.All types of CB
32
By transmitting power at high voltage
  1. A.it will give poor voltage regulation
  2. B.it will give better voltage regulation
  3. C.it will not effect voltage regulation
  4. D.None of these
33
Which statement about the daily load curve is valid ?
  1. A.The area under the curve gives the average demand
  2. B.The ratio of the area under the curves to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained gives the load factor for the day
  3. C.The peak of the curve gives the installed capacity of the plant
  4. D.The area of the curves divided by the number of hours gives load factor
34
High voltage Schring bridge is used to measure
  1. A.large capacitance without additional element
  2. B.small capacitance without additional element
  3. C.medium value capacitance
  4. D.None of these
35
Draw - in - system of laying underground cables has the drawback (s) of
  1. A.higher cost
  2. B.reduced current carrying capacity of the cables
  3. C.requirements of much deeper and wider trenches
  4. D.repairs, alterations or additions difficult
  5. E.all of the above except
36
Surge impedance of a transmission line is
  1. A.independent of its length
  2. B.dependent on its length
  3. C.independent on its temperature
  4. D.none of the above
37
If two synchronous generators connected in parallel loose synchronism, it will lead to
  1. A.stalling of generators
  2. B.wild fluctuations in current
  3. C.wild fluctuations in current and voltage
  4. D.None of these
38
A differential relay responds to
  1. A.algebraic difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
  2. B.vector difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
  3. C.algebraic difference between two currents
  4. D.algebraic difference between two voltages
39
The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. This phenomenon is called the
  1. A.Skin effect
  2. B.Corona
  3. C.Ferranti effect
  4. D.Lenz's effect
40
A booster is connected in
  1. A.series with the feeder
  2. B.parallel with the feeder
  3. C.both (a) and (b) are correct
  4. D.none of these
41
Fuses have got advantages of
  1. A.cheapest type of protection
  2. B.inverse time - current characteristic
  3. C.no maintenance
  4. D.current limiting effect under short - circuit conditions
  5. E.all of the above
42
The power transmitted will be maximum when
  1. A.line reactance is high
  2. B.corona losses are minimum
  3. C.sending end voltage is more
  4. D.receiving end voltage is more
43
The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load factor of the consumer is
  1. A.0.75
  2. B.0.375
  3. C.1.33
  4. D.None of these
44
In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided
  1. A.only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
  2. B.only the core loss is ignored
  3. C.both the leakage impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
  4. D.only the no - load copper loss is ignored
45
Which of the following techniques is used for the measurements of a.c. high frequency voltages ?
  1. A.Peak voltmeter
  2. B.Series resistance mircro - ammeter
  3. C.Resistance potential divider
  4. D.All of these
46
Use of additional shunt capacitor can be made for increasing the capability of line as it
  1. A.reduces surge impedance Z0
  2. B.increases phase shift β
  3. C.increase in α
  4. D.all of the above
47
The sag of a transmission line is least affected owing to
  1. A.weight of the conductor
  2. B.current through the conductor
  3. C.atmospheric temperature
  4. D.ice deposited on the conductor
48
In case of Impulse Thermal break down of solid insulating materials, the critical electric field is proportional to
  1. A.critical absolute temperature
  2. B.square of critical absolute temperature
  3. C.square of T0
  4. D.none of these
49
The insulation of the modern EHV lines is designed based on
  1. A.corona
  2. B.switching voltages
  3. C.lightning voltage
  4. D.all of these
50
For constant voltage transmission, the voltage drop along the line is maintained constant by installing
  1. A.capacitors
  2. B.inductors
  3. C.resistors
  4. D.synchronous phase modifiers at the receiving end

General Knowledge

1
From which language, the word 'Punjab' is taken ?
  1. A.Arabic
  2. B.Devanagari Script
  3. C.Gurmukhi Script
  4. D.Persian
2
What is the meaning of the word 'Punjab'  ?
  1. A.Land of 5 pyaras
  2. B.Land of 5 rivers
  3. C.Land of 5 Gurus
  4. D.Land of 5 Doabs
3
What is the total area of Punjab under forests ?
  1. A.3084 km2
  2. B.4218 km2
  3. C.2538 km2
  4. D.2323 km2
4
How many rivers were there in Sapta Sindhu ?
  1. A.9
  2. B.7
  3. C.8
  4. D.5
5
What is the meaning of 'Pentapotamia' ?
  1. A.Land of 2 rivers
  2. B.Land of 4 rivers
  3. C.Land of 7 rivers
  4. D.Land of 5 rivers
6
In which direction of Punjab are the Himalayan Mountains situated ?
  1. A.East
  2. B.West
  3. C.North
  4. D.Both (a) and (c)
7
Geographically, the land of Punjab is divided into how many parts ?
  1. A.2
  2. B.3
  3. C.4
  4. D.5
8
From which language, the word 'Doab' is taken ?
  1. A.Arabic
  2. B.Persian
  3. C.Punjabi
  4. D.Devanagari
9
What do you mean by Doab ?
  1. A.The area between 2 cities
  2. B.Land of rivers
  3. C.Region between two rivers
  4. D.None of the above
10
What is meant by 'ab' ?
  1. A.Water
  2. B.River
  3. C.Pond
  4. D.Baoli
11
Who announced a change in Punjab’s agricultural calendar for paddy sowing in 2025?
  1. A.Sunil Jakhar
  2. B.Bhagwant Mann
  3. C.Sukhbir Badal
  4. D.Amrinder Singh
12
Which Punjab-based YouTuber was arrested for allegedly spying for Pakistan in 2025?
  1. A.Diljit Dosanjh
  2. B.Kamal Kaur
  3. C.Amritpal Mehro
  4. D.Jasbir Singh
13
What initiative did Punjab launch to support women and children facing violence in 2025?
  1. A.Project Shakti
  2. B.Project Nari
  3. C.Project Suraksha
  4. D.Project Hifazat
14
Which gangster’s mother was shot dead in Batala in 2025?
  1. A.Sidhu Moosewala
  2. B.Davinder Bambiha
  3. C.Jaggu Bhagwanpuria
  4. D.Amritpal Singh
15
Which political party retained the Ludhiana West seat in the 2025 Punjab bypolls?
  1. A.Congress
  2. B.AAP
  3. C.BJP
  4. D.SAD
16
What was the name of the operation conducted by the Indian Army to counter drone attacks in Punjab in 2025?
  1. A.Operation Sindoor
  2. B.Operation Vijay
  3. C.Operation Shakti
  4. D.Operation Blue Star
17
Which Punjab city experienced a drone attack that created a 15-foot deep crater in 2025?
  1. A.Amritsar
  2. B.Jalandhar
  3. C.Ludhiana
  4. D.Gurdaspur
18
Who criticized the Congress party’s absence during the Ludhiana West bypoll campaign in 2025?
  1. A.Sukhjinder Randhawa
  2. B.Bhagwant Mann
  3. C.Sunil Jakhar
  4. D.Arvind Kejriwal
19
What environmental concern prompted Punjab to ban hybrid rice cultivation in 2025?
  1. A.Soil degradation
  2. B.Deforestation
  3. C.Air pollution
  4. D.Groundwater conservation
20
Which Punjab minister announced plans to explore potash mining in 2025?
  1. A.Bhagwant Mann
  2. B.Aman Arora
  3. C.Barinder Kumar Goyal
  4. D.Anmol Gagan Mann

Logical Reasoning

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
12
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
13
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
14
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
15
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

General English

1
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.He was in the temper
  2. B.and refused
  3. C.discuss the matter again
  4. D.No error
2
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A flower makes no garland
  2. B.so we must do a thing together
  3. C.in a unit for a good result
  4. D.No error
3
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.My friend is a software engineer
  2. B.and his wife is doctor
  3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
  4. D.No error
4
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I don’t have much time that
  2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
  3. C.tell everything in nutshell
  4. D.No error
5
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The atmosphere is changing
  2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
  3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
  4. D.No error
6
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.No one is without fault
  2. B.because no one is God
  3. C.and only God is fault free
  4. D.No error
7
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Your
  2. B.clock is
  3. C.one hour fast
  4. D.No error
8
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The lose of jobs
  2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
  3. C.in the fight against infliation
  4. D.No error
9
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
  2. B.who convinces the world
  3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
  4. D.No error
10
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is only after
  2. B.the match is over
  3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
  4. D.No error
Question for PSTCL ASSA 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam