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Question for PUNEZP Health Worker - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 12, 2026

Duration: 180 ยท Questions: 100 ยท Max Marks: 100

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Latest PUNEZP Health Worker Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Electrical, Civil, Mechanical

Question Bank PUNEZP Health Worker Exam - English

Electrical

Q 1 :
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

                 
  1. A.0.8 รขโ€žยฆ
  2. B.1.4 รขโ€žยฆ
  3. C.2 รขโ€žยฆ
  4. D.2.8 รขโ€žยฆ
Q 2 :
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
  1. A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
  2. B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
  3. C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
  4. D.7.0 × 1012 m3
Q 3 :
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
  1. A.9.2 × 105/m3
  2. B.2.77 × 103/m3
  3. C.2.43 × 1019/m3
  4. D.8.9 × 1012/m3
Q 4 :
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
  1. A.By the mobility of the carriers
  2. B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
  3. C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
  4. D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Q 5 :
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
  1. A.Parallel polarized
  2. B.Perpendicularly polarized
  3. C.Normally polarized
  4. D.None of the above
Q 6 :
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
  1. A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
  2. B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
  3. C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
  4. D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Q 7 :
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
  1. A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
  2. B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
  3. C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
  4. D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Q 8 :
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
  1. A.High stiffness and strengths
  2. B.Low densities
  3. C.Unusual electrical property
  4. D.Non-ductile
Q 9 :
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
  1. A.Meissner effect
  2. B.Josephson effect
  3. C.Isotope effect
  4. D.x quantization experiments
Q 10 :
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
  1. A.Phenol formaldehyde
  2. B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
  3. C.Polyvinyl chloride
  4. D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Q 11 :
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
  1. A.Ferrite
  2. B.Piezoelectric
  3. C.Pyroelectric
  4. D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Q 12 :
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
  1. A.Peak temperature
  2. B.Neel temperatur
  3. C.Critical temperature
  4. D.Weiss temperature
Q 13 :
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
  1. A.Seeback effect
  2. B.Thomson effect
  3. C.Hall effect
  4. D.Joule effect
Q 14 :
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
  1. A.Soft magnetic materials
  2. B.Hard magnetic materials
  3. C.High eddy current loss materials
  4. D.High hysteresis loss materials
Q 15 :
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.Neither 1 nor 2
  3. C.1 only
  4. D.2 only
Q 16 :
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
  1. A.Radiative recombination
  2. B.Auger recombination
  3. C.Surface recombination
  4. D.Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Q 17 :
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
  1. A.GeO2
  2. B.B2O3
  3. C.P2O5x
  4. D.Al2O3
Q 18 :
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
  1. A.Become twice
  2. B.Become half
  3. C.ecome four times
  4. D.Remain unchanged
Q 19 :
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux. 
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 20 :
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of  luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
  1. A.MCHTX
  2. B.MXHTC
  3. C.XMHCT
  4. D.XMHTC
Q 21 :
Consider  the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.3, 4 and 5 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 22 :
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
  1. A.Transistor
  2. B.Varistor
  3. C.Thyristor
  4. D.Thermistor
Q 23 :
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
  1. A.The carrier concentration increases
  2. B.The mobility of carrier increases
  3. C.Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
  4. D.The band gap decreases
Q 24 :
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
  1. A.2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 2 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 25 :
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
  1. A.An ellipse
  2. B.A parabola
  3. C.Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
  4. D.A circle
Q 26 :
Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as
  1. A.
    Ferromagnetic materials
  2. B.
    High-energy hard magnetic materials
  3. C.
    Superconductors
  4. D.
    Ferromagnetic materials
Q 27 :
In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will
  1. A.
    Increase
  2. B.
    Decrease
  3. C.
    Not change
  4. D.
    Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material
Q 28 :
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
  1. A.
    Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
  2. B.
    Component of energy absorbed per m3
  3. C.
    Amount of applied field
  4. D.
    Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field
Q 29 :
Direction: Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
  1. A.Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets.
    Statement (II):
    Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
  2. B.Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
  3. C.
    Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
  4. D.
    Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
  5. E.
    Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true 
Q 30 :
In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is                                    
  1. A.(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00 
  2. B.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
  3. C.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
  4. D.(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H                                                 

Civil

Q 31 :
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 4 only
  3. C.2 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 32 :
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 33 :
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. A.Methane and Hydrogen
  2. B.Hydrogen Sulphide
  3. C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. D.Ammonia
Q 34 :
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. A.Excessive burning of bricks
  2. B.High silt content in brick clay
  3. C.High porosity of bricks
  4. D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
Q 35 :
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 36 :
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 37 :
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 38 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
  1. A.Tricalcium silicate
  2. B.Dicalcium silicate
  3. C.Tricalcium aluminate
  4. D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 39 :
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 40 :
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
  1. A.3.00
  2. B.3.45
  3. C.4.50
  4. D.6.00
Q 41 :
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
  1. A.Sprinkling water
  2. B.Membrane curing
  3. C.High-pressure steam curing
  4. D.Infrared radiation curing
Q 42 :
Which of the following is appropriate as  simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
  1. A.Compacting factor
  2. B.Slump test
  3. C.Vee-Bee test
  4. D.Kelly Ball test
Q 43 :
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 44 :
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 45 :
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
Q 46 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 3 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 47 :
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
  1. A.Inner Bark and Sap Wood
  2. B.Pith and Heart Wood
  3. C.Sap Wood and Heart Wood
  4. D.Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Q 48 :
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 49 :
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
  1. A.Vertical displacements in a structure
  2. B.Rotational displacements in a structure
  3. C.System of forces in equilibrium
  4. D.Stress-strain behavior of a material
Q 50 :
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
  1. A.2.5 and 2.5
  2. B.2.5 and 5
  3. C.5 and 1.67
  4. D.6 and 2.50

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