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Latest PUNEZP Health Worker Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Electrical, Civil, Mechanical
Question Bank PUNEZP Health Worker Exam - English
Electrical
Q 1 :
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A.0.8 รขโยฆ
B.1.4 รขโยฆ
C.2 รขโยฆ
D.2.8 รขโยฆ
Q 2 :
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
D.7.0 × 1012 m3
Q 3 :
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A.9.2 × 105/m3
B.2.77 × 103/m3
C.2.43 × 1019/m3
D.8.9 × 1012/m3
Q 4 :
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A.By the mobility of the carriers
B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Q 5 :
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A.Parallel polarized
B.Perpendicularly polarized
C.Normally polarized
D.None of the above
Q 6 :
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Q 7 :
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Q 8 :
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A.High stiffness and strengths
B.Low densities
C.Unusual electrical property
D.Non-ductile
Q 9 :
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A.Meissner effect
B.Josephson effect
C.Isotope effect
D.x quantization experiments
Q 10 :
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A.Phenol formaldehyde
B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
C.Polyvinyl chloride
D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Q 11 :
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A.Ferrite
B.Piezoelectric
C.Pyroelectric
D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Q 12 :
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A.Peak temperature
B.Neel temperatur
C.Critical temperature
D.Weiss temperature
Q 13 :
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A.Seeback effect
B.Thomson effect
C.Hall effect
D.Joule effect
Q 14 :
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A.Soft magnetic materials
B.Hard magnetic materials
C.High eddy current loss materials
D.High hysteresis loss materials
Q 15 :
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.Neither 1 nor 2
C.1 only
D.2 only
Q 16 :
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
A.Radiative recombination
B.Auger recombination
C.Surface recombination
D.Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Q 17 :
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
A.GeO2
B.B2O3
C.P2O5x
D.Al2O3
Q 18 :
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
A.Become twice
B.Become half
C.ecome four times
D.Remain unchanged
Q 19 :
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 20 :
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
A.MCHTX
B.MXHTC
C.XMHCT
D.XMHTC
Q 21 :
Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.3, 4 and 5 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 22 :
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
A.Transistor
B.Varistor
C.Thyristor
D.Thermistor
Q 23 :
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
A.The carrier concentration increases
B.The mobility of carrier increases
C.Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
D.The band gap decreases
Q 24 :
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
A.2, 3 and 4
B.1 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 25 :
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
A.An ellipse
B.A parabola
C.Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
D.A circle
Q 26 :
Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as
A.
Ferromagnetic materials
B.
High-energy hard magnetic materials
C.
Superconductors
D.
Ferromagnetic materials
Q 27 :
In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will
A.
Increase
B.
Decrease
C.
Not change
D.
Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material
Q 28 :
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
A.
Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
B.
Component of energy absorbed per m3
C.
Amount of applied field
D.
Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field
Q 29 :
Direction:Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
A.Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets. Statement (II):
Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
B.Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
C.
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
D.
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
E.
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Q 30 :
In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is
A.(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00
B.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
C.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
D.(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H
Civil
Q 31 :
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 32 :
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 33 :
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A.Methane and Hydrogen
B.Hydrogen Sulphide
C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D.Ammonia
Q 34 :
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A.Excessive burning of bricks
B.High silt content in brick clay
C.High porosity of bricks
D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
Q 35 :
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 36 :
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 37 :
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 38 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.Tricalcium silicate
B.Dicalcium silicate
C.Tricalcium aluminate
D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 39 :
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 40 :
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A.3.00
B.3.45
C.4.50
D.6.00
Q 41 :
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
A.Sprinkling water
B.Membrane curing
C.High-pressure steam curing
D.Infrared radiation curing
Q 42 :
Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
A.Compacting factor
B.Slump test
C.Vee-Bee test
D.Kelly Ball test
Q 43 :
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 44 :
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 45 :
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 46 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 47 :
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
A.Inner Bark and Sap Wood
B.Pith and Heart Wood
C.Sap Wood and Heart Wood
D.Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Q 48 :
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 49 :
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
A.Vertical displacements in a structure
B.Rotational displacements in a structure
C.System of forces in equilibrium
D.Stress-strain behavior of a material
Q 50 :
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
A.2.5 and 2.5
B.2.5 and 5
C.5 and 1.67
D.6 and 2.50
Important Questions Package
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PUNEZP Health Worker Exam Question Bank Book - English
The principal stresses at a point are 2 (tensile) and (compressive), and the stress at elastic limit for the material in simple tension is 210 N/mm2. According to maximum shear strain theory, the value of at failure is
A.70 N/mm2
B.105 N/mm2
C.140 N/mm2
D.210 N/mm2
Q 52 :
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or hoisting loads.
2. With the use of dipper and stick, power shovels can be used as hoes.
3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often used comfortably in the working of a tractor.
4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines if the material is water-saturated.
A.1 and 4 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 53 :
Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are heated to a same temperature. Forces are applied at the ends of the bars to maintain their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the stress on the Aluminium bar if the stress on the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?
A.16.7 MPa
B.66.7 MPa
C.136.7 MPa
D.150.0 MPa
Q 54 :
A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and bottom are 120 N/mm2 and 80 N/mm2, respectively. The depth of the natural axis from the top of the beam will be
A.120 mm
B.100 mm
C.80 mm
D.60 mm
Q 55 :
In the analysis of beams subjected to loads, the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a
1. Point of Contraflexure
2. Point of Maximum Shear Force
3. Point of Inflection
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 56 :
A tractor has a permissible loaded speed of 200 m/minute, which can increase by 25% when the load is removed/deposited. Generally, it is operated at 80% of the permissible speed (loaded unloaded). It works at a location where haul distance is 120 m. Rest allowance per round-trip is taken as 50 seconds on an average. Fixed time per trip, for loading and unloading and turnaround, etc., is 30 seconds. What is its effective cycle time?
A.157 seconds
B.161 seconds
C.173 seconds
D.182 seconds
Q 57 :
The purpose of lateral ties in a short RC column is to
A.Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
B.Facilitate compaction of concrete
C.Increase the load carrying capacity of the column
D.Facilitate construction
Q 58 :
When a two-hinged parabolic arch is subjected to a rise in ambient temperature, the horizontal thrust at the support will
A.Increase
B.Decrease
C.Remain same
D.Increase or decrease depending on the span
Q 59 :
In the slope-deflection equations, deformations are considered to be caused by
A.Shear forces and bending moments only
B.Axial forces, shear forces and bending moments
C.Axial forces and bending moments only
D.Bending moments only
Q 60 :
The maximum bending moment caused by a set of concentrated moving loads is
A.Always at the midpoint of span
B.Between the midpoint and concentrated load next to the midpoint of the span
C.Not definable
D.Always under a load close to the centroid of the set of loads
Mechanical
Q 61 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A.Greater than 1
B.Equal to 1
C.Between 1 and 3
4 4
D.Less than 1
Q 62 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Q 63 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A.Newtonian fluid
B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
D.Dilatent fluids
Q 64 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A.8
B.6
C.4
D.2
Q 65 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 66 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 67 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C.Possible for steady, compressible flow
D.Not Possible
Q 68 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A.0.25
B.0.26
C.2
D.4
Q 69 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A.10 kW
B.20 kW
C.30 kW
D.50 kW
Q 70 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A.man power
B.profit
C.inventory
D.manufacturing
Q 71 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A.3 m/s2
B.6 m/s2
C.9 m/s2
D.15 m/s2
Q 72 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A.9
B.-6
C.117
D.10.8
Q 73 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A.More for lighter fluid
B.More for denser fluid
C.Less for denser fluid
D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 74 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A.Linearly with fluid density
B.Inversely with pressure drop
C.Directly as square of pipe radius
D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 75 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A.1.5mm
B.2.5mm
C.4.0mm
D.5.0mm
Q 76 :
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A.0.05m
B.0.07m
C.0.08m
D.0.09m
Q 77 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A.8 kW
B.4 kW
C.2 kW
D. 1 kW
Q 78 :
In a hydraulic coupling
A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Q 79 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A.1,2 and 3 only
B.1,2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1,2, 3 and 4
Q 80 :
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A.150 N
B.1470 N
C.340 N
D.900 N
Q 81 :
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 82 :
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A.Energy
B.Mass
C.Momentum
D.Angle
Q 83 :
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Q 84 :
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A.2Q
B.A little more than 2Q
C.A little less than 2Q
D.4Q
Q 85 :
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A. 7.5 W/m2K
B.15 W/m2K
C.25 W/m2K
D. 35 W/m2K
Q 86 :
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
A.Remains constant over the cross-section
B.Varies linearly with the radial distance
C.Must be zero at all point
D.Varies parabolically with radial distance
Q 87 :
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
A.Creep
B.Malleability
C.Ductility
D.Elasticity in the metal
Q 88 :
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
A.Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B.Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C.The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D.No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Q 89 :
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
A.Pressure and inertial forces
B.Gravity and inertial forces
C.Viscous and inertial forces
D.Pressure and inertial forces
Q 90 :
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
A.Penstock/nozzl
B.Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C.Vanes receiving impact of jet
D.Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube
Q 91 :
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
A.Inversely proportional to Re
B.Proportional to Re
C.Proportional to square of Re
D.Independent of Re
Q 92 :
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
A.Mechanical efficiency
B.Static efficiency
C.Overall efficiency
D.Manometric efficiency
Q 93 :
A pump is defined as a device which converts
A.Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B.Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C.Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D.None of the above
Q 94 :
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
A.Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B.Requires unit power to develop unit head
C.Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D.Produces unit power with unit head available
Q 95 :
Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
A.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed
Q 96 :
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
A.0.156 N/m
B.0.313 N/m
C.0.624 N/m
D.0.078 N/m
Q 97 :
A Newtonian fluid is one which
A.Is viscous but incompressible
B.Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C.Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D.Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
Q 98 :
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
A.Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B.Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C.Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D.Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
Q 99 :
Manometer is a device used for measuring
A.Velocity at a point in a fluid
B.Pressure at a point in a fluid
C.Discharge of a fluid
D.None of the above
Q 100 :
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is