Question for Punjab Lecturer Political Science (Paper 2) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest Punjab Lecturer Political Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

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Question Bank Punjab Lecturer Political Science (Paper 2) Exam - English

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Political Science

Question 1Single Answer

The concept of governance primarily refers to:

A
Only the activities of government departments
B
Processes through which collective decisions are made and implemented
C
Judicial decision-making alone
D
Electoral competition alone

Question 2Single Answer

Which of the following is a major characteristic of good governance?

A
Administrative secrecy
B
Arbitrary decision-making
C
Transparency
D
Political centralization

Question 3Single Answer

The principle of rule of law requires that:

A
Laws are applied fairly and impartially
B
Government officials remain above law
C
Courts function under executive control
D
Administrative discretion is unlimited

Question 4Single Answer

Participatory governance emphasizes:

A
Exclusion of non-state actors
B
Complete bureaucratic autonomy
C
Citizen involvement in decision-making
D
Centralization of political authority

Question 5Single Answer

Transparency in governance mainly facilitates:

A
Administrative monopoly
B
Secrecy of public records
C
Elimination of legislative scrutiny
D
Public access to information

Question 6Single Answer

Accountability means that public authorities are expected to:

A
Avoid explaining their actions
B
Function independently of law
C
Answer for their decisions and actions
D
Operate without public scrutiny

Question 7Single Answer

Which feature of good governance requires institutions to serve stakeholders within a reasonable time?

A
Hierarchy
B
Secrecy
C
Centralization
D
Responsiveness

Question 8Single Answer

Consensus-oriented governance seeks to:

A
Eliminate differences in society
B
Replace elections with bureaucracy
C
Mediate differing interests to reach broad agreement
D
Prevent stakeholder consultation

Question 9Single Answer

Equity and inclusiveness in governance imply that:

A
Only majority groups should influence policy
B
Economic efficiency overrides social justice
C
Vulnerable groups should have opportunities to participate and benefit
D
Citizens should have identical occupations

Question 10Single Answer

Effectiveness and efficiency in good governance relate to:

A
Increasing administrative secrecy
B
Achieving desired outcomes while making suitable use of resources
C
Reducing citizen participation
D
Expanding hierarchy regardless of results

Question 11Single Answer

Democratic governance is most closely associated with:

A
Hereditary authority
B
Military administration
C
Popular participation and constitutional accountability
D
Permanent emergency rule

Question 12Single Answer

Civil society generally refers to:

A
Only government ministries
B
Parliament alone
C
Armed forces alone
D
Voluntary organizations and associations outside the formal state structure

Question 13Single Answer

Which institution belongs most clearly to civil society?

A
Supreme Court
B
Voluntary citizens' association
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Cabinet Secretariat

Question 14Single Answer

One important democratic role of civil society is to:

A
Abolish elections
B
Exercise sovereign legislative power
C
Replace the judiciary
D
Articulate citizens' interests and monitor government

Question 15Single Answer

The state's role in governance includes:

A
Prevention of citizen participation
B
Elimination of all social organizations
C
Removal of judicial institutions
D
Provision and regulation of public goods and services

Question 16Single Answer

The concept of an 'enabling state' emphasizes:

A
Facilitating cooperation among public, private and civil-society actors
B
State withdrawal from every public responsibility
C
Complete administrative centralization
D
Abolition of regulation

Question 17Single Answer

Citizen-centric administration places primary emphasis on:

A
Convenience of administrative offices
B
Expansion of official privileges
C
Confidentiality of all government activity
D
Needs and rights of service users

Question 18Single Answer

Social accountability refers mainly to:

A
Citizen-based mechanisms for demanding accountability from public authorities
B
Accountability imposed exclusively by courts
C
Military control over administration
D
Control exercised only by civil servants

Question 19Single Answer

Which is an example of social accountability?

A
Social audit
B
Judicial appointment
C
Cabinet reshuffle
D
Presidential ordinance

Question 20Single Answer

Vertical accountability in a democracy is most clearly associated with:

A
Citizens holding representatives accountable through elections
B
One ministry supervising another ministry
C
Courts reviewing administrative action
D
Internal departmental inspection

Question 21Single Answer

Horizontal accountability involves:

A
Market competition alone
B
Elections alone
C
Oversight among state institutions
D
Voluntary charity

Question 22Single Answer

Which institution can provide horizontal accountability over the executive?

A
Private family
B
Parliament
C
Informal friendship group
D
Sports association

Question 23Single Answer

Public consultation before a major policy decision promotes:

A
Administrative secrecy
B
Participatory governance
C
Unaccountable government
D
Judicial supremacy

Question 24Single Answer

Participatory budgeting enables citizens to:

A
Conduct foreign policy
B
Appoint Supreme Court judges
C
Dissolve Parliament
D
Participate in decisions concerning public spending priorities

Question 25Single Answer

Which principle is most directly strengthened by publishing government decisions and their reasons?

A
Transparency
B
Secrecy
C
Centralization
D
Patronage

Question 26Single Answer

Grievance-redress mechanisms mainly strengthen:

A
Political monopoly
B
Administrative secrecy
C
Responsiveness and accountability
D
Judicial immunity

Question 27Single Answer

A Citizen's Charter normally communicates:

A
Expected standards of public service
B
Election results
C
Constitutional amendments
D
Judicial precedents only

Question 28Single Answer

In good governance, administrative discretion should ideally be:

A
Completely arbitrary
B
Secret in every circumstance
C
Beyond judicial scrutiny
D
Exercised according to law and reason

Question 29Single Answer

Which concept stresses that public institutions should justify their actions?

A
Answerability
B
Heredity
C
Privilege
D
Sovereignty of bureaucracy

Question 30Single Answer

Democratic governance differs from purely administrative governance because it gives special importance to:

A
Participation, representation and accountability
B
Command alone
C
Secrecy alone
D
Technical knowledge alone

Question 31Single Answer

The legitimacy of democratic governance fundamentally rests upon:

A
Permanent emergency
B
Administrative secrecy
C
Public consent and constitutional authority
D
Unelected hereditary rule

Question 32Single Answer

Which approach treats citizens as active partners rather than passive beneficiaries?

A
Administrative isolation
B
Authoritarian administration
C
Closed bureaucracy
D
Participatory governance

Question 33Single Answer

A government releasing datasets for public use primarily advances:

A
Closed administration
B
Open government
C
Administrative privilege
D
Judicial secrecy

Question 34Single Answer

Good governance attempts to minimize corruption primarily through:

A
Transparency, accountability and effective institutions
B
Complete absence of rules
C
Unlimited official discretion
D
Elimination of public information

Question 35Single Answer

Which of the following best captures the relationship between government and governance?

A
They are completely unrelated
B
Government is broader than governance in every respect
C
Governance is broader than government
D
Governance concerns courts alone

Question 36Single Answer

India follows which form of government at the Union level?

A
Presidential
B
Parliamentary
C
Directorial
D
Absolute monarchical

Question 37Single Answer

The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:

A
Lok Sabha
B
Supreme Court
C
Rajya Sabha
D
Election Commission

Question 38Single Answer

Collective responsibility implies that ministers:

A
Function completely independently of Cabinet decisions
B
Cannot resign individually
C
Are responsible only to courts
D
Stand or fall together politically as a Council

Question 39Single Answer

The principle of individual ministerial responsibility means, among other things, that:

A
Ministers remain outside executive authority
B
Ministers are elected directly by judges
C
Parliament cannot question ministers
D
Ministers are accountable for their departments

Question 40Single Answer

Which parliamentary device enables members to obtain information from ministers?

A
Ordinance
B
Judicial review
C
Writ jurisdiction
D
Question Hour

Question 41Single Answer

Legislative control over the executive is most directly based on the principle of:

A
Hereditary government
B
Judicial supremacy over Parliament
C
Bureaucratic independence from elected institutions
D
Executive accountability to Parliament

Question 42Single Answer

A no-confidence motion tests whether the government continues to enjoy the confidence of the:

A
Supreme Court
B
Lok Sabha
C
Election Commission
D
Comptroller and Auditor General

Question 43Single Answer

An adjournment motion is traditionally associated with discussion of:

A
Constitutional amendment only
B
A definite matter of urgent public importance
C
Judicial appointments only
D
Private commercial disputes

Question 44Single Answer

Parliamentary questions are an instrument of:

A
Executive accountability
B
Judicial appointment
C
Administrative immunity
D
Federal secession

Question 45Single Answer

Parliamentary debates contribute to accountability by:

A
Abolishing opposition participation
B
Preventing discussion of public policy
C
Removing legislative oversight
D
Subjecting government policies to public scrutiny

Question 46Single Answer

The term 'budget' in the Constitution is formally associated with the:

A
Annual Judicial Statement
B
Annual Financial Statement
C
Public Service Statement
D
National Audit Charter

Question 47Single Answer

The Annual Financial Statement of the Union is dealt with under Article:

A
32
B
280
C
112
D
324

Question 48Single Answer

Demands for Grants are voted by the:

A
Rajya Sabha only
B
Lok Sabha
C
Supreme Court
D
Finance Commission

Question 49Single Answer

Which House has the primary power to vote on Demands for Grants?

A
Rajya Sabha
B
Lok Sabha
C
Both Houses separately with equal power
D
Neither House

Question 50Single Answer

An Appropriation Act authorizes:

A
Appointment of judges
B
Withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund for approved expenditure
C
Creation of political parties
D
Delimitation of constituencies

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Political Science

Question 51Single Answer

A Finance Bill primarily concerns:

A
Election disputes
B
Judicial appointments
C
Government taxation and financial proposals
D
Inter-state boundaries only

Question 52Single Answer

The constitutional authority responsible for auditing Union and State government accounts is the:

A
Attorney General
B
Election Commission
C
Comptroller and Auditor General
D
UPSC

Question 53Single Answer

The Comptroller and Auditor General is provided for under Article:

A
148
B
280
C
324
D
356

Question 54Single Answer

The Public Accounts Committee primarily examines:

A
Judicial appointments
B
Election petitions
C
CAG reports and appropriation-related accounts
D
Foreign treaties only

Question 55Single Answer

The Public Accounts Committee serves primarily as an instrument of:

A
Judicial review
B
Legislative financial control
C
Electoral management
D
Diplomatic negotiation

Question 56Single Answer

The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament consists of a maximum of:

A
22 members
B
20 members
C
15 members
D
30 members

Question 57Single Answer

How many Lok Sabha members are included in the Public Accounts Committee?

A
10
B
15
C
20
D
22

Question 58Single Answer

How many Rajya Sabha members may be associated with the Public Accounts Committee?

A
7
B
5
C
10
D
15

Question 59Single Answer

A minister can be a member of the Public Accounts Committee:

A
No
B
Only with presidential approval
C
Always
D
Only if from Rajya Sabha

Question 60Single Answer

The chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the:

A
President
B
Speaker of Lok Sabha
C
Prime Minister
D
Chief Justice of India

Question 61Single Answer

The Estimates Committee is principally concerned with:

A
Examining estimates and suggesting economy and efficiency
B
Conducting judicial review
C
Conducting elections
D
Investigating criminal offences

Question 62Single Answer

The Committee on Public Undertakings focuses on:

A
Election expenditure of candidates
B
Private family businesses
C
Public-sector undertakings
D
Judicial salaries alone

Question 63Single Answer

PAC, Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings are commonly classified as:

A
Election tribunals
B
Judicial committees
C
Constitutional courts
D
Financial committees of Parliament

Question 64Single Answer

Legislative financial control begins before expenditure through:

A
Approval of budgetary demands
B
CAG audit alone
C
Judicial review alone
D
Civil-service recruitment

Question 65Single Answer

Post-expenditure legislative financial control is especially associated with:

A
CAG reports and PAC scrutiny
B
Ordinance-making
C
Electoral rolls
D
Governor's assent

Question 66Single Answer

Which body assists the Public Accounts Committee during examination of audited government expenditure?

A
CAG
B
UPSC
C
Election Commission
D
Finance Ministry alone

Question 67Single Answer

Administrative accountability within departments is strengthened through:

A
Abolition of responsibility
B
Elimination of record keeping
C
Supervision and internal controls
D
Complete secrecy

Question 68Single Answer

Internal audit is primarily a form of:

A
Administrative and financial control
B
Electoral control
C
Judicial review
D
Constitutional amendment

Question 69Single Answer

The purpose of budgetary control is to ensure that:

A
Elections determine each administrative payment
B
Public money can be spent without authorization
C
Courts prepare all departmental budgets
D
Public money is spent according to legislative authorization

Question 70Single Answer

A parliamentary committee system enables:

A
Permanent executive secrecy
B
Elimination of legislative oversight
C
Replacement of Parliament by courts
D
Detailed legislative scrutiny

Question 71Single Answer

Committee examination is useful because committees can:

A
Amend the Constitution without Parliament
B
Exercise unlimited judicial power
C
Issue currency
D
Undertake detailed examination of specialized matters

Question 72Single Answer

Parliamentary accountability is strengthened when ministers are required to:

A
Avoid legislative proceedings
B
Explain policies and actions before the legislature
C
Refuse all information to members
D
Ignore parliamentary resolutions

Question 73Single Answer

Which of the following represents political control over administration?

A
Judicial appointment
B
Market pricing
C
Ministerial responsibility
D
Private arbitration

Question 74Single Answer

Legislative scrutiny of delegated legislation seeks to ensure that:

A
Courts cannot examine regulations
B
Executive rules override the Constitution
C
Rule-making remains within delegated authority
D
Parliament permanently transfers legislative sovereignty

Question 75Single Answer

Parliamentary financial control reflects which democratic principle?

A
Executive spending requires legislative authorization
B
The executive has unlimited control over public money
C
Public expenditure is outside accountability
D
Courts determine every expenditure item

Question 76Single Answer

The Consolidated Fund of India is constitutionally significant because:

A
It finances only local governments
B
It belongs to political parties
C
It is controlled by private banks
D
Major government revenues and expenditures are accounted through it

Question 77Single Answer

An audit mainly examines whether public financial transactions are:

A
Properly accounted for and compliant with applicable authority
B
Politically popular
C
Electorally advantageous
D
Secret

Question 78Single Answer

Control over administration by Parliament is generally:

A
Exclusively military
B
Purely judicial
C
Entirely private
D
Political and financial

Question 79Single Answer

Which mechanism most directly makes the Council of Ministers politically accountable?

A
Collective responsibility
B
Judicial tenure
C
Federal finance
D
Civil-service neutrality

Question 80Single Answer

A legislature's power to authorize taxation is closely linked with the historical principle of:

A
Administrative secrecy
B
Judicial supremacy
C
No taxation without representation
D
Bureaucratic absolutism

Question 81Single Answer

An effective committee system improves parliamentary control primarily through:

A
Specialized and continuous scrutiny
B
Abolition of legislative debate
C
Removal of opposition members
D
Elimination of financial accountability

Question 82Single Answer

Which of the following is NOT primarily a parliamentary control mechanism?

A
Questions
B
Habeas corpus
C
Budget scrutiny
D
Committees

Question 83Single Answer

A cut motion is associated with parliamentary consideration of:

A
Election petitions
B
Constitutional appointments
C
Demands for Grants
D
Judicial review

Question 84Single Answer

Parliamentary control over the executive is strongest when:

A
Questions are prohibited
B
Executive action is completely secret
C
Information, debate and responsibility operate together
D
Committees have no access to records

Question 85Single Answer

Financial accountability ultimately seeks to ensure:

A
Unlimited executive expenditure
B
Responsible use of public resources
C
Secrecy of government accounts
D
Elimination of legislative authorization

Question 86Single Answer

Judicial control over administration primarily seeks to ensure:

A
Legality of administrative action
B
Political popularity
C
Bureaucratic secrecy
D
Electoral campaigning

Question 87Single Answer

Judicial review refers to the power of courts to:

A
Examine the constitutionality and legality of governmental action
B
Prepare the Union Budget
C
Conduct parliamentary debates
D
Recruit civil servants

Question 88Single Answer

The Supreme Court's power to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights is primarily under Article:

A
50
B
32
C
123
D
280

Question 89Single Answer

High Courts exercise writ jurisdiction primarily under Article:

A
136
B
226
C
280
D
324

Question 90Single Answer

Which writ protects personal liberty against unlawful detention?

A
Mandamus
B
Habeas corpus
C
Quo warranto
D
Certiorari

Question 91Single Answer

The writ of mandamus is generally issued to:

A
Appoint a minister
B
Release a person from every contractual obligation
C
Command a public authority to perform a public duty
D
Dissolve Parliament

Question 92Single Answer

The writ of certiorari is generally used to:

A
Appoint civil servants
B
Conduct elections
C
Approve budgets
D
Quash an order of an inferior court or tribunal made without lawful jurisdiction

Question 93Single Answer

The writ of prohibition primarily seeks to:

A
Authorize taxation
B
Appoint a public official
C
Prevent an inferior judicial or quasi-judicial body from exceeding jurisdiction
D
Approve executive expenditure

Question 94Single Answer

Quo warranto questions:

A
Annual budget allocations
B
The validity of a private contract
C
The legal authority by which a person holds a public office
D
Election scheduling

Question 95Single Answer

The principle 'audi alteram partem' means:

A
Delegated legislation
B
No taxation without representation
C
Hear the other side
D
Collective responsibility

Question 96Single Answer

'Nemo judex in causa sua' expresses the principle that:

A
Executives cannot make rules
B
Parliament cannot legislate
C
No one should be a judge in their own cause
D
Citizens cannot approach courts

Question 97Single Answer

The two major principles of natural justice include fair hearing and:

A
Parliamentary privilege
B
Freedom from bias
C
Cabinet secrecy
D
Delegated taxation

Question 98Single Answer

Judicial control of administration is especially relevant when administrative action is:

A
Financially profitable
B
Politically popular
C
Ultra vires
D
Supported by a private association

Question 99Single Answer

'Ultra vires' means:

A
Politically neutral
B
Within parliamentary privilege
C
Beyond legal power or authority
D
Economically efficient

Question 100Single Answer

Administrative culture refers to:

A
Court judgments alone
B
Only written constitutional provisions
C
Election manifestos
D
Values, norms and behavioural patterns within administrative institutions

Question 101Single Answer

A citizen-oriented administrative culture emphasizes:

A
Secrecy and privilege
B
Service, responsiveness and accountability
C
Administrative domination
D
Absence of standards

Question 102Single Answer

Red-tapism generally refers to:

A
Judicial review
B
Decentralization
C
Excessive procedural formalism and delay
D
Participatory budgeting

Question 103Single Answer

Corruption in public administration fundamentally involves:

A
Every exercise of administrative discretion
B
Abuse of entrusted public power for improper benefit
C
All public expenditure
D
Every government regulation

Question 104Single Answer

Which reform is most likely to reduce opportunities for discretionary corruption?

A
Greater secrecy
B
Simplification and digitization of procedures
C
Unrecorded decision-making
D
Elimination of audit trails

Question 105Single Answer

Transparency can deter corruption because it:

A
Eliminates legal rules
B
Makes decisions more open to scrutiny
C
Removes public access to records
D
Prevents accountability

Question 106Single Answer

The First Administrative Reforms Commission was established in:

A
1950
B
1977
C
1966
D
1991

Question 107Single Answer

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission was constituted in:

A
1985
B
1991
C
2005
D
2014

Question 108Single Answer

Which was specifically included among the subjects of the Second ARC?

A
International sports administration
B
Planetary exploration
C
Ethics in governance
D
Monetary policy of foreign states

Question 109Single Answer

The Second ARC's 11th Report dealt with:

A
Judicial appointments
B
Electoral delimitation
C
Monetary union
D
Promoting e-Governance

Question 110Single Answer

The Second ARC's 12th Report dealt with:

A
Citizen-centric administration
B
Defence planning
C
International trade law
D
Parliamentary privileges

Question 111Single Answer

Citizen's Charters are intended primarily to improve:

A
Military command
B
Judicial appointments
C
Election campaigning
D
Standards and accountability in public-service delivery

Question 112Single Answer

An important feature of an effective Citizen's Charter is:

A
Specification of service standards
B
Elimination of citizen feedback
C
Complete administrative secrecy
D
Absence of grievance procedures

Question 113Single Answer

Administrative reform ultimately seeks to make government more:

A
Immune from review
B
Secret and inaccessible
C
Arbitrary and centralized in every field
D
Effective, accountable and responsive

Question 114Single Answer

The Right to Information Act was enacted in:

A
2002
B
2009
C
2005
D
2013

Question 115Single Answer

The principal objective of the RTI Act is to promote:

A
Administrative secrecy
B
Transparency and accountability
C
Judicial appointments
D
Party discipline

Question 116Single Answer

Under the RTI Act, the right to seek information is available to:

A
Only Members of Parliament
B
Only government employees
C
Citizens
D
Only advocates

Question 117Single Answer

An RTI applicant is ordinarily required to give a reason for seeking information:

A
No
B
Only for financial information
C
Always
D
Only with court permission

Question 118Single Answer

The normal maximum period for responding to an RTI request is:

A
15 days
B
90 days
C
45 days
D
30 days

Question 119Single Answer

Information concerning the life or liberty of a person should ordinarily be supplied within:

A
24 hours
B
7 days
C
48 hours
D
30 days

Question 120Single Answer

When an RTI application relates to another public authority, transfer should normally occur within:

A
5 days
B
2 days
C
15 days
D
30 days

Question 121Single Answer

The first appeal under the RTI framework is generally made to:

A
An officer senior in rank to the PIO in the public authority
B
Supreme Court directly
C
President of India
D
Lokpal

Question 122Single Answer

A second appeal in a Central Government RTI matter lies to the:

A
CAG
B
Central Information Commission
C
Finance Commission
D
Election Commission

Question 123Single Answer

The normal statutory period for filing a second appeal is:

A
15 days
B
90 days
C
60 days
D
30 days

Question 124Single Answer

The Central Information Commission was constituted with effect from:

A
15 August 1947
B
26 January 1950
C
1 January 2014
D
12 October 2005

Question 125Single Answer

Section 4 of the RTI Act is particularly associated with:

A
Emergency powers
B
Presidential election
C
Proactive disclosure by public authorities
D
Money Bills

Question 126Single Answer

The principal demand of the Punjabi Suba Movement was the creation of a state primarily on the basis of:

A
Religion
B
Tribal identity
C
Economic backwardness
D
Punjabi language

Question 127Single Answer

Which political party played the leading role in the Punjabi Suba Movement?

A
Indian National Congress
B
Communist Party of India
C
Shiromani Akali Dal
D
Bharatiya Jana Sangh

Question 128Single Answer

Which leader was one of the most prominent early leaders of the Punjabi Suba Movement?

A
Lala Lajpat Rai
B
Master Tara Singh
C
Giani Zail Singh
D
Darbara Singh

Question 129Single Answer

Which leader became closely associated with the Punjabi Suba agitation after Master Tara Singh?

A
Harchand Singh Longowal
B
Parkash Singh Badal
C
Surjit Singh Barnala
D
Sant Fateh Singh

Question 130Single Answer

The Punjabi Suba demand was primarily justified on which principle?

A
Separate electorate
B
Linguistic reorganisation
C
Presidential government
D
Economic secession

Question 131Single Answer

Punjabi written in Punjab is primarily associated with which script?

A
Devanagari
B
Roman
C
Gurmukhi
D
Persian only

Question 132Single Answer

Which body initially did not accept the demand for a separate Punjabi-speaking state in the 1950s?

A
Sarkaria Commission
B
Mandal Commission
C
States Reorganisation Commission
D
Shah Commission

Question 133Single Answer

PEPSU was merged with Punjab in:

A
1950
B
1952
C
1966
D
1956

Question 134Single Answer

PEPSU stands for:

A
Punjab Eastern Provincial State Union
B
Patiala and East Punjab States Union
C
Punjab Economic and Political States Union
D
Patiala Eastern Provincial States Union

Question 135Single Answer

The final reorganisation of Punjab on a linguistic basis took place under the:

A
States Reorganisation Act, 1956
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
D
Punjab Accord Act, 1985

Question 136Single Answer

The reorganised state of Punjab came into existence on:

A
15 August 1966
B
1 November 1966
C
2 October 1966
D
26 January 1967

Question 137Single Answer

Which new state was created largely from the Hindi-speaking areas of the former Punjab in 1966?

A
Himachal Pradesh
B
Haryana
C
Rajasthan
D
Uttarakhand

Question 138Single Answer

What happened to Chandigarh under the Punjab Reorganisation of 1966?

A
It became part of Haryana
B
It became a Union Territory
C
It became part of Himachal Pradesh
D
It became a separate state

Question 139Single Answer

Chandigarh subsequently served as the capital of:

A
Punjab only
B
Haryana only
C
Both Punjab and Haryana
D
Punjab and Himachal Pradesh

Question 140Single Answer

Some hilly areas of the former Punjab were transferred to:

A
Jammu and Kashmir
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Rajasthan
D
Himachal Pradesh

Question 141Single Answer

The Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 was enacted by:

A
Punjab Legislative Assembly
B
Election Commission
C
Supreme Court
D
Parliament of India

Question 142Single Answer

The Punjab Reorganisation Act is Act No.:

A
21 of 1966
B
41 of 1966
C
31 of 1966
D
51 of 1966

Question 143Single Answer

The Punjab Reorganisation Act was enacted in:

A
September 1966
B
January 1965
C
November 1967
D
March 1968

Question 144Single Answer

Which date is associated with the actual territorial reorganisation of Punjab?

A
15 August 1965
B
1 January 1966
C
1 November 1966
D
26 January 1966

Question 145Single Answer

Hukam Singh was serving as the:

A
Chief Justice of India
B
Governor of Punjab
C
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D
Union Home Secretary

Question 146Single Answer

The Punjabi Suba controversy was fundamentally connected with:

A
Judicial appointments
B
Foreign policy
C
Language and territorial reorganisation
D
Currency policy

Question 147Single Answer

The original Punjabi Suba demand was for:

A
An independent country outside India
B
A merger with Pakistan
C
A Punjabi-speaking state within India
D
Abolition of the state system

Question 148Single Answer

The Punjabi Suba Movement is best understood as an example of:

A
Linguistic regionalism
B
Military nationalism
C
Colonial expansion
D
Presidential federalism

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