Question for Punjab SET (Chemical Science) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest Punjab SET Chemical Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Life Science

Question Bank Punjab SET Life Sciences Exam - English

Life Science

Question 1Single Answer

AB is the diameter of a circle. The chord CD is perpendicular to AB intersecting it at P. If CP = 2 and PB = 1, the radius of the circle is :

A
1
B
2.5
C
2
D
5

Question 2Single Answer

A shopkeeper purchases a product for Rs.100 and sells it making a profit of 10 %. The customer resells it to the same shopkeeper incurring a loss of 10 %. In these dealings the shopkeeper makes :

A
No profit, no loss
B
Rs. 11
C
Rs. 1
D
Rs. 20

Question 3Single Answer

The product of the perimeter of a triangle, the radius of its in-circle, and a number gives the area of the triangle. The number is :

A
1/4
B
1/3
C
1/2
D
1

Question 4Single Answer

Starting from a point A you fly one mile south, then one mile east, then one mile north which brings you back to point A. Which of the following MUST be true ?

A
You are at the North pole
B
You are in the Eastern hemisphere
C
You are in the Western hemisphere
D
You are at the South pole

Question 5Single Answer

Three boxes are coloured red, blue and green and so are three balls. In how many ways can one put the balls one in each box such that no ball goes into the box of its own colour ?

Question 6Single Answer

There are two buckets A and B. Initially A has 2 litres of water and B is empty. At every hour 1 litre of water is transferred from A to B followed by returning 1/2 litre back to A from B half an hour later. The earliest A will get empty in :

A
5 hours
B
4 hours
C
3 hours
D
2 hours

Question 7Single Answer

Density of a rice grain is 1.5g/cc and bulk density of rice heap is 0.80 g/cc. If a 1 litre container is completely filled with rice, what will be the approximate volume of pore space in the container ?

A
350 cc
B
465 cc
C
550 cc
D
665 cc

Question 8Single Answer

What is the minimum number of moves required to transform figure 1 to figure 2 ? A move is defined as removing a coin and placing it such that it touches two other coins in its new position .

Question 9Single Answer

It takes 5 days for a steamboat to travel from A to B along a river. It takes 7 days to return from B to A. How many days will it take for a raft to drift from A to B (assuming all speed are constant) ?

A
13
B
35
C
6
D
12

Question 10Single Answer

How many times starting at 1: 00 pm would the minute and hour hands of a clock make an angle of 40° with each other in the next 6 hours ?

A
6
B
7
C
11
D
1

Question 11Single Answer

The graph shows cumulative frequency, percentage of research scholars and the number of papers published by them. Which of the following statements is true ?

A
Majority of the scholar published more than 4 papers
B
60 % of the scholar published at least 2 papers
C
80 % of the scholar published at least 6 papers
D
30 % of the scholars have not published any paper

Question 12Single Answer

The random errors associated with the measurement of P and Q are 10 % and 2%. respectively. What is the maximum percentage random error in P/Q ?

A
12.0
B
9.8
C
8.0
D
10.2

Question 13Single Answer

If a person travels x % faster than normal, he reaches y minutes earlier than normal. What is his normal time of travel ?

Question 14Single Answer

Pre - Ph.D exam score of 10 students are plotted against their M.Sc. marks. Which of the following is true ?

A
Two students have scored better in Pre - Ph.D than their M.Sc. exam
B
(b) All those students who scored 50 in Pre - Ph.D scored more marks in their M.Sc. exam
C
Two students scored the same marks in their Pre - Ph.D and M.Sc. exams
D
The student who scored maximum in M.Sc. is the only student to get maximum in Pre - Ph.D exam

Question 15Single Answer

What is the average value of y for the range of x shown in the following plot ?

A
Zero
B
1
C
1.5
D
2

Question 16Single Answer

A fair die was thrown three times and the outcome was repeatedly six. If the die is thrown again what is the probability of getting six ?

A
1/6
B
1/216
C
1/1296
D
1

Question 17Single Answer

What is the volume of soil in an open pit of size 2 m × 2 m × 10 cm ?

A
40 m³
B
0.4 m³
C
0 m³
D
4.0 m³

Question 18Single Answer

If a plant with green leaves is kept in a dark room with only green light on, which one of the following would we observe ?

A
The plant appears brighter than the surroundings
B
The plant appears darker than the surroundings
C
We cannot distinguish the plant from the surroundings
D
It will have above normal photosynthetic activity

Question 19Single Answer

The distance from city P to city Q is 27 km. A and B start walking from P towards Q at speeds of 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr, respectively. B reaches Q, returns immediately, and meets A at R. What is the distance between Pand R ? (assume all three cities to be in one straight line)

A
12.5 km
B
22.5 km
C
4.5 km
D
13.5 km

Question 20Single Answer

A floor of size 13 x 24 is to be paved using square tiles only. What is the smallest number of tiles needed to do this ?

A
6
B
15
C
8
D
9

Question 21Single Answer

Following statements are made about uncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme :
(a) Uncompetitive inhibitor binds to both free enzyme as well as an enzyme - substrate complex.
(b) Addition of uncompetitive inhibitor lowers the V_max of the reaction.
(c) Apparent K_M of the enzyme is lowered.
(d) Apparent K_M of the enzyme remains unchanged.
Which one of the following option represents the correct combination of the statments ?

A
(b) and (c)
B
(a) and (c)
C
(a) and (b)
D
(a) and (d)

Question 22Single Answer

Following are the pKa's of the ionizable groups in lysine :
pKa₁ = 2.16 (α – carboxylic group)
pKa₂ = 9.06(α – amino group)
pKa₃ = 10.54(ε – amino group)
Which one of the following options represents the pl of lysine ?

A
7.25
B
5.61
C
6.35
D
9.8

Question 23Single Answer

The enzyme alkaline phosphatase was tested for its catalytic activity using the substrate para-nitrophenylphosphate. The K_M obtained was 10 mM and V_max was 100 µ mol/min. Which one of the following options represents the initial velocity of the reaction at a substrate concentration of 10 mM?

A
50 µ mol/min
B
100 µ mol/min
C
500 µ mol/min
D
20 µ mol/min

Question 24Single Answer

How many hydrogen bonds involving the backbone CO and NH can be observed in an α - helix consisting, of 15 amino acid residues ?

A
10
B
11
C
12
D
13

Question 25Single Answer

Progression across Gl/S boundary followed by entry into S-phase is promoted by the activation of which one of the following protein complexes?

A
Cdk4/Cyclin D
B
Cdk2/ Cyclin E
C
Cdk4, 6/Cyclin
D
Cdk4, 6/Cyclin D.,E

Question 26Single Answer

In eukaryotic cells, covalently attached lipids help to anchor some water soluble proteins to the plasma membrane. One group of cytosolic proteins are anchored to the cytosolic face of membrane by a fatty acyl group (e.g. myristate or palmitate). These groups are generally covalently attached to which amino acids present at the N-terminus of the polypeptide chain ?

A
Glycine
B
Tyrosine
C
Serine
D
Lysine

Question 27Single Answer

The movement of proteins bigger than 50 kDa across the nuclear envelope requires :

A
Sec 61
B
Tom 20
C
Importin β
D
Tim 44

Question 28Single Answer

Iron - sulphur clusters [Fe - S] are the key prosthetic groups that carry electrons in all of the below EXCEPT :

A
NADH – CoQ reductase
B
Succinate – CoQ reductase
C
Cytochrome C oxidase
D
CoQH₂ – Cytochrome C reductase

Question 29Single Answer

In bacteria many of the tRNA genes do not contain the CCA sequence found at the 3' end of tRNA. In this context which one of the following statements represents the correct explanation ?

A
In these tRNAs amino acylation occurs at the 3' end of the tRNA irrespective of the presence of the - CCA sequence
B
CCA sequence is added to these tRNA transcripts in a DNA template independent manner
C
These tRNAs exploit the process of transsplicing to include a CCA sequence at their 3' end
D
The absence of CCA sequence occurred only in the last common ancestor (LCA) during the course of evolution and the current day tRNA genes always possess a sequence to encode the CCA end of the tRNA

Question 30Single Answer

Some cells possess peptides which contain D-form of amino acids. How do they arise ?

A
These peptides are produced by ribosomes by incorporating D - amino acids at specific positions
B
Ribosome makes peptides with L - amino acids only. However, some of the amino acids in the peptides are replaced by D - amino acids by a pathway that involves excision of the L - amino acids
C
The peptides with the D - amino acids are produced in a ribosome - independent manner
D
Peptides with D-amino acids exist only in archeae where they are made by the presence of racemases

Question 31Single Answer

All of the following statements about bacterial transcription termination are true EXCEPT :

A
some - terminator sequences require Rho protein for termination
B
inverted repeat and 'T' rich non - template strand define intrinsic terminators
C
Rho - dependent terminators may possess inverted repeat elements
D
Nus A is necessary for intrinsic transcription termination

Question 32Single Answer

Which one of the following proteins is essential for both the initiation of DNA replication as well as the continued advance of the replication fork ?

A
ORC
B
Geminin
C
CDc45
D
Cdc6

Question 33Single Answer

Which one of the following combinations represents the major protein or protein complex involved in chromatin condensation in yeast and human, respectively ?

A
HP1 and SIR Complex
B
SIR complex and HP1
C
HP1 and Su(var)
D
SIR complex and Su(var)

Question 34Single Answer

Which of the following is the causative agent of filariasis ?

A
Listeria monocytogenes
B
Cryptococcus neoformans
C
Francisella tularensis
D
Brugiya malayi

Question 35Single Answer

The cytoplasmic domain of the receptor of which of the following proteins does NOT function as tyrosine kinase ?

A
Epidermal growth factor
B
Platelet derived growth factor
C
Insulin
D
Asialoglycoprotein

Question 36Single Answer

Tumors are generally classified by :

A
the virus which caused them
B
the person who discovered them
C
their metastatic ability
D
the tissue or cell of origin

Question 37Single Answer

A breakthrough in cancer therapy is expected where T - cells are taken from a patient are modified in the laboratory to attack cancer cells before re - infusion in the patient. These T - cells are called:

A
cancer associated receptor T - cells
B
chimeric antigen - receptor T - cells
C
chimeric B and T cell
D
cancer antigens recognition T - cells

Question 38Single Answer

Which one of the following statements with respect to development in amphibians is correct ?

A
Gastrulation begins with the invagination of bottle cells, followed by coordinated involution of the mesodermal precursors and the epiboly of the prospective ectoderm
B
The organizer induces the Nieuwkoop centre
C
The organizer is formed by the accumulation of b - catenin
D
In the absence of BMP inhibitors ectodermal cells form neural tube

Question 39Single Answer

During normal development of sea urchin, b - catenin accumulates predominantly in the micromeres, which are fated to become endoderm and mesoderm. If GSK - 3 is blocked in the developing embryo:

A
b - catenin accumulation in the nuclei of large micromeres will be inhibited leading to formation of ectodermal ball
B
b - catenin will accumulate in the nuclei of all blastula cells leading to an ectodermal ball
C
b - catenin will accumulate in the nuclei of all blastula cells leading to animal cells getting specified as endoderm and mesoderm
D
b - catenin which accumulate in the nuclei of large micromeres will be inhibited leading to animal cells getting specified as endoderm and mesoderm

Question 40Single Answer

In which of the following stages of Arabidopsis embryogenesis do the visible distinctions between the adaxial and abaxial tissues of the cotyledons become initially apparent ?

A
Globular stage
B
Zygotic stage
C
Torpedo stage
D
Mature stage

Question 41Single Answer

In a transplantation experiment, the area of presumptive ectoderm from an early frog gastrula was transplanted to a region of the newt gastrula destined to become parts of the mouth. The resulting salamander larvae had frog like mouth parts (frog tadpole suckers) instead of balancers as observed during development of wild type newt embryo. This is an example of :

A
Determination
B
Genetic specificity of interaction
C
Regional specificity of interaction
D
Autonomous specification

Question 42Single Answer

Which of the following ' R ' gene products do not contain NBS - LRR domain ?

A
RPS2 protein of Arabidopsis
B
Xal protein of rice
C
N protein of tobacco
D
Mlo protein of barley

Question 43Single Answer

Photochemically generated ATP is consumed in which one of the following phases of Calvin- Benson cycle ?

A
Only carboxylation
B
Only regeneration
C
Carboxylation and reduction
D
Reduction and regeneration

Question 44Single Answer

Dirigent proteins predominantly play an important role in biosynthesis of :

A
lignans
B
alkaloids
C
terpenoids
D
amino acids

Question 45Single Answer

Which one of the following is used in organification of tyrosine residues in thyroglobulin protein, during thyroid hormone biosynthesis ?

A
Iodine
B
Reduced iodine
C
Oxidized iodine
D
Hydrogen iodide

Question 46Single Answer

The dark current in retina is due to :

A
Closing of Na⁺ channels in the outer segment of photoreceptors
B
Opening of K⁺ channels in the inner segment of photoreceptors
C
Opening of Na⁺ channels in the outer segment of photoreceptors
D
Closing of K⁺ channels in the outer segment of photoreceptors

Question 47Single Answer

Which one of the following is not present in the filtration slit diaphragm ?

A
NEPH1
B
Paxillin
C
Nephrin
D
NEPH2

Question 48Single Answer

DNA was isolated from a strain in bacterium with genotype a⁺ b⁺ c⁺ d⁺ e⁺ and transformed into a bacterial strain a^– b^– c^–, d– e^–. The transformants were tested for the presence of the donated genes.
The cotransformed genes were found as follows: a⁺ and b⁺ ; c⁺ and e⁺ ; d⁺ and c⁺ ; b⁺ and d⁺; What is the order of genes on the bacterial chromosome ?

A
a b c d e
B
a c b e d
C
a b c e d
D
a b d c e

Question 49Single Answer

A fly with apricot coloured eye was crossed with a sepia eyed fly of opposite sex. In F1 all flies were wild type. The genes responsible for the two phenotypes were :

A
allelic
B
non - allelic
C
pseudo - allelic
D
paralogous genes

Question 50Single Answer

Human polydactyly traits having extra fingers or toes are caused by a dominant allele. In a screening it was found that out of 42 individuals having an allele for polydactyly, only 38 of them were polydactylus. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the observation ?

A
The penetrance of polydactyly is estimated to be 90%
B
The expressivity of polydactyly is 90%
C
This is an example of variable expressivity
D
The polydactyly trait is showing complete penetrance

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Life Science

Question 51Single Answer

The basic difference between direct repair and base excision repair is :

A
Direct repair restores original structure of altered nucleotide without replacement, while in base excision repair the section of DNA containing the distortion is removed, the correct base is added and resealed
B
In direct repair, homologous recombination repairs the broken region while base excision repair restores original structure of altered nucleotide by modification
C
Direct repair restores original structure by non-homologous end joining without using homologous template while in base excision repair the section of DNA containing the distortion is repaired by using homologous recombination
D
In direct repair, an exonuclease, a DNA polymerase and a ligase are used, while in base excision repair a translesion polymerase that bypasses the bulky lesions is used by the cell

Question 52Single Answer

Eukaryotes are classified into 5 - 6 super groups based on phylogenomic studies. Which one of the following statements about eurkaryotic supergroups is FALSE ?

A
Fungi and animals are more closely related to each other than either group is to plants
B
Amoebozoa and opisthokonts are unikonts.
C
Land plants and green algae belong to Archaeplastida
D
Alveolates and amoeba belong to same super group

Question 53Single Answer

What is the pattern of cleavage observed in mammals ?

A
Radial
B
Spiral
C
Rotational
D
Bilateral

Question 54Single Answer

Which of the following combinations would best characterize the dominant phase of the life cycle of a pteridophyte ?

A
Diploid gametophyte
B
Haploid gametophyte
C
Diploid sporophyte
D
Haploid sporophyte

Question 55Single Answer

Which one of the following gases is present in the stratosphere at a concentration higher than its concentration in troposphere ?

A
Nitrogen
B
Oxygen
C
Ozone
D
Carbon dioxide

Question 56Single Answer

The graph below shows the change in the size of four populations (a) – (d) over time.

Which among the four populations (a), (b), (c) and (d) would have the lowest intrinsic rate of population growth (r) ?

A
(a)
B
(b)
C
(c)
D
(d)

Question 57Single Answer

Consider the following ecosystems.
(a) Tropical rain forests
(b) Open ocean
(c) Algal beds and Coral reefs
(d) Marshes and Swamps
Which one of the following options represents these ecosystems in an increasing order of their contribution to annual world net primary production ?

A
(b), (c), (d) and (a)
B
(c), (d), (b) a nd (a)
C
(d), (c), (a) and (b)
D
(c), (d), (a) and (b)

Question 58Single Answer

Historical frequencies of fires in an area can be determined by :

A
radioactive dating of the tree remains
B
examining the fire scars in growth rings of living trees
C
measuring carbon content on the soil surface after fire
D
examining records of evacuation history of the nearby villages

Question 59Single Answer

Given below are statements on 'living fossils'.
Select the correct statements.

A
Living fossils are impressions of extant organisms in old rocks
B
Living fossils show high morphological divergence from fossil records
C
Living fossils are always an evolutionary link between two classes of organisms
D
Living fossils are organisms that have remained unchanged for millions of years

Question 60Single Answer

Mimicry where deceptiveness of the mimic's signal is high and fitness consequences signaled to the receiver by the mimic is also high (& negative) is :

A
Batesian mimicry
B
Müllerian mimicry
C
Fisherian mimicry
D
Millerian mimicry

Question 61Single Answer

Consider the following four geological periods.
(a) Quaternary
(b) Cretaceous
(c) Jurassic
(d) Cambrian
Which one of the following options represents the correct arrangement of these geological periods from earliest to recent :

A
(a), (b), (d), (c)
B
(d), (c), (b), (a)
C
(c), (b), (d), (a)
D
(b), (a), (c), (d)

Question 62Single Answer

Select the correct statement related to phylogeny of primates

A
Lemurs are more closely related to lorises than to gibbons
B
Orangutans are closer to lorises than to gibbons
C
Tarsiers are same as old world monkeys
D
Humans are closer to new world monkeys than to orangutans

Question 63Single Answer

Which one of the following combinations of terms is matched INCORRECTLY ?

A
Nanopore : DNA sequencing
B
Pyrosequencing : Protein primary structure
C
Homologous recombination : chloroplast transformation
D
SSRs : Co - dominant markers

Question 64Single Answer

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A
If a transgenic plant heterozygous for an insert segregates into 1 : 1 ratio for the transgenic phenotype on back-crossing then it contains two unlinked copies of the insert
B
ANOVA allows a plant breeder to test whether measurements from three or more treatments show statistically significant differences
C
Comparative genomics allows scientists to identify regions of collinearity but not synteny between different species
D
For genetic mapping of a quantitative trait in plants, an RIL mapping population comprising of individuals that are heterozygous at most loci is preferred

Question 65Single Answer

Which one of the following regions of the target gene is NOT used for making an RNAi construct to knock down its expression ?

A
5' UTR of the mature transcript
B
3' UTR of the mature transcript
C
Exonic region
D
Intronic region

Question 66Single Answer

Which one of the following options represents a combination of terms that are matched INCORRECTLY ?

A
ddNTPs : Chain termination
B
South Western blot: Physical interaction between DNA and proteins
C
5' – 3' exonuclease activity : Proof reading polymerase for PCR
D
Yeast two hybrid system: Interaction between proteins

Question 67Single Answer

For a nuclear spin of spin quantum no.

, precessing in a magnetic field at a Larmor frequency of 300 MHz, the wavelength of incident radiation required to excite the nuclear spins must be approximately.

A
1 nm
B
1 cm
C
1 m
D
10 m

Question 68Single Answer

Widal test, a widely used serological test for enteric fever, is a type of :

A
Precipitation reaction
B
Agglutination reaction
C
Complement fixation test
D
Immunofluorescence detection

Question 69Single Answer

Fluorescence microscope that requires photo - activatable probes to obtain super - resolution is :

A
Structured illumination microscope (SIM)
B
DSTORM - stochastic optical reconstruction microscopy
C
Stimulated emission depletion microscopy (STED)
D
Laser scanning confocal microscope

Question 70Single Answer

A protein solution (0.2 ml) of unknown concentration was diluted with 0.8 ml of water. To 0.5 ml of this diluted solution 4.5 ml of biuret reagent was added and the colour allowed to develop. The absorbance of this mixture taken in a test tube of 1 cm diameter at 540 nm was observed to be 0.20 .0 .5 ml of BSA (4 mg/ml) solution plus 4.5 ml of biuret gave an absorbance of 0.20 when measured as above. What is the protein concentration (mg/ ml) in the undiluted unkown solution ?

A
20
B
40
C
50
D
80

Question 71Single Answer

A schematic of a metabolic pathway is shown below :

Under which of the following conditions would stoichiometric amounts of end products K and L be obtained if a concerted feedback inhibition mechanism were in operation ?

A
K inhibits F → G and L inhibits F → H : D → E is inhibited at equal amounts of K and L
B
D → E is inhibited at equal amounts of K and L : K inhibits F → H and L inhibits F → G
C
D → E is inhibited at equal amount of G and H : K inhibits F → H and L inhibits F → G
D
K inhibits F → H and L inhibits F → G

Question 72Single Answer

The following statements are being made to define the Michaelis constant (K_M). It is :
(a) Independent of enzyme concentration (E) and substrate concentration [S]
(b) Equal to the dissociation constant when the [ES] complex dissociates more rapidly than product formation
(c) Equal to the dissociation constant when product formation is more rapid than [ES] complex dissociation
(d) An intrinsic property of an enzyme and does not depends on pH, temperature and ionic strength
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct ?

A
(a) and (b) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(c) and (d) only
D
(a) and (d) only

Question 73Single Answer

The table below lists the biochemical characteristics of proteins and experimental procedures used to determine them. Match the characteristics with the experimental procedure.

	List - I		List - II
	(Biochemical Characteristics)		(Experimental Procedure)
(a)	B - dimensional struchure	(i)	Nuclear magnetic resonance
(b)	Ionic Charge	(ii)	Isoelectric focusing
(c)	Binding	(iii)	Affinity specificity Chromatography
(d)	Molecular size	(iv)	Ultracentrifugation

Which one of the following matches is correct ?

A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
D
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Question 74Single Answer

A circular dichroism spectrum in the far - UV region informs on the kind and content of secondary structures in a protein. Near - UV and tryptophan emission spectra inform on the tertiary structure. Shown in the panels above are (A) intrinsic fluorescence emission spectra of protein ' X ', (B) Far - UV CD spectra of protein ' X ', (C) Near - UV CD spectra of protein ' X ' recorded under different conditions.
Curves represent the spectra of protein ' X ' at pH 7.0 (black), pH 3.0 (green), and pH 7.0 in the presence of 6.0 M guanidine hydrochloride (red). What does the experiment report ?

A
Protein is fully folded at pH 7.0, acidinduced molten globule at pH 3.0 and unfolded in 6 M guanidine hydrochloride
B
Protein secondary structure is reduced at pH 7.0 and the protein has formed beta fibrils at the other two conditions
C
The changes in fluorescence and near-UV CD indicate increase in hydrodynamic radius at pH 3.0 and in 6 M guanidine hydrochloride
D
There is extensive denaturation of the protein both at pH 3.0 and in 6 M guanidine hydrochloride

Question 75Single Answer

The pl of four proteins (A, B, C, D) are shown in the table below :

To purify ' D ' from a mixture of these four proteins in a single step, using ion - exchange chromatography, what combination of buffer pH and ion - exchange resin would you select ?

A
pH 11, cation exchanger resin
B
pH 2, anion exchanger resin
C
pH 6, anion exchanger resin
D
pH 8, cation exchanger resin

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Life Science

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Life Science

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