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Question for Railway SER Apprentice - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 13, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

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To boost your performance in Railway SER Apprentice exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in Railway SER Apprentice exams.

Latest Railway SER Apprentice Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, Numerical Ability, Reasoning, General Awareness, General Science

Question Bank Railway SER Apprentice Exam - English

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General Knowledge

Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
  1. A.National Income Committee
  2. B.Planning Commission
  3. C.Reserve Bank Of India
  4. D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
  1. A.April 1951         
  2. B.April 1955
  3. C.April 1957         
  4. D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
  1. A.2008     
  2. B.2009
  3. C.2010     
  4. D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
  1. A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
  2. B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
  3. C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
  4. D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
  1. A.President
  2. B.Prime Minister
  3. C.Finance Minister
  4. D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
  1. A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
  2. B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
  3. C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
  4. D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
  1. A.Dutt committee
  2. B.Lakdawala committee
  3. C.Cheliah Committee
  4. D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
  1. A.1975                 
  2. B.1981
  3. C.1991                 
  4. D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
            Which of the above statements are correct
  1. A.1,2 and 3          
  2. B.1,2 and 4
  3. C.1,3 and 4          
  4. D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
  1. A.April 2001         
  2. B.March 2000
  3. C.June 2002
  4. D.April 2002

Numerical Ability

Q 21 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
  1. A.2 hours
  2. B.3 hours
  3. C.4 hours
  4. D.5 hours
Q 22 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
  1. A.69
  2. B.96
  3. C.78
  4. D.Cannot be determined
  5. E.None of these
Q 23 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
  1. A.12
  2. B.13
  3. C.14
  4. D.10
  5. E.None of these
Q 24 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
    Q 25 :
    The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
    1. A.42
    2. B.38
    3. C.32
    4. D.72
    5. E.None of these
    Q 26 :
    Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
    1. A.18
    2. B.16
    3. C.19
    4. D.17
    5. E.None of these
    Q 27 :
    The difference between th of th of a number and  of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
    1. A.45
    2. B.35
    3. C.40
    4. D.30
    5. E.None of these
    Q 28 :
    If  is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
    1. A.2024
    2. B.2104
    3. C.2004
    4. D.2014
    5. E.None of these
    Q 29 :
    ‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
    1. A.38
    2. B.42
    3. C.44
    4. D.34
    5. E.None of these
    Q 30 :
    The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
    1. A.20
    2. B.22
    3. C.21
    4. D.23
    5. E.None of these
    Q 31 :
    If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
    1. A.50
    2. B.75
    3. C.57
    4. D.60
    5. E.None of these
    Q 32 :
    IF the sum of four consecutive even number  is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
    1. A.52
    2. B.54
    3. C.56
    4. D.48
    5. E.None of these
    Q 33 :
    If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
      Q 34 :
      What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
      1. A.118
      2. B.95
      3. C.110
      4. D.100
      5. E.None of these
      Q 35 :
      What is 234 time 167 ?
      1. A.48768
      2. B.41184
      3. C.40581
      4. D.39078
      5. E.None of these

      Reasoning

      Q 36 :
      How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
      1. A.Two
      2. B.Three
      3. C.Five
      4. D.Four
      5. E.None of these
      Q 37 :
      Team A has scored more goals than Team B
      Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
      Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
      If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
      1. A.True
      2. B.False
      3. C.Uncertain
      4. D.None
      Q 38 :
      If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
      1. A.A
      2. B.E
      3. C.T
      4. D.X
      5. E.Y
      Q 39 :
      How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
      1. A.None            
      2. B.One         
      3. C.Two       
      4. D.Three        
      5. E.More than three
      Q 40 :
      How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
      1. A.None
      2. B.One
      3. C.Two
      4. D.Three
      5. E.More than three
      Q 41 :
      How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
      1. A.None
      2. B.One
      3. C.Two
      4. D.Three
      5. E.More than three
      Q 42 :
      If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
      1. A.T
      2. B.L
      3. C.E
      4. D.Y
      5. E.X
      Q 43 :
      If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
      1. A.None
      2. B.One
      3. C.Two
      4. D.Three
      5. E.More than three
      Q 44 :
      How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
      1. A.None
      2. B.One
      3. C.Two
      4. D.Three
      5. E.More than three
      Q 45 :
      If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
      1. A.V
      2. B.T
      3. C.E
      4. D.A
      5. E.B
      Q 46 :
      If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
      1. A.N
      2. B.Q
      3. C.J
      4. D.M
      5. E.None of these
      Q 47 :
      How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
      1. A.None
      2. B.One
      3. C.Two
      4. D.Three
      5. E.None of these
      Q 48 :
      Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
      Arguments :
      I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
      II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
      1. A.The only argument I is strong
      2. B.Only argument II is strong
      3. C.Either I or II is strong
      4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
      Q 49 :
      If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
      1. A.P
      2. B.L
      3. C.T
      4. D.X
      5. E.Y
      Q 50 :
      How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
      1. A.None
      2. B.One
      3. C.Two
      4. D.Three
      5. E.More than three

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