In anemophylous plants, pollen are disseminated by means of_______
A
Insects
B
Water
C
Wind
D
Gravity
Question 2Single Answer
Production of seeds without fertilization is termed as______
A
Parthenocarpy
B
Parthenogenesis
C
Gametogenesis
D
All of the above
Question 3Single Answer
Removal of off type plants from a seed field is termed as_________
A
Weeding
B
Rouging
C
Hoeing
D
Clearing
Question 4Single Answer
Hormones which control apical dominance are______
A
Auxins
B
Cytokinins
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
Gibberellins
Question 5Single Answer
Turmeric is propagated by _____
A
Corms
B
Seed
C
Rhizome
D
Bulbs
Question 6Single Answer
Maturation of anthers and stigma at the same time is called as_______
A
Homogamy
B
Chasmogamy
C
Cleistogamy
D
Dichogamy
Question 7Single Answer
An out-of-school system of education for rural people:
A
Extension
B
Management
C
Participation
D
Communication
Question 8Single Answer
Extension literally means:
A
Stretching out
B
Talking with
C
Deciding for
D
Thinking about
Question 9Single Answer
The term ‘Extension’ have originated in:
A
Latin
B
Persian
C
Greek
D
Sanskrit
Question 10Single Answer
The Latin roots for the word ‘extension’:
A
ex and tensio
B
ex and tension
C
ex and luceo
D
ex and termo
Question 11Single Answer
The term “University Extension” was first used in:
A
1866
B
1972
C
1901
D
1921
Question 12Single Answer
The person considered as father of extension:
A
James Stewatt
B
Seaman A Knapp
C
Edgar Dale
D
Paul Leagans
Question 13Single Answer
The term “Extension Education” was first coined in:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Netherlands
D
India
Question 14Single Answer
The first use of the word extension was done by:
A
Vorhees
B
Seaman A Knapp
C
Edgar Dale
D
Paul Leagans
Question 15Single Answer
The person considered as father of extension in india:
A
Adivi Reddy
B
O P Dahama
C
K N Singh
D
J B Chitambar
Question 16Single Answer
Extension can be considered to have developed from:
A
Sociology
B
Psychology
C
Education
D
Philosophy
Question 17Single Answer
‘Vulgarisation’ in French is equivalent to the word:
A
Social taboos
B
Education
C
Extension
D
Social change
Question 18Single Answer
According to UPOV Act 1978, the period of protection for field crops is:
A
10 Years
B
12 Years
C
15 Years
D
18 Years
Question 19Single Answer
Plant variety Protection Act was initially signed into law in the country
A
Russia
B
USA
C
Japan
D
Canada
Question 20Single Answer
The genetic purity of seed is examined by:
A
Viability test
B
Seed health test
C
Grow out test
D
Moisture test
Question 21Single Answer
Cuscuta is an objectionable weed in:
A
Lettuce
B
Cucurbits
C
Lucerne
D
Mustard
Question 22Single Answer
In sunflower, production of foundation seed requires an isolation distance of:
A
200 metres
B
100 metres
C
400 metres
D
800 metres
Question 23Single Answer
Which of the following crops have been approved for commercial cultivation in India ?
A
Bt cotton and Bt brinjal
B
Bt cotton and Golden rice
C
Bt maize and Bt cotton
D
Bt cotton only
Question 24Single Answer
This year (2010-11) the expected food grain production in India is
A
212 million tonnes
B
220 million tonnes
C
235 million tonnes
D
250 million tonnes
Question 25Single Answer
The genome of which of the following crops is still not completely sequenced ?
A
Rice
B
Soybean
C
Sorghum
D
Wheat
Question 26Single Answer
First Forest Policy in Independent India was enacted in
A
1952
B
1954
C
1955
D
1960
Question 27Single Answer
Kashmir state is placed in which schedule?
A
Schedule I
B
Schedule II
C
Schedule III
D
Schedule IV
Question 28Single Answer
Project elephant came into existence in the year
A
1990
B
1992
C
1994
D
1996
Question 29Single Answer
The Project Tiger was initiated in the year:
A
1971
B
1972
C
1973
D
1974
Question 30Single Answer
Fat contain
A
3.9 Kcal. of energy per gm
B
9.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
C
9.3 Kcal. of energy per molecule
D
7.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
Question 31Single Answer
The proteins found only in animal body are
A
Glutelins
B
Albumins
C
Scleroproteins
D
All of the above
Question 32Single Answer
The sulphur containing amino acids are
A
Lysine
B
Alanine & valine
C
Arginine
D
Cysteine & methionine
Question 33Single Answer
Zwitter ion contain
A
+ve charge
B
-ve charge
C
Little or no net charge
D
More +ve charge and less -ve charge
Question 34Single Answer
The water soluble vitamins are
A
Vitamin A and D
B
Vitamin B - complex and Vitamin C
C
Vitamin E and K
D
All of the above
Question 35Single Answer
Gallic acid is chief components of
A
Condensed tannins
B
Hydrolysable tannins
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 36Single Answer
The flavonoids synthesized in plants are by
A
Mevaloni acid pathway
B
Malonic acid pathway
C
Shikmic acid pathway
D
Both (a) & (b)
Question 37Single Answer
Which state in India receives the highest annual rainfall, making it ideal for paddy cultivation?
A
Punjab
B
Kerala
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Jammu & Kashmir
Question 38Single Answer
The "Mediterranean climate" with mild winters and dry summers favors the growth of which major crop?
A
Rice
B
Grapes
C
Sugarcane
D
Potatoes
Question 39Single Answer
The "Black Prairies" region of the United States is known for its fertile soil and ideal climate for growing:
A
Citrus fruits
B
Corn and soybeans
C
Cotton and tobacco
D
Coffee and tea
Question 40Single Answer
Jute, a fiber crop, thrives in which Indian state with its warm, humid climate and alluvial soil?
A
Rajasthan
B
West Bengal
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Himachal Pradesh
Chemistry
Question 41Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 42Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 43Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 44Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 45Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
Question 46Single Answer
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Question 47Single Answer
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A
AB2
B
A2B
C
AB
D
AB3
Question 48Single Answer
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position
Question 49Single Answer
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A
PCI5
B
PCI3
C
SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Question 50Single Answer
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A
in between C2H6 and C2H4
B
same as in C2H4
C
in between C2H6 and C2H2
D
in between C2H4 and C2H2
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Chemistry
Question 51Single Answer
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A
methanal
B
propanal
C
propanone
D
ethanal
Question 52Single Answer
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A
CH3CH2OH
B
CH3 – C – CH3
C
(CH3)2CHOH
D
CH3CHO
Question 53Single Answer
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A
NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B
NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C
(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D
CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Question 54Single Answer
The one which has least iodine value is
A
sunflower oil
B
ginger oil
C
ghee
D
groundnut oil
Question 55Single Answer
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A
glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B
glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C
glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D
glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Question 56Single Answer
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
A
8000
B
6470
C
7465
D
5360
Question 57Single Answer
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
A
403 K
B
303 K
C
606 K
D
273 K
Question 58Single Answer
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
A
m–bromophenol
B
2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C
2-4 dibromophenol
D
A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Question 59Single Answer
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
A
Nickel
B
Zinc
C
Sodium
D
Aluminium
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
A
Benzyl alcohol
B
Acetophenone
C
Anisole
D
Toluene
Question 61Single Answer
The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:
A
Guanine
B
Adenine
C
Uracil
D
Thymine
Question 62Single Answer
The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:
A
7
B
3
C
8
D
14
Question 63Single Answer
Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :
A
Dehydrogenation
B
Dehydration
C
Dehydrohalogenation
D
Dehalogenation
Question 64Single Answer
Which of the following is the correct statement?
A
Order of a reaction has always an integral value
B
Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
C
Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
D
Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law
Question 65Single Answer
The unit of quantity of electricity is:
A
Ohm
B
Ampere
C
Coulomb
D
Volt
Question 66Single Answer
Which of the following organic compounds answers both iodoform test and fehling’s test ?
A
Methanal
B
Ethanol
C
Propane
D
Ethanal
Question 67Single Answer
10 dm3 of N2 gas and 10 dm3 of gas X at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules.
A
NO
B
H2
C
CO2 or CO
D
All of these
Question 68Single Answer
When the electrons of hydrogen atoms return to L shell from shells of higher energy, we get a series of lines in the spectrum. This series is called
A
Balmer series
B
Lyman series
C
Bracket series
D
Paschen series
Question 69Single Answer
The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is:
A
Glycol
B
Glycerol
C
Propanol
D
Pentanol
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following alloys is used for making magnets for hearing aids?
A
Alnico
B
German silver
C
Invar
D
Monel metal
Question 71Single Answer
One dm3 of 2M ethanoic acid is mixed with one dm3 of 3M ethanol to form an easter
CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 +H2O
The decrease in the initial rate if each solution is diluted with an equal volume of water would be
A
2 times
B
4 times
C
0.25 times
D
0.5 times
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following can be classified as a Bronstead base?
A
NO3-
B
H3O+
C
CH3COOH
D
NH4+
Question 73Single Answer
Gold sol is an electronegative sol. The amount of electrolyte required to coagulate a certain amount of gold sol is minimum in the case of :
A
CaCl2
B
NaCl
C
AlCl3
D
Na2SO4
Question 74Single Answer
Aluminium displaces hydrogen from acids, but copper does not. A Galvanic cell prepared by combining Cu/Cu2+ and Al/Al3+ has an emf of 2.0 V at 298 K. If the potential of copper electrode is +0.34 V, that of aluminium electrode is:
A
– 2.3 V
B
+ 2.34 V
C
– 1.66 V
D
+ 1.66 V
Question 75Single Answer
1.5 moles of O2 combine with Mg to form the oxide MgO. The mass of Mg that has combined is (Mg = 24):
A
72 g
B
36 g
C
48 g
D
24 g
Question 76Single Answer
How much of NaOH is required to neutralize 1500 cm3 of 0.1 N HCI?(Na = 23):
A
60 g
B
6 g
C
4 g
D
40 g
Question 77Single Answer
The boiling point of water is exceptionally high because:
A
Water molecule is not linear
B
Water molecule is linear
C
There is covalent bond between H and O
D
Water molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding
Question 78Single Answer
P4O10 is not used with to dry NH3 gas because:
A
P4O10 is basic and NH3 is acidic
B
P4O10 is acidic and NH3 is basic
C
P4O10 is not a drying agent
D
P4O10 reacts with moisture in NH3
Question 79Single Answer
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 years. What percentage of the original amount of it remain after 20 years:
A
1
B
12.5
C
8
D
25
Question 80Single Answer
75% of a first order reaction is completed in 30 minutes. What is the time required for 93.75% of the reaction (in minutes)?
A
45
B
120
C
90
D
60
Biology
Question 81Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 83Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 84Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 85Single Answer
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Question 86Single Answer
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Question 87Single Answer
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A
B,C and D
B
A and D
C
B and D
D
A, B and C
Question 88Single Answer
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Question 89Single Answer
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A
Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B
Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C
Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Question 90Single Answer
Stoma opens, when
A
guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B
guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C
guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D
guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following is properly matched ?
A
Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
B
Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
C
arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
D
Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Question 92Single Answer
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
A
medulla oblongata
B
pons
C
cerebellum
D
hypothalamus
Question 93Single Answer
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
A
protein particles
B
a class of bacteria
C
a class of viruses
D
fungi
Question 94Single Answer
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
A
grafting
B
hybridization
C
embryo culture
D
shoot apex culture
Question 95Single Answer
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
A
cyanosis
B
bronchitis
C
rhinitis
D
bronchial carcinoma
Question 96Single Answer
Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A: Secretion of FSH
B: Growth of corpus luteum
C: Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D: Ovulation
E: Sudden increase in the levels of LH
A
C → A → D → B → E
B
A → C → E → D → B
C
A → D → C → E → B
D
B → A → C → D → E
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only ?
A
Amoeba, sponge, leech
B
Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
C
Earthworm, sponge, leech
D
Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Question 98Single Answer
Vaccination against small pox was developed by:
A
Louis Pasteur
B
Edward jenner
C
Robert Koch
D
Alexander Flemming
Question 99Single Answer
The value of human diastolic blood pressure is :
A
120 – 80 = 40 mm. Hg
B
120 mm. Hg
C
80 mm. Hg
D
128/80 mm. Hg
Question 100Single Answer
Balance theory of sex determination holds good for:
A
Allium cepa
B
Drosophila
C
Humans
D
grasshoppers
Question 101Single Answer
the plants respond to photo – periods due to the presence of :
A
Phytochromes
B
Stomata
C
Enzymes
D
Phytohormones
Question 102Single Answer
Identify the edible fresh-water telesots:
A
Sharks
B
Rays and skates
C
Hilsa ilisha
D
Catla catla
Question 103Single Answer
Plasmids occur in:
A
Viruses
B
Chromosomes
C
Bacteria
D
Chloroplasts
Question 104Single Answer
Match the names of antibiotics listed under column 1 with their source given under column 2; choose the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns:
The bond formed between the first phosphate group and adenosine in ATP is:
A
Nitro – phosphate bond
B
Adeno – phosphate bond
C
Phosphoester bond
D
Phosphoanhydride bond
Question 106Single Answer
The protists have:
A
Gene containing nucleo-proteins condensed together in loose mass
B
Nucleo-protein in direct contact with the nest of the cell substance
C
Only tree nucleic acid aggregates
D
Membrane bound nucleo-proteins lying embedded in the cytoplasm
Question 107Single Answer
Antrum is the cavity of:
A
Gastrula
B
Graffian follicle
C
Ovary
D
Blastula
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A
Endospores are produced in pteridophyta
B
Naked seeds are seen in gymnosperms
C
Capsule is present in the sporophyte of bryophyte
D
Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of fungus
Question 109Single Answer
The pioneers in the field of organic evolution are:
A
Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxely
B
Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin
C
Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, De Vries
D
Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, De Vries
Question 110Single Answer
This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissues:
A
These cells never produce glands
B
The cells have a rapid rate of cell division
C
Tissues are highly vascularized
D
Large intercellular spaces are seen between the cells
Question 111Single Answer
Great Indian Bustard sanctuary is located in:
A
Rajasthan
B
Maharashtra
C
Pakistan
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 112Single Answer
The result of ozone hole is:
A
Acid rain
B
Global warming
C
The UV radiations reach the earth
D
Greenhouse effect
Question 113Single Answer
This is not cells of areolar tissue:
A
Macrophages
B
Schwann cell
C
Plasma cell
D
Adipose cell
Question 114Single Answer
The pH of stomach range between:
A
7.1 – 8.2
B
7.6 – 8.6
C
1.5 – 2.0
D
6.8 – 7.2
Question 115Single Answer
Match the name of the experiments listed under column 1 with the aim of the experiment given under column 2; choose the answer which give the correct combination of the alphabets:
column 1
column 2
A.
Gridling experiment
p
Ascent of sap
B.
Cobalt chloride paper method
q
Transpiration
C.
Crescograph
r
Unequel transpiration on leaf surfaces
D.
Bell jar experiment
s
translocation
A
A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q
B
A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
C
A = q, B = p, C = s, D = r
D
A = s, B = p, C = q, D = r
Question 116Single Answer
Number of endangered species of angiosperms in India is:
A
15,000
B
500
C
3,000
D
None of these
Question 117Single Answer
Transduction in bacteria is mediated by:
A
Cosmids
B
F - factors
C
Plasmid vectors
D
Phage vectors
Question 118Single Answer
Match the common name of diseases listed under column 1 unit their medical terms listed under column 2; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns:
Column 1
Column 2
A.
Blood clotting in small capillaries
p
Rhinitis
B.
Value defects
q
Stenosis
C.
Hay fever
r
Parkinson's disease
D.
Paralysis
s
Coronany thrombosis
A
A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r
B
A = r, B = s, C = q, D = p
C
A = q, B = s, C = r, D = p
D
A =s, B = p, C = r, D = q
Question 119Single Answer
The cell wall of bacteria is composed of:
A
Murein
B
Chitin
C
Cellulose
D
Suberin
Question 120Single Answer
The phenomenon, in which an allele of one gene suppresses the activity of an allele of another gene, is known as:
A
Suppression
B
Inactivation
C
Epistasis
D
Dominance
Mathematics
Question 121Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 122Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 123Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 124Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 125Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 126Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 127Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 128Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 129Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 130Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 132Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 133Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 134Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 135Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 136Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 137Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 138Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 139Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 140Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 141Single Answer
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct
Question 143Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 144Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 145Single Answer
What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11
Question 146Single Answer
If A and B are two given sets, then A (A B)C is equal to
A
A
B
B
C
D
Question 147Single Answer
121 Divided by 11 is
A
11
B
10
C
19
D
18
Question 148Single Answer
Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n = 100, then n is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
A
600
B
700
C
800
D
900
Question 149Single Answer
A
{3, 4, 10}
B
{2, 8, 10}
C
{4, 5, 6}
D
{3, 5, 14}
Question 150Single Answer
Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then
A
B
C
D
Question 151Single Answer
If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4 and x N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x N}, then A B consists of all multiples of
A
16
B
12
C
8
D
4
Question 152Single Answer
A
A = B
B
B = C
C
A = C
D
None of these
Question 153Single Answer
A
equal
B
disjoint
C
either equal or disjoint
D
none of the above
Question 154Single Answer
A
{–i, i}
B
{–1, 1}
C
{–1, 1, i, –i}
D
None of these
Question 155Single Answer
If A = {x : f(x)= 0} and
B = {x : g(x) = 0}, then A B will be
A
[f(x)]2 + [g(x)]2 = 0
B
C
D
None of the above
Question 156Single Answer
In a group of 400 people, 250 can speak Hindi and 200 can speak English. Then, people who can speak both Hindi and English are
A
60
B
80
C
50
D
45
Question 157Single Answer
20 teachers of a school either teach Mathematics or Physics. 12 of them teach Mathematics while 4 teach both the subjects. The number of teacher teaching Physics only, is
A
12
B
8
C
16
D
20
Question 158Single Answer
In a class of 100 students, 70 have taken Science, 60 have taken Mathematics, 40 have taken both Science and Mathematics. The number of students who have not taken Science or Mathematics or both Science and Mathematics, is equal to
A
90
B
10
C
30
D
20
Question 159Single Answer
A market research group conducted a survey of 1000 consumers and reported that 720 consumers like product A and 450 consumers like the product B, then least number that must have like both products, is
A
730
B
170
C
180
D
1270
Question 160Single Answer
If there are three athletic teams in a school, 21 are in the basketball team, 26 in hockey team and 29 in the football team. 14 play hockey and basketball, 15 play hockey and football, 12 play football and basketball and 8 play all the games. The total number of members is
A
42
B
43
C
45
D
None of these
Physics
Question 161Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 162Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 163Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 164Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 165Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 166Single Answer
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter
Question 167Single Answer
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only
Question 168Single Answer
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only
Question 169Single Answer
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Question 170Single Answer
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium
Question 171Single Answer
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A
(2𝜋 + 1)λ
B
2n𝜋
C
nλ
D
n
Question 172Single Answer
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A
multimeter
B
voltmeter
C
voltameter
D
potentiometer
Question 173Single Answer
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A
Both K and L increase
B
Both K and L remain unchanged
C
K remains constant, L increases
D
K increases but L remains constant
Question 174Single Answer
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A
Gas constant (R)
B
Pressure (p)
C
Volume (V)
D
Temperature (T)
Question 175Single Answer
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A
300 m
B
3 km
C
15 m
D
15 km
Question 176Single Answer
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
A
25 kWh
B
9 x 1010 kWh
C
3 x 1010 kWh
D
0.5 x 105 kWh
Question 177Single Answer
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
A
5 and 6
B
5 and 7
C
2 and 7
D
2 and 6
Question 178Single Answer
β-decay means emission of electron from
A
innermost electron orbit
B
a stable nucleus
C
outermost electron orbit
D
radioactive nucleus
Question 179Single Answer
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
A
0.8 A
B
2.5 A
C
0.4 A
D
1.25 A
Question 180Single Answer
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
A
50 s-2
B
25 s-2
C
12.5 s-2
D
6.25 s-2
Question 181Single Answer
A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35o with respect to the direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is
A
35o
B
50o
C
55o
D
60o
Question 182Single Answer
A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms-2. The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms-2)
A
0.015 N
B
0.15 N
C
0.030 N
D
zero
Question 183Single Answer
The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids are called
A
emulsions
B
gels
C
foams
D
liquid crystals
Question 184Single Answer
In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained during visible light because
A
I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
B
scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
C
the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
D
scattering of I–R light is less than visible light
Question 185Single Answer
Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body
A
can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
B
can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
C
cannot keep the body in equilibrium
D
can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle
Question 186Single Answer
Sound waves transfer
A
only energy not momentum
B
energy
C
momentum
D
both (a) and (b)
Question 187Single Answer
G P Thomson experimentally confirmed the existence of matter waves by the phenomena
A
diffraction
B
refraction
C
polarisation
D
scattering
Question 188Single Answer
The resistance of a wire at 300 K is found to be 0.3 Ω. If the temperature coefficient of resistance of wire is 1.5 x 10-3 K-1, the temperature at which the resistance becomes 0.6 Ω is
A
720 K
B
345 K
C
993 K
D
690 K
Question 189Single Answer
Two luminous points sources separated by a certain distance are at 10 km from an observer. If the aperture of his eye is 2.5 x 10-3 m and the wavelength of light used is 500 nm the distance of separation between the point sources just seen to be resolved is
A
12.2 m
B
24.2 m
C
2.44 m
D
1.22 m
Question 190Single Answer
A door 1.6 m wide requires a force of N to be applied at the free end to open or close it. The force that is required at a point 0.4 m distance from the hinges for opening or closing the door is
A
1.2 N
B
3.6 N
C
2.4 N
D
4 N
Question 191Single Answer
0.1 m3 of water at 80o C. The final temperature of the mixture is
A
65oC
B
70oC
C
60oC
D
75oC
Question 192Single Answer
The spectral series of the hydrogen atom that lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum
A
Paschen
B
Balmer
C
Lyman
D
Brackett
Question 193Single Answer
A resistor and a capacitor are connected inseries with an AC source. If the potential drop across the capacitor is 5 V and that across resistor is 12 V, then applied voltage is
A
13 V
B
17 V
C
5 V
D
12 V
Question 194Single Answer
The amount of heat energy radiated by a metal at temperature T is E. When the temperature is increased to 3T, energy radiated is
A
8 1E
B
9 E
C
3 E
D
27 E
Question 195Single Answer
A man, of mass 60 kg, is riding in a lift. The weights of the man, when the lift is accelerating upwards and down wards at 2m/s2 are respectively (Taking g=2m/s2)
A
720 N and 480 N
B
480 N and 720 N
C
600 N and 800 N
D
None of these
Question 196Single Answer
A galvanometer of resistance 240 Ω allows only 4% of the main current after connecting a shunt resistance. The value of the shunt resistance is
A
10 Ω
B
20 Ω
C
8 Ω
D
5 Ω
Question 197Single Answer
The phenomena in which proton flips is
A
nuclear magnetic resonance
B
lasers
C
radioactivity
D
nuclear fusion
Question 198Single Answer
According to the quark model, it is possible to build all the hadrons using
A
2 quarks and 3 antiquarks
B
1 quarks and 2 antiquarks
C
3 quarks and 3 antiquarks
D
2 quarks and 2 antiquarks
Question 199Single Answer
The surface temperature of the stars is determined using
A
Planck’s law
B
Wien’s displacement law
C
Rayleigh-Jeans law
D
Kirchhoff’s law
Question 200Single Answer
A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens parallel to its principal axis. As one moves away from the lens on the other side of the principal axis, the intensity of light