Question Bank
Rajasthan Pharmacist Exam - English
Duration: 180 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150 · Language: 3
General Knowledge
1
Yojna a weekly journal
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
3
Devaluation of a currency means
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
6
What is Net National Product
7
National income is the
8
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
9
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
10
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
11
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
12
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
13
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
14
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
15
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
16
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
17
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
18
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
19
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
20
When was first human development report of India issued
21
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
22
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
23
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
24
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
25
A closed economy is an economy in which
26
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
27
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
28
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
29
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
30
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
31
Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission
32
__________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National Development Council
33
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India
34
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of India
35
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commisison
36
What fraction of India's total area is covered by Rajasthan?
37
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
38
Which district has highest population in Rajasthan?
39
What fraction of Rajasthan's total area is covered by Thar Desert?
40
The temple city of Osean in Rajasthan was established by which of the following Rajputs?
41
Glaw Lake, recently designated as India’s 101st Ramsar Site, is located in which state/UT?
42
Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rojgar Yojana (PM-VBRY) completed one year in August 2026. How many first-time workers were formalised under it?
43
Which country topped the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2026 released by Yale University?
44
India’s rank in the Environmental Performance Index 2026 was:
45
The Pacific island nation of Nauru officially renamed itself as:
Pharmacist
1
Creaming is a ________ process.
2
o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.
3
______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.
4
Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.
5
The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____
6
Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?
7
Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?
8
According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?
9
Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?
10
Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?
11
Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?
12
According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.
13
____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributions is of globules is not uniform.
14
The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______
15
According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?
16
The ratio of oil : water : gum, used for the preparation of a primary emulsion containing a fixed oil is ____
17
The percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P is ___
18
Commonly used solvent in throat paint is ____
19
Lugol's solution is an aqueous solution containing iodine together with which substance to enhance iodine solubility?
20
Which of the following processes is used for the extraction of volatile oils from plants?
21
In atherosclerosis, the serum level of____decreases.
22
Which drug can significantly increase plasma digoxin concentrations and thereby increase the risk of digitalis toxicity?
23
When quinidine is initiated in a patient receiving digoxin, which measure is particularly important?
24
Name a substitute of enalapril.
25
Antihypertensive drugs Mode of action
1. Methyldopa (A) Ganglion blocker
2. Hydralazine (B) Depletion of catecholamines
3. Reserpine (C) Direct action on arterioles
4. Mecamylamine (D) False neurotransmitter
1. Methyldopa (A) Ganglion blocker
2. Hydralazine (B) Depletion of catecholamines
3. Reserpine (C) Direct action on arterioles
4. Mecamylamine (D) False neurotransmitter
26
Match the cardiovascular drug with its principal pharmacological action:
1. Papaverine – Vasodilator
2. Verapamil – Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine – Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine – β₁-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?
1. Papaverine – Vasodilator
2. Verapamil – Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine – Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine – β₁-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?
27
Which of the following are the potential targets for designing antihypertensive drugs?
(A) H2-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C)
- adrenergic receptors
(D) Calcium channel proteins
(A) H2-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C)
- adrenergic receptors(D) Calcium channel proteins
28
Hypotensive agents Mode of action
1. Clonidine (A) Direct action on blood vessels
2. Captopril (B) - adrenoceptor antagonist
3. Prazosin (C) Decreases sympathetic activity through brain
4. Minoxidil (D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
1. Clonidine (A) Direct action on blood vessels
2. Captopril (B) - adrenoceptor antagonist
3. Prazosin (C) Decreases sympathetic activity through brain
4. Minoxidil (D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
29
Which statement about digoxin is correct?
30
Digitalis glycosides are used in congestive heart failure as they increase the____.
31
Digitalis is used in congestive heart failure. It acts by ____.
32
Concomitant administration of ____ increases the risk of digitalis toxicity.
33
___is a cardioselective 
-blocker with vasodilatory action.
-blocker with vasodilatory action.34
___is specifically indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.
35
Which angiotensin-II receptor blocker is used in hypertension?
36
Why may metoprolol be preferred over propranolol when β₁-selectivity is clinically desirable?
37
Which cardiac drug exerts its positive inotropic action primarily by stimulating β₁-adrenoceptors and increasing intracellular cAMP?
38
Which antianginal drug may produce reflex tachycardia because of marked vasodilation?
39
Which drug is particularly useful in vasospastic or Prinzmetal angina because it blocks L-type calcium channels and relaxes coronary vascular smooth muscle?
40
Sublingual nitroglycerine tablet has a duration of action of___.
41
Which antihypertensive drug inhibits the renin angiotensin-aldosterone system?
42
Terazosin lowers blood pressure primarily by blocking which receptors?
43
Clonidine lowers blood pressure predominantly by stimulating which central receptors?
44
Which condition is an important contraindication to the use of a nonselective β-blocker such as propranolol?
45
Which one of the following sentence is true for nitrates?
46
Furosemide is an example of____.
47
Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
48
Which direct-acting arteriolar vasodilator relaxes vascular smooth muscle and is used in the treatment of hypertension?
49
Thiazide diuretics do not cause which of the following adverse effect?
50
____ is the most commonly used diuretic along with antihypertensive drugs.
51
Enalapril maleate is an____.
52
Guanethidine is an_____drug.
53
Diazoxide used for rapid reduction of blood pressure in a hypertensive emergency was historically administered by which route?
54
Spironolactone exerts its diuretic activity by inhibiting_____.
55
___develops due to irrational use of digitalis.
56
____ions increase the action of digitalis.
57
Lozenges are primarily designed to dissolve slowly in the mouth to produce which effect?
58
Vaginal suppositories are called as____
59
Turpentine liniment is used topically as ____.
60
_____ is a semisolid preparation with high concentration of powdered solids.
61
creams are biphasic _____.
62
Which among the following is used as an emulsifying agent for the preparation of a cream containing stearic acid, water, potassium hydroxide and glycerine?
63
The commonly used preservative in ophthalmic drops is ____.
64
The essential components of an effervescent powder are ____.
65
liquid oral preparation containing concentrated aqueous solution of sucrose is called ___.
66
___ is an example of natural emulsifying agent.
67
The approximate weight of rectal suppositories for adult use is ____.
68
Which lubricant is commonly used for suppository molds when preparing cocoa-butter suppositories by the fusion method?
69
According to Stokes' law, the rate of creaming of an emulsion is inversely proportional to which factor?
70
An insufflation is best described as a finely divided medicated powder introduced into which site?
71
Which polyol can be incorporated into pharmaceutical syrups to help reduce sucrose crystallization?
72
What is the approximate concentration of sucrose in Simple Syrup BP expressed as percentage w/w?
73
Which artificial sweetener is approximately 180–200 times sweeter than sucrose and generally has a more sugar-like taste than saccharin?
74
The hydroalcoholic preparation for oral use containing a flavor and medicinal agent is called as ___.
75
What is the traditional oil : water : gum ratio used to prepare a primary emulsion of a volatile oil with acacia?
76
Which ingredient gives conventional throat paints their high viscosity and helps prolong contact with the mucous membrane?
77
The most common adverse effect with reserpine is _____.
78
The predominant adverse effect of adrenergic blocking agents used in hypertension is____.
79
The semisolid preparations for external use which are applied by spreading on a suitable backing material are called _____.
80
Which statement best describes digitoxin compared with digoxin?
81
The medicated preparations which are used to cleanse, deodorize and soothe the body orifices are called ____
82
The emulsifying agent carrageenan is a ____
83
One among the following is not an ointment base.
84
Clonidine produces its antihypertensive effect predominantly through stimulation of which receptors in the central nervous system?
85
An alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution containing volatile substances is traditionally known as a?
86
Which serious toxicity limits prolonged or high-dose administration of sodium nitroprusside?
87
Mechanism of action of digitalis is____.
88
Which concomitant therapy can increase the risk of digitalis toxicity by causing hypokalemia?
89
Alcoholic preparations containing the active principles of vegetable drugs are known as ____
90
Which ACE inhibitor is administered in its active form rather than as an ester prodrug?
91
A preparation containing honey and vinegar is traditionally known as?
92
Which combination is particularly associated with increased risk of QT prolongation because CYP3A4 inhibition markedly increases terfenadine exposure?
93
Which of the following preparations should be sterile when dispensed?
94
Which major cardiac glycoside occurs in *Digitalis purpurea* and is formed from purpurea glycoside A?
95
Egg yolk is used as ___
96
Which statement about β-blockers used in hypertension is false?
97
Apart from vasodilatory activity____is also used to stimulate the growth of hair.
98
The process of extraction of vegetable drugs using cold or boiling water for a short period of time is known as ___.
99
Which drug combination particularly increases the risk of hyperkalemia because both agents reduce aldosterone-mediated potassium excretion?
100
A hypertensive patient also has bronchial asthma. Which β-blocker, if a β-blocker is specifically required, is relatively preferable to a nonselective agent such as propranolol because of β₁-selectivity?
101
Which specific antidote is indicated for life-threatening digoxin toxicity?
102
When camphor is mixed with thymol it forms a _____
103
____is the initial toxic symptom which indicates digitalis poisoning.
104
Diazoxide increases blood glucose primarily by which mechanism?
105
Cocoa butter is used as a base to prepare ____