On-line teaching and face-to-face teaching both are effective
D
Face-to-face teaching is less effective than online teaching
Question 2Single Answer
In order to solve the problem of aimlessness in education, we should develop -
A
democratic citizenship
B
centralized education
C
education
D
reform the administrative set-up
Question 3Single Answer
If a student misbehaves with other students in the class, the teacher should -
A
report the matter to the parents
B
punish him at the time of the morning assembly in the school
C
deal with him with sympathetic understanding
D
treat him with sympathy and understanding
Question 4Single Answer
How can a failed student be encouraged to study sincerely in the same class?
A
by teacher’s counseling
B
by psychological counseling
C
by guardian’s counseling
D
by Students’ Association
Question 5Single Answer
Our examination system is -
A
defective
B
without any defect
C
in the interest of the students
D
well-planned
Question 6Single Answer
Which Article in the Constitution deals with elementary education ?
A
Article 45
B
Article 370
C
Article 19
D
Article 226
Question 7Single Answer
For physically handicapped student of the school, there should be
A
proper facility for entering the class-room and toilet
B
proper arrangement for his food and lodging
C
arrangement for his free education
D
an arrangement for necessary equipments
Question 8Single Answer
A naughty student in the class is
A
foolish and dull
B
active and intelligent
C
unadjusted and unappreciated
D
rich and careless
Question 9Single Answer
Why is syllabus necessary in school ?
A
It helps in the proper functioning of the school
B
It makes the classroom education under control
C
A teacher can rule every work outside the class in a proper manner
D
All of the above are possible
Question 10Single Answer
If a seminar or conference is being conducted in your city concerning education, what will you do ?
A
I will take part in it without the permission of the Principal
B
I shall seek the permission of the Principal
C
I shall take leave from the school
D
I shall take no interest in it
Question 11Single Answer
How will you evaluate a student on the basis of the question paper type ?
A
On the basis of objective type questions
B
Essay type questions
C
Short answer type questions
D
All of the above
Question 12Single Answer
In order to make teaching more effective in the class, what would be done?
A
After the teaching, same type of questions should be given to the students for practice
B
Home-work should be given frequently
C
Home-work should be given now and them
D
After school hours, same type of questions should be got solved from the students
Question 13Single Answer
Which of the following is/are the basic paradigms in classroom teaching?
A
Learning paradigm
B
Instructional paradigm
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 14Single Answer
The prime requirement to become a good teacher is to have
A
Genuine interest in teaching
B
Knowledge about controlling students
C
Subject knowledge
D
Good expression
Question 15Single Answer
Research is -
A
A purposeful, systematic activity
B
Conducted for purely academic purposes.
C
Conducted to answer questions about practical issues.
D
A random, unplanned process of discovery
Question 16Single Answer
The research is always
A
Verifying the old knowledge
B
Exploring new knowledge
C
Filling the gaps between the knowledge
D
All of the above
Question 17Single Answer
Find the missing number in the following series.
8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54
A
26
B
24
C
36
D
32
Question 18Single Answer
Find the missing number in the following series.
28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39
A
30
B
32
C
33
D
34
Question 19Single Answer
The main governing body at the tertiary level of education in India is -
A
NCERT
B
CBSE
C
AICTE
D
UGC
Question 20Single Answer
Government established the University Grants Commission by an act of Parliament in the year
A
1980
B
1948
C
1950
D
1956
Question 21Single Answer
The term ecosystem was coined by -
A
Arthur Tansley
B
Al Gore
C
Mobius
D
Mobius
Question 22Single Answer
Who first used and defined Ecology in 1866?
A
H. Reiter
B
Haeckel
C
Charles Elton
D
Odum
Question 23Single Answer
ICT stands for -
A
Information and communication technology
B
Information controlled technology
C
Information capable technology
D
None of the above
Question 24Single Answer
Which of the following is also termed as multimedia education?
A
ICT supported education
B
ICT enabled education
C
ICT education
D
None of the above
Question 25Single Answer
Which is the main objective of research?
A
To review the literature
B
To summarize what is already known
C
To get an academic degree
D
To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Question 26Single Answer
Sampling error decreases with the
A
decrease in sample size
B
increase in sample size
C
process of randomization
D
process of analysis
Question 27Single Answer
The principles of fundamental research are used in
A
action research
B
applied research
C
philosophical research
D
historical research
Question 28Single Answer
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
A
Passive audience
B
Active audience
C
Positive audience
D
Negative audience
Question 29Single Answer
Classroom communication can be described as
A
Exploration
B
Institutionalisation
C
Unsignified narration
D
Discourse
Question 30Single Answer
Ideological codes shape our collective
A
Productions
B
Perceptions
C
Consumptions
D
Creations
Question 31Single Answer
In communication, myths have power, but are
A
Uncultural.
B
Insignificant.
C
imprecise.
D
Unpreferred.
Question 32Single Answer
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
A
Samachar
B
API
C
Hindustan Samachar
D
Samachar Bharati
Question 33Single Answer
Organisational communication can also be equated with
A
intra-personal communication
B
inter-personal communication
C
group communication
D
mass communication
Question 34Single Answer
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
A
Contradictory
B
Contrary
C
Sub-contrary
D
Sub-alternation
Question 35Single Answer
Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak. Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
A
Archana
B
Bulbul
C
Ananya
D
Krishna
Question 36Single Answer
A stipulative definition may be said to be
A
Always true
B
Always false
C
Sometimes true, sometimes false
D
Neither true nor false
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
The rapid advancement of technology has profoundly altered the way we communicate. Social media platforms connect billions across the globe, fostering instant interaction and the sharing of information. However, this interconnectedness also presents challenges. The spread of misinformation can occur at an unprecedented rate, impacting public opinion and even real-world events. Critical thinking and media literacy are now more essential than ever to navigate this complex digital landscape and discern credible sources from falsehoods.
What is the main idea of this passage?
A
The benefits of social media for global communication
B
The challenges posed by the rapid advancement of technology on communication
C
The importance of social media platforms in connecting people
D
The necessity of critical thinking and media literacy in the digital age
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
The rapid advancement of technology has profoundly altered the way we communicate. Social media platforms connect billions across the globe, fostering instant interaction and the sharing of information. However, this interconnectedness also presents challenges. The spread of misinformation can occur at an unprecedented rate, impacting public opinion and even real-world events. Critical thinking and media literacy are now more essential than ever to navigate this complex digital landscape and discern credible sources from falsehoods.
According to the passage, what is a challenge of increased technological interconnectedness?
A
Slower rates of communication
B
Difficulty in sharing information
C
The rapid spread of misinformation
D
A decrease in global interaction
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
The rapid advancement of technology has profoundly altered the way we communicate. Social media platforms connect billions across the globe, fostering instant interaction and the sharing of information. However, this interconnectedness also presents challenges. The spread of misinformation can occur at an unprecedented rate, impacting public opinion and even real-world events. Critical thinking and media literacy are now more essential than ever to navigate this complex digital landscape and discern credible sources from falsehoods.
The word "discern" in the passage most closely means:
A
Ignore
B
Understand
C
Distribute
D
Create
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
The rapid advancement of technology has profoundly altered the way we communicate. Social media platforms connect billions across the globe, fostering instant interaction and the sharing of information. However, this interconnectedness also presents challenges. The spread of misinformation can occur at an unprecedented rate, impacting public opinion and even real-world events. Critical thinking and media literacy are now more essential than ever to navigate this complex digital landscape and discern credible sources from falsehoods.
What can be inferred about the impact of misinformation?
A
It has no effect on public opinion
B
Its impact is limited to online discussions
C
It can influence public opinion and real-world events
D
It is easily controlled by social media platforms
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
The rapid advancement of technology has profoundly altered the way we communicate. Social media platforms connect billions across the globe, fostering instant interaction and the sharing of information. However, this interconnectedness also presents challenges. The spread of misinformation can occur at an unprecedented rate, impacting public opinion and even real-world events. Critical thinking and media literacy are now more essential than ever to navigate this complex digital landscape and discern credible sources from falsehoods.
The author's tone in this passage can be best described as:
A
Optimistic
B
Neutral and informative
C
Highly critical
D
Humorous
Question 42Single Answer
Identify the fallacy in the following argument: "Alan is tall, dark and handsome and has blue eyes. Bill is also tall, dark and handsome".
A
Inconsistency
B
Weak analogy
C
Slippery slope
D
Hasty generalisation
Question 43Single Answer
Identify the number that occurs in the series 2, 10, 30, 68, 130, ....
(A)738
(B) 349
(C) 520
(D) 222
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A, B and C only
B
B, C and D only
C
A, C and D only
D
A, B and D only
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following are essential requirements for the formation of photochemical SMOG?
(A) Carbon monooxide (CO)
(B) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
(C) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(D) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
(E) Sunlight
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
A, B and D only
B
A, C and E only
C
B, C, D and E only
D
B, D and E only
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following Indian universities were modelled on the lines of University of London?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Bombay
(C) Madras
(D) Andhra
(E) Mysore
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A, B & C only
B
B, C & D only
C
C, D & E only
D
A, B & D only
Question 46Single Answer
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Internet is commonly used service on the World Wide Web
Statement II: HTTP is the protocol that web browsers and web servers use to communicate with each other over the Internet
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Question 47Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A): Teachers must encourage students to ask questions.
Reason (R): Asking questions can create curiosity and develop passion for learning
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Choose the correct answer from below:
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Question 48Single Answer
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Exploration is particularly useful when researchers lack a clear idea of the problems they will meet during the study
Statement II: Through exploration, researchers develop concepts more clearly, establish priorities, develop operational definitions, and improve the final research design
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the given learner characteristics are associated with field dependent (holistic/visual) learning style?
(i) Focusing on facts and principles
(ii) Relating concepts to personal experience
(iii) Formal interaction with teacher related to tasks at hand
(iv) Preferring to compete rather than cooperate
(v) Preferring to cooperate rather than compete
(vi) Perceiving global aspects of concepts and materials
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(ii), (iii) and (v)
C
(ii), (v) and (vi)
D
(iv), (v) and (vi)
Question 50Single Answer
Teaching is best defined as?
A
Transmission of knowledge only
B
Memorization of facts
C
A process of facilitating learning
D
Examination process
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Chemical Science
Question 51Single Answer
The modern periodic law is based primarily on?
A
mass number
B
neutron number
C
atomic mass
D
atomic number
Question 52Single Answer
Across a period, the effective nuclear charge generally?
A
increases
B
becomes zero
C
decreases
D
remains exactly constant
Question 53Single Answer
Across a period, atomic radius generally?
A
remains constant
B
increases
C
decreases
D
first becomes infinite
Question 54Single Answer
Down a group, atomic radius generally?
A
remains constant
B
increases
C
decreases
D
becomes zero
Question 55Single Answer
The first ionization enthalpy generally increases across a period because of?
A
increasing effective nuclear charge
B
increasing shielding by a new shell
C
complete absence of electron-electron repulsion
D
decreasing nuclear charge
Question 56Single Answer
The first ionization enthalpy generally decreases down a group mainly because of?
A
increased size and shielding
B
decreased number of shells
C
increased effective attraction without shielding
D
loss of all core electrons
Question 57Single Answer
Among alkali metals, the lowest first ionization enthalpy is expected toward the?
A
top of the group
B
bottom of the group
C
middle only
D
noble-gas end of the same period
Question 58Single Answer
A cation is usually smaller than its parent atom because?
A
electron gain increases shielding
B
neutrons expand the electron cloud
C
the nucleus loses protons
D
electron loss reduces repulsion and may remove the outer shell
Question 59Single Answer
An anion is usually larger than its parent atom because?
A
the principal quantum number always decreases
B
a proton is removed
C
the nuclear charge increases
D
added electron-electron repulsion expands the electron cloud
Question 60Single Answer
In an isoelectronic series, ionic radius decreases as?
A
nuclear charge increases
B
number of electrons increases
C
principal shell number increases
D
nuclear charge decreases
Question 61Single Answer
The most electronegative element on the Pauling scale is?
A
nitrogen
B
chlorine
C
fluorine
D
oxygen
Question 62Single Answer
Electronegativity generally decreases down a group because?
A
effective nuclear charge becomes infinite
B
nuclear charge decreases to zero
C
valence shells disappear
D
atomic size and shielding increase
Question 63Single Answer
Electron affinity is most directly associated with?
A
addition of an electron to a gaseous atom
B
addition of a neutron
C
removal of an electron from a solid
D
removal of a proton
Question 64Single Answer
The relatively low electron affinity of fluorine compared with chlorine is largely due to?
A
greater electron-electron repulsion in the compact 2p shell
B
filled d orbitals in fluorine
C
absence of nuclear charge in fluorine
D
larger size of fluorine
Question 65Single Answer
The exceptionally high ionization enthalpy of noble gases is related to?
A
absence of protons
B
single valence electrons
C
stable closed-shell configurations
D
very large atomic radii
Question 66Single Answer
The first ionization enthalpy of Be is higher than that of B mainly because Be has?
A
a filled 2p subshell
B
a filled 2s subshell
C
one fewer proton
D
a larger atomic radius
Question 67Single Answer
The first ionization enthalpy of N is higher than that of O mainly because N has?
A
a half-filled 2p subshell
B
a filled 2p subshell
C
a larger principal shell
D
no p electrons
Question 68Single Answer
Lanthanide contraction arises mainly from?
A
loss of all 5d electrons
B
poor shielding by 4f electrons
C
decreasing nuclear charge
D
excellent shielding by 4f electrons
Question 69Single Answer
Diagonal relationship is especially prominent between?
A
F and Cl
B
Be and Mg
C
Li and Mg
D
Li and Na
Question 70Single Answer
The inert-pair effect becomes more important down the p-block because?
A
the ns2 pair becomes less available for bonding
B
p orbitals vanish
C
electronegativity always increases
D
all valence electrons become unpaired
Question 71Single Answer
The metallic character generally increases?
A
down a group
B
with increasing ionization enthalpy
C
toward fluorine
D
across a period from left to right
Question 72Single Answer
The nonmetallic character generally increases?
A
across a period from left to right
B
with decreasing electronegativity
C
down alkali-metal group
D
with increasing atomic radius
Question 73Single Answer
A large jump between successive ionization enthalpies usually indicates?
A
electron affinity has become positive
B
the atom has become neutral again
C
nuclear charge has decreased
D
removal has begun from an inner closed shell
Question 74Single Answer
Slater's rules are used to estimate?
A
molecular symmetry only
B
nuclear spin
C
bond order directly
D
shielding and effective nuclear charge
Question 75Single Answer
The shielding ability of subshells of the same principal shell generally follows?
A
d > s > p > f
B
p > s > f > d
C
s > p > d > f
D
f > d > p > s
Question 76Single Answer
A physically acceptable wavefunction must be?
A
multivalued everywhere
B
single-valued, finite and continuous where the potential is finite
C
infinite at all boundaries
D
discontinuous at every point
Question 77Single Answer
The Born interpretation associates the square modulus of a wavefunction with?
A
nuclear charge
B
potential energy only
C
probability density
D
classical trajectory
Question 78Single Answer
An observable in quantum mechanics is represented by?
A
a Hermitian operator
B
a classical orbit
C
a non-Hermitian matrix only
D
an arbitrary complex number
Question 79Single Answer
Eigenvalues of a Hermitian operator are?
A
real
B
always negative
C
undefined
D
always imaginary
Question 80Single Answer
Two observables can have simultaneous exact eigenvalues when their operators?
A
are identical to zero
B
anticommute only
C
commute
D
are non-Hermitian
Question 81Single Answer
The commutator of position and its conjugate momentum is?
A
equal to the identity without an imaginary factor
B
undefined for all states
C
always zero
D
nonzero
Question 82Single Answer
The uncertainty principle reflects?
A
thermal expansion only
B
noncommutation of conjugate observables
C
classical friction
D
instrumental error only
Question 83Single Answer
The Hamiltonian operator represents?
A
linear momentum only
B
spin only
C
probability only
D
total energy
Question 84Single Answer
A stationary state is an eigenstate of?
A
the time-independent Hamiltonian
B
position only
C
parity only
D
temperature
Question 85Single Answer
Normalization of a wavefunction ensures that?
A
the wavefunction is real
B
total probability is unity
C
energy is zero
D
momentum is infinite
Question 86Single Answer
Orthogonal eigenfunctions have?
A
unit overlap always
B
infinite overlap
C
identical eigenvalues necessarily
D
zero overlap integral
Question 87Single Answer
For a particle in a one-dimensional box, the wavefunction at infinite walls is?
A
maximum
B
undefined
C
periodic with nonzero boundary value
D
zero
Question 88Single Answer
Energy levels of a particle in a box become more widely separated as?
A
particle mass becomes infinite only
B
the box becomes larger
C
the box becomes smaller
D
quantum number decreases to zero
Question 89Single Answer
A two-dimensional square box can exhibit?
A
continuous energies only
B
only one allowed state
C
no degeneracy under any condition
D
degeneracy from different quantum-number pairs
Question 90Single Answer
For a three-dimensional rectangular box, separability means the wavefunction can be written as?
A
a classical trajectory
B
a constant only
C
a sum of nuclear charges
D
a product of one-dimensional functions
Question 91Single Answer
The ground-state energy of a quantum harmonic oscillator is?
A
exactly zero
B
negative infinite
C
undefined
D
nonzero
Question 92Single Answer
The nonzero ground-state energy of a harmonic oscillator is called?
A
zero-point energy
B
activation energy
C
ionization energy
D
lattice energy
Question 93Single Answer
Adjacent harmonic-oscillator levels in the ideal model are?
A
degenerate with all other levels
B
equally spaced
C
randomly spaced
D
continuously distributed
Question 94Single Answer
The rigid-rotor model assumes?
A
fixed bond length
B
no angular momentum
C
zero moment of inertia
D
continuously changing bond length
Question 95Single Answer
Rotational energy levels of a rigid rotor depend on?
A
principal quantum number only
B
angular momentum quantum number
C
nuclear charge only
D
electron spin only
Question 96Single Answer
Hydrogenic orbitals are eigenfunctions of?
A
the hydrogen-atom Hamiltonian
B
a classical Kepler orbit
C
temperature operator
D
viscosity operator
Question 97Single Answer
The principal quantum number primarily determines?
A
nuclear spin
B
hydrogenic energy and shell
C
spin orientation only
D
orbital orientation only
Question 98Single Answer
The azimuthal quantum number is associated with?
A
nuclear mass
B
temperature
C
orbital angular momentum
D
electron charge
Question 99Single Answer
The magnetic quantum number specifies?
A
electron mass
B
orientation of orbital angular momentum
C
spin magnitude
D
radial node count only
Question 100Single Answer
Electron spin is?
A
a vibrational coordinate
B
literal classical spinning of a charged sphere
C
orbital motion only
D
an intrinsic angular momentum
Question 101Single Answer
The suffix used for an aldehyde as the principal functional group is?
A
-oic acid
B
-al
C
-one
D
-ol
Question 102Single Answer
The suffix used for a ketone as the principal functional group is?
A
-one
B
-ol
C
-amine
D
-al
Question 103Single Answer
The prefix for an -OH group when it is not principal is?
A
hydroxy
B
formyl
C
oxo
D
amino
Question 104Single Answer
The prefix for a carbonyl group when it is not principal is?
A
amino
B
hydroxy
C
mercapto
D
oxo
Question 105Single Answer
In IUPAC nomenclature, the parent chain is selected primarily to include?
A
the alphabetically first substituent
B
the lowest molecular mass fragment
C
the principal functional group
D
the maximum number of methyl groups only
Question 106Single Answer
The stereodescriptors R and S specify?
A
ring fusion only
B
absolute configuration at a stereogenic center
C
alkene geometry only
D
relative configuration of sugars only
Question 107Single Answer
The E descriptor for an alkene indicates that higher-priority groups are?
A
both equatorial
B
both axial
C
on the same side
D
on opposite sides
Question 108Single Answer
The Z descriptor for an alkene indicates that higher-priority groups are?
A
both absent
B
necessarily trans to hydrogen
C
on opposite sides
D
on the same side
Question 109Single Answer
CIP priority is assigned first according to?
A
bond length
B
atomic number of the directly attached atom
C
alphabetical order
D
atomic mass of the whole molecule
Question 110Single Answer
For isotopes of the same element, higher CIP priority is generally given to?
A
both always have identical priority
B
the isotope of lower mass number
C
the isotope of higher mass number
D
the radioactive isotope only
Question 111Single Answer
A spiro compound contains?
A
two rings sharing two adjacent atoms
B
two rings sharing one common atom
C
no ring junction
D
three fused benzene rings
Question 112Single Answer
A bridged bicyclic compound has?
A
only one carbon-carbon bond
B
one atom common to both rings only
C
two bridgehead atoms connected by three distinct paths
D
no bridgehead atoms
Question 113Single Answer
In bicyclo nomenclature, the numbers in brackets denote?
A
numbers of heteroatoms only
B
numbers of atoms in the three bridges excluding bridgeheads
C
ring strain energies
D
oxidation states
Question 114Single Answer
The D/L system for carbohydrates is related historically to?
A
configuration relative to glyceraldehyde
B
molecular mass
C
E/Z geometry
D
sign of optical rotation necessarily
Question 115Single Answer
The sign of optical rotation is?
A
always positive for R
B
not determined by the R/S descriptor alone
C
always negative for S
D
identical to D/L
Question 116Single Answer
Alpha and beta descriptors in cyclic sugars describe?
A
absolute R/S configuration of every center
B
anomeric configuration
C
alkene geometry
D
chain length
Question 117Single Answer
In carbohydrate nomenclature, anomers differ at?
A
the carbonyl oxygen
B
the anomeric carbon
C
the terminal primary carbon only
D
every stereocenter
Question 118Single Answer
A locant in an IUPAC name identifies?
A
optical rotation
B
the position of a substituent or functional feature
C
molecular mass
D
boiling point
Question 119Single Answer
Multiplicative prefixes di-, tri-, and tetra- indicate?
A
ring size only
B
oxidation state
C
number of identical substituents
D
stereochemistry
Question 120Single Answer
Alphabetization of simple substituents normally ignores?
A
heteroatom names
B
multiplicative prefixes such as di- and tri-
C
all locants
D
the first letter of the substituent
Question 121Single Answer
The prefix cyclo- indicates?
A
an aromatic system only
B
a ring parent structure
C
an acyclic parent
D
a radical ion
Question 122Single Answer
The ending -ene indicates?
A
a carbon-carbon triple bond
B
an amide
C
an alcohol
D
a carbon-carbon double bond
Question 123Single Answer
The ending -yne indicates?
A
an ether
B
a carbon-carbon triple bond
C
a carbon-carbon double bond
D
a ketone
Question 124Single Answer
A molecule named with both -ene and -yne contains?
A
both double and triple carbon-carbon bonds
B
a peroxide
C
only aromatic bonds
D
only single bonds
Question 125Single Answer
The descriptor cis in a simple disubstituted ring indicates substituents are?
A
necessarily equatorial
B
necessarily axial
C
on opposite faces
D
on the same face of the ring
Question 126Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes typical size regime of Nanoparticles?
A
1-100 mm
B
only above 1 micrometre
C
roughly 1-100 nm
D
1-100 cm
Question 127Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes high reactivity reason of Nanoparticles?
A
absence of surfaces
B
macroscopic grain size
C
high surface-area-to-volume ratio
D
zero surface energy
Question 128Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes size-dependent behavior of Nanoparticles?
A
quantum effects never occur
B
surface atoms are negligible
C
properties can differ from the bulk material
D
properties are always identical to bulk
Question 129Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes common synthesis classification of Nanoparticles?
A
nuclear-only synthesis
B
top-down or bottom-up approaches
C
exclusively biological decay
D
acid-base only
Question 130Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes key electronic feature of Quantum dots?
A
no electronic states
B
classical gravity confinement
C
size-dependent quantum confinement
D
size-independent continuum only
Question 131Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes optical behavior of Quantum dots?
A
only infrared absorption is possible
B
emission is independent of size
C
they cannot luminesce
D
emission wavelength can be tuned by particle size
Question 132Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes typical composition of Quantum dots?
A
only ionic liquids
B
bulk noble gases
C
macroscopic polymers only
D
semiconductor nanocrystals
Question 133Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes important application of Quantum dots?
A
only soil liming
B
only gravimetric analysis
C
fluorescent imaging and optoelectronics
D
only distillation
Question 134Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes structural description of Carbon nanotubes?
A
discrete methane chains
B
ionic carbon crystals
C
rolled graphene-like carbon cylinders
D
tetrahedral silica cages
Question 135Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes bonding of Carbon nanotubes?
A
predominantly sp2 carbon bonding
B
only sp3 carbon
C
metallic C+ ions
D
hydrogen-bonded carbon
Question 136Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes property of Carbon nanotubes?
A
high axial strength and electrical conductivity
B
very low mechanical strength
C
complete water solubility
D
always perfect insulators
Question 137Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes types of Carbon nanotubes?
A
only cis and trans ions
B
only cubic and hexagonal salts
C
single-walled and multi-walled forms
D
only alpha and beta proteins
Question 138Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes structure of Graphene?
A
three-dimensional sp3 network
B
single-atom-thick hexagonal sheet of sp2 carbon
C
chain of sp carbon only
D
ionic carbon-oxygen sheet
Question 139Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes electronic feature of Graphene?
A
only proton conduction
B
no mobile charge carriers
C
high carrier mobility
D
always a wide-gap insulator
Question 140Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes mechanical feature of Graphene?
A
extreme brittleness with no strength
B
zero in-plane stiffness
C
liquid-like mechanics
D
very high tensile strength
Question 141Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes surface application of Graphene?
A
has no surface
B
is used only as a solvent
C
sensing due to large accessible surface
D
cannot adsorb analytes
Question 142Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes optical origin of characteristic color of Gold nanoparticles?
A
nuclear fission
B
radioactive fluorescence only
C
hydrogen bonding
D
localized surface plasmon resonance
Question 143Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes catalytic significance of Gold nanoparticles?
A
nanoscale gold can catalyze reactions despite bulk gold being relatively inert
B
gold cannot catalyze any reaction
C
catalysis requires only bulk crystals
D
nanoscale gold is always less reactive
Question 144Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes biomedical utility of Gold nanoparticles?
A
used only as fertilizer
B
cannot be functionalized
C
surface functionalization for imaging or delivery
D
only neutron source
Question 145Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes size effect of Gold nanoparticles?
A
color depends only on atomic number
B
plasmon band depends on size and environment
C
plasmon response never changes
D
environment has no optical effect
Question 146Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes general role of Sol-gel method?
A
bottom-up preparation of oxide materials
B
mechanical milling only
C
nuclear transmutation
D
gas chromatography
Question 147Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes key stages of Sol-gel method?
A
electroplating only
B
fission and fusion
C
hydrolysis and condensation of molecular precursors
D
sublimation and freezing only
Question 148Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes advantage of Sol-gel method?
A
requires only extremely high temperatures
B
provides no composition control
C
cannot form coatings
D
good compositional control at relatively low processing temperature
Question 149Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes product form of Sol-gel method?
A
only single crystals by cleavage
B
only gases
C
only aqueous ions
D
gels that can yield powders, films, or monoliths
Question 150Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes common nanomaterial use of Chemical vapor deposition?