To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Question 2Single Answer
Sampling error decreases with the
A
decrease in sample size
B
increase in sample size
C
process of randomization
D
process of analysis
Question 3Single Answer
The principles of fundamental research are used in
A
action research
B
applied research
C
philosophical research
D
historical research
Question 4Single Answer
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
A
Passive audience
B
Active audience
C
Positive audience
D
Negative audience
Question 5Single Answer
Classroom communication can be described as
A
Exploration
B
Institutionalisation
C
Unsignified narration
D
Discourse
Question 6Single Answer
Ideological codes shape our collective
A
Productions
B
Perceptions
C
Consumptions
D
Creations
Question 7Single Answer
In communication, myths have power, but are
A
Uncultural.
B
Insignificant.
C
imprecise.
D
Unpreferred.
Question 8Single Answer
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
A
Samachar
B
API
C
Hindustan Samachar
D
Samachar Bharati
Question 9Single Answer
Organisational communication can also be equated with
A
intra-personal communication
B
inter-personal communication
C
group communication
D
mass communication
Question 10Single Answer
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
A
Contradictory
B
Contrary
C
Sub-contrary
D
Sub-alternation
Question 11Single Answer
Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak. Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
A
Archana
B
Bulbul
C
Ananya
D
Krishna
Question 12Single Answer
A stipulative definition may be said to be
A
Always true
B
Always false
C
Sometimes true, sometimes false
D
Neither true nor false
Question 13Single Answer
Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
A
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2006
B
Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2003
C
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2002
D
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Question 14Single Answer
When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
A
Circular argument
B
Inductive argument
C
Deductive argument
D
Analogical argument
Question 15Single Answer
A workshop is
A
a conference for discussion on a topic.
B
a meeting for discussion on a topic.
C
a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
D
a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Question 16Single Answer
A working hypothesis is
A
a proven hypothesis for an argument.
B
not required to be tested.
C
a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
D
a scientific theory.
Question 17Single Answer
Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument is contained in the above passage?
A
Deductive
B
Astrological
C
Analogical
D
Mathematical
Question 18Single Answer
Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
All saints are religious. (major)
Some honest persons are saints.(minor)Codes:
A
Codes:
All saints are hones.
B
Some saints are honest.
C
Some honest persons are religious.
D
All religious persons are honest.
Question 19Single Answer
In the process of communication, which one of the following is in chronological order?
A
Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
B
Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
C
Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
D
Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Question 20Single Answer
Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
A
Dr. Annie Besant
B
James Augustus Hicky
C
Lord Cripson
D
A.O. Hume
Question 21Single Answer
Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
A
Rajeev Gandhi
B
Narasimha Rao
C
Indira Gandhi
D
Deve Gowda
Question 22Single Answer
Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
A
Entertainment
B
Interactive communication
C
Developmental communication
D
Communitarian
Question 23Single Answer
Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
A
Infotainment
B
Edutainment
C
Entertainment
D
Enlightenment
Question 24Single Answer
Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
A
Western Europe
B
North America
C
South Asia
D
East Asia
Question 25Single Answer
____ is important when a teacher communicates with his her student.
A
Sympathy
B
Empathy
C
Apathy
D
Antipathy
Question 26Single Answer
In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
A
UJHFS
B
UHJSF
C
JHUSF
D
HUJSF
Question 27Single Answer
In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
14
Question 28Single Answer
The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
A
110
B
270
C
105
D
210
Question 29Single Answer
The post-industrial society is designated as
A
Information society
B
Technology society
C
Mediated society
D
Non-agricultural society
Question 30Single Answer
The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
A
Commercial communication
B
Military purposes
C
Personal interaction
D
Political campaigns
Question 31Single Answer
The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
A
18
B
24
C
33
D
36
Question 32Single Answer
Internal communication within institutions is done through
A
LAN
B
WAN
C
EBB
D
MMS
Question 33Single Answer
Virtual reality provides
A
Sharp pictures
B
Individual audio
C
Participatory experience
D
Preview of new films
Question 34Single Answer
The first virtual university of India came up in
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Maharashtra
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 35Single Answer
The mean of four number a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
A
30
B
85/2
C
170/3
D
110
Question 36Single Answer
Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
1. Limits to Growth
2. Silent Spring
3. Our Common Future
4. Resourceful Earth
A
(i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
B
(ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
C
(ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
D
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Question 37Single Answer
If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
A
20%
B
30%
C
40%
D
50%
Question 38Single Answer
Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?
A
Africa
B
Asia
C
South America
D
North America
Question 39Single Answer
“Women are closer to nature that men.” What kind of perspective is this?
A
Realist
B
Essentialist
C
Feminist
D
Deep ecology
Question 40Single Answer
If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true.Choose the correct code given below:
1 All men are honest.
2 No men are honest.
3 Some men are not honest.
4 All men are dishonest. Codes :
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
C
(i), (iii) and (iv)
D
(ii), (i) and (iv)
Question 41Single Answer
Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.Bee – Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
A
Intelligence
B
Marks
C
Lessons
D
Wisdom
Question 42Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
A
Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
B
Their role in maintaining the oxygen that carbon balance of the earth.
C
Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
D
Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
Question 43Single Answer
P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?
A
Wife
B
Sister-in-law
C
Brother-in-law
D
Daughter-in-law
Question 44Single Answer
A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
A
Lexical
B
Persuasive
C
Stipulative
D
Precisions
Question 45Single Answer
The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following:
A
Natural Resource Conservation Approach
B
Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
C
Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
D
Watershed Development Approach
Question 46Single Answer
The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
A
Thermal power sector
B
Transport sector
C
Industrial sector
D
Domestic sector
Question 47Single Answer
In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
A
Methane
B
Hydrogen
C
LPG
D
CNG
Question 48Single Answer
Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
A
Distance Education Council (DEC)
B
National Council for Teach Education (NCTE)
C
National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
D
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
statemenst:
1. Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
2. Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
3. In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
4. In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism. Codes :
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(i), (ii) and (iv)
C
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
D
(i), (iii) and (iv)
Question 50Single Answer
Inductive reasoning presupposes
A
unity in human nature
B
integrity in human nature
C
uniformity in human nature
D
harmony in human nature
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life Science
Question 51Single Answer
When Ramesh was at the age of 8 years, he hammered a nail into a large tree to mark his height. If the tree grows 2 cm/year, how much higher would the nail be after 6 years?
A
5 cm higher
B
0 cm higher
C
10 cm higher
D
8 cm higher
Question 52Single Answer
The molar fraction of hydrochloric acid extremely dilute aqueous solution is The pH of the resulting solution is-
A
approximately doubled
B
approximately halved
C
increased
D
reduced
Question 53Single Answer
Approximately how much blood flows the through a normal human heart beating 70 times per minute, having a relaxed volume 110 cc and compressed volume of 70cc?
A
7150 litres
B
4000 litres
C
28000 litres
D
11100 litres
Question 54Single Answer
A leaf appears green in daylight. If this leaf were observed in red light, what colour would It appear to have?
A
green
B
black-brown
C
red
D
blue
Question 55Single Answer
The distance from Nehrunagar to Gandhinagar is 27 km. A and B start walking from Nehrunagar towards Gandhinagar speeds of 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr, respectively. B reaches Gandhinagar, return immediately, and meets A at Indiranagar. What is the distance between Nehrunagar and Indiranagar?(assume all three cities to be in one straight line)
A
12.5km
B
22.5km
C
4.5km
D
13.5km
Question 56Single Answer
football and cricket, 15% play both basketball and cricket 10% play both football and Basketball 15 students play no games, while 5% of the students play all three games. What is the total number of students?
A
300
B
250
C
350
D
400
Question 57Single Answer
A 100 m long fence is to be made by fixing a wire mesh on steel poles. Each pole has a 1m vertical portion and a l m portion tilted at 450 to the vertical. What will be the area of wire mesh required?
A
200m2
B
241.4m2
C
400m2
D
170.7m2
Question 58Single Answer
The average staff salary of a company Rs.8000/-. A new guard and a new manager recruited with salaries of Rs.5000/- and Rs.20000 respectively. What is the current staff stridence if the new average salary Rs.4000/-more that of the guard?
A
7
B
9
C
10
D
11
Question 59Single Answer
A bird flies along the three sides of a field in the shape of an equilateral triangle at speeds of 2, 4, 8 km/hr, respectively. The average speed of bird is-
A
24/7km/hr
B
14/3 km/hr
C
22/7 km/hr
D
4 km/hr
Question 60Single Answer
A buys n copies of a book at 20% discount. B gets the same book at 30% discount. What is the minimum value of n for which B can buy one extra copy of the book, spending the same amount as A?
A
7
B
8
C
6
D
This problem cannot be solved unless the marked price of the book is known.
Question 61Single Answer
The number of three English letter words, having at least one consonant, but not having two consecutive consonants, is
A
2205
B
3780
C
2730
D
3360
Question 62Single Answer
There are two gas parcels of equal volume, A and B at the same temperature and pressure. Parcel A is one mole of water vapour, while parcel B is one mole of dry air. Which of the following is TRUE?
A
Parcel A is heavier then Parcel B
B
Parcel B is heavier than Parcel A
C
Both parcels are equally heavy
D
Without temperature and pressure data their relative masses cannot be determined
Question 63Single Answer
For which of the following numbers is its positive square roof closest to the number itself ?
A
0.33
B
0.99
C
0.89
D
0.10
Question 64Single Answer
Which one of the following ʵ proteinst both as an activator and repressor of transcription?
A
cl protein/cl
B
Nprotein/N
C
cll protein/cil
D
Q protein/Q
Question 65Single Answer
One of the mechanisms used by bacteria for adaptation to changed environment is altering
transcription of their genes. In this regard which one of the following responses is NOT found in bacteria?
A
A gene with two different promoters for expression in different conditions.
B
Use of different sigma factors for transcription of genes.
C
Expression of alternate a, B and B' subunits
D
Expression of anti-sigma factors
Question 66Single Answer
During eukaryotic cell division, metaphase to anaphase transition is regulated by degradation of -
A
Cyclin B1
B
CDK 1
C
Aurora A kinase
D
Polo-like kinase
Question 67Single Answer
Which one of the following statements about chromatin is NOT true?
A
DNA winds approximately 1.65 times around the nucleosomes .
B
H2A-H2B bind to both the entry and exit ends of DNA in nucleosomes.
C
Covalent modification of histones influence chromatin compaction.
D
Non-histone proteins are part of mitotic chromosomes.
Question 68Single Answer
Select a cellular body which is NOT a part of the nuclear bodies
A
P-bodies
B
Nucleolus
C
Cajal bodies
D
Interchromatin granule clusters
Question 69Single Answer
In a signalling event, binding of an extracellular ligand activates G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) that eventually activates phospholipase C-B. Which one of the following statements truly reflects the function of phospholipase C-B?
A
Phospholipase C-B converts PI (3.4.5) P3, to PI (4,5) P2
B
Phospholipase C-B converts PI (4) P to PI (4,5)P2
C
Phospholipase C-B converts PL (4,5) P. to diacylglycerol and IP3
D
Phospholipasse C-B converts PI (5)P to PI (4,5)P2
Question 70Single Answer
The ф and Ψ values of a B-strand composed of all D-amino acids will mainly occupy which quadrant in the Ramachandran plot?
A
upper left
B
upper right
C
lower left
D
lower right
Question 71Single Answer
What is the effect of sudden increase in the levels of ATP and citrate on an erythrocyte undergoing glycolysis?
A
It inhibits glycolysis
B
It stimulates glycolysis
C
The rate of glycolysis remains unaltered
D
The rate of glycolysis increases gradually
Question 72Single Answer
Indicate the INCORRECT statement from the following:
A
Allosteric enzymes function through reversible noncovalent binding of allosteric modulators or effectors
B
Monoclonal antibodies that catalyze hydrolysis of esters carbonates can be produced
C
Enzymes are not inhibited irreversibly by heavy metals such as Hg2+, Ag+./ Hg2+, Ag+
D
Acid phosphatases hydrolyze biological phosphate esters at ~pH5.0/~PH5.0
Question 73Single Answer
Choose the correct statement from the following:
A
Disulfide bonds in a 20-residue peptide can be formed only if the cysteines are adjacent to each other.
B
The amino acids isoleucine has only one chiral centre.
C
Both bases and sugar contribute to chirality of nucleic acids.
D
The pl of aspartic acid is less than glutamic acid
Question 74Single Answer
In a given experiment, transplantation of micromeres from the vegetal pole of a 16-cell sea urchin embryo onto the animal ploleof a host 16-cell sea urchin embryo would initiate.
A
the transplanted micromeres to invaginate into the blastocoel to create a new skeletogenic mesenchyme cells
B
the transplanted micromeres to ingress the blastocoel to create a new skeletogenic mesenchymal cells.
C
the transplanted micromeres will mingle with the host micromeres to ingress into the blastocoels to create skeletogenic mesenchyme cells.
D
the transplanted micromeres will form the secondary archenteron.
Question 75Single Answer
Based on ABC model during flower development, loss of class A activity results in the formation of only stamen and carpel. Which of the following floral organ identity genes controls the class A activity?
A
APETALA 1 and APETALA 2
B
APETALA 3 and PISTILLATA
C
Only PISTILLATA
D
Only AGAMOUS
Question 76Single Answer
Which one of the following statements regarding limb development in mice is true?
A
The gene encoding Tbx5 is transcribed in the limb fields of the hindlimbs.
B
The gene encoding Tbx4 is transcribed in the limb fields of the forelimbs/Tbx4.
C
Genes encoding Islet I. Tbx4 and Pitx are expressed in the presumptive hindlimb.
D
Genes encoding Islet 1. Tbx4 and Pits are expressed in the presumptive forelimb.
Question 77Single Answer
Match the following cleavage patterns with the species in which they occur.
Species Cleavage Pattern
A.Flatworm i.Meroblastic discoidal
B.Frog ii.Meroblastic superficial
C.Birds iii.Holoblastic displaced radial
D.Insect iv.Holoblastic spiral
A
A-iv, B-iii.C-i, D-ii
B
A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
C
A-ii, B-iii,C-i, D-iv
D
A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
Question 78Single Answer
Which one of the following human serum immunoglobulins takes part in classical complement fixation pathway?
A
IgD
B
IgE
C
IgA
D
IgG
Question 79Single Answer
Junctions which tether cytoskeletal filaments inside the cell are known as -
A
anchoring junctions
B
occluding junctions
C
channel-forming junctions
D
signal-relaying junctions
Question 80Single Answer
Which one of the following is a group of Signalling molecules that act as morphogens during development of an organism and its effects are mediated through the receptor Patched and its binding partner Smoothened?
A
Hedgehog protein
B
Notch protein
C
Wnt protein
D
B-catenin
Question 81Single Answer
Proteins with cytoplasmic domains having tyrosine kinase activity do NOT act as receptors for
A
Epidermal growth factor (EGF)
B
Platelet -derived growth factor (PDGF)
C
Insulin
D
Transferrin
Question 82Single Answer
During eukaryotic protein synthesis, stress conditions result in activation of specific kinases leading to phosphorylation of a key translation initiation factor that inhibits protein synthesis from a large number of cellular mRNA. Which one of the following factors is the target of the kinase?
A
elF4E
B
eIF4G
C
eIF2a
D
Gen4
Question 83Single Answer
A highly specific inhibitor that targets the phosphorylation activity TFIIH is ad, in vitro transcription reaction. Which One of the following steps is most likely to be affected?
A
Binding of RNA polymerase to promoter sequene
B
Promoter clearance
C
Recruitment of TFIID
D
Open promoter complex information
Question 84Single Answer
In a linkage map, two genes A and B, are 70 cm apart. If individuals heterozygous for both the genes are test crossed number of progeny with parental phenotype will be:
A
equal to the number of progeny with recombinant phenotype.
B
more than the number of progeny with recombinant phenotype
C
less than the number of progeny with recombinant phenotype
D
could be more or less than then the number of progeny with recombinant phenotype depending on whether the genes are cis or trans, respectively.
Question 85Single Answer
Two mutant plants, both bearing white flowers were crossed. All F1, plants had red coloured flowers. When an F1 plant was selfed it produced flowers in 9:7 ratio. Based on this information, which one of the following conclusions is correct?
A
The mutations in the parents do not complement each other
B
The mutations in the parents are allelic
C
The mutations in the parents are non-alleic
D
The mutations in the parents are linked
Question 86Single Answer
Reflex ovulation does NOT occur in-are
A
cats
B
rabbits
C
mink
D
rats
Question 87Single Answer
Mammillary bodies are present in-
A
thalamus
B
epithalamus
C
hypothalamus
D
midbrain
Question 88Single Answer
In which one of the body fluids is K+ concentration higher than that of Na+?
A
Plasma
B
Perilymph
C
Endolymph
D
Cerebrospinal fluid
Question 89Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT involved with the absorption of iron in the intestine?
A
Divalent metal transporter
B
Ferroportin I
C
Hephaestin
D
Transferrin
Question 90Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for Casparian strip?
A
It breaks the continuity of water movement through the apoplast pathway
B
It is formed in the growing part of the root
C
It is formed several millimeters or several centimeters behind the root tip
D
It is a band within the radial cell walls of the endodermis that is impregnated with lignin
Question 91Single Answer
The plant hormone, Gibberellic Acid is generally NOT associated with-
A
stem elongation
B
parthenocarpy
C
Parthenogenesis
D
malt production
Question 92Single Answer
Which one of the following is the correct of function of JAZ (JASMONATE ZIM-DOMAIN) protein family, a key regulator of Jasmonic Acid (JA) signalling response?
A
Binds to MYC2 and represses the JA dependent gene
B
Binds to MYC2 and transcribes JA dependent genes
C
Acts as receptor of JA signal
D
Involved in directly inducing JA dependent genes
Question 93Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT a phenotype of dark-grown seedlings that are etiolated?
A
Short hypocotyls
B
An apical hook
C
Closed cotyledons
D
Non-photosynthetic proplastids
Question 94Single Answer
In the context of diversity patterns of species which one of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
A
Alpha diversity is diversity within a single community
B
Beta diversity is a measure of the change species composition from one communities/ habitat to another.
C
Alpha diversity is the regional diversity found among range of communities geographical region
D
Gamma diversity is the regional diversity found among range of communities/habitats in a geographical region
Question 95Single Answer
A species whose life history strategies allow for high intrinsic rates of increase (r-strategist) will also exhibit the following EXCEPT
A
high tolerance for both environmental instability and low quality resources
B
short period of exponential population growth (r)
C
reproductive straegy that involves random mating semeparity and little or no parental investment.
D
survivorship that show density-dependent mortality typically exhibiting Type 1 or 2 survivorship curves.
Question 96Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is true about xylem in plants?
A
It is characterized by the presence Of tracheary elements responsible for the conduction of water in vascular plants.
B
It is responsible for the transport of water and characterized by sieve elements like parenchyma cells and sclereids.
C
It is responsible for the transport of assimilates in the vascular plants and characterized by tracheary elements.
D
It is responsible for the transport of assimilates in both vascular and non-vascular plants
Question 97Single Answer
Among the following statement, which is the correct one that refers to a Holotype?
A
Specimens collected from different locations and designated as type specimens by the
B
A single specimen or illustration upon which name is based and designated as nomenclature type by the author.
C
Specimens collected from different places and designated as type specimen.
D
A single specimen designated to serve as nomenclatural type when all of the materials on which the name of the taxon was based is missing.
Question 98Single Answer
Given below are growth equations where dN/dt is defined as.
A.rN/K
B.rN
C.rN[(K-N)/N]
D.πN[(K-N/K]
With reference to the above equations, which one of following statements is correct?
A
B represents exponential growth and A represents logistic growth.
B
B represents exponential growth and D represents logistic growth.
C
B represents zero growth and C represents logistic growth
D
A represents exponential growth and D represents logistic growth
Question 99Single Answer
Phages are collected from an infected E. coli donor strain of genotype cys+ leu+ thr+ and used to transduce a recipient of genotype cys- leu- thr-. The treated recipient population is plated on a minimal medium supplemented with leucine and threonine. Many colonies grew. Which one of the following combination of genotypes are appropriate for the colonies that grew ?
A
cys+ leu+ thr+, cys+ leu- thr, cys- leu+ thr-
B
cys- leu+ thr+, cys+ leu- thr-, cys+ leu+ thr-
C
cys- leu- thr-, cys- leu- thr+, cys- leu+thr-
D
cys+ leu- thr-, cys+ leu- thr+, cys+ leu+ thr-
Question 100Single Answer
A researcher exposed Drosophila larvae to 37°C during their growth. One of the adult flies that emerged had a crossveinless phynotype.Crossveinless is a known mutant in Drosophila When this crossveinless fly was crossed to a known crossveinless mutant fly all the progny had normal phenotype. The observed phynotype can be best explained as an example of.
A
Conditional mutant
B
Phenocopy
C
Penetrance
D
Pleiotropy
Question 101Single Answer
In an intact cell patch-clamp experiment.
A
two electrodes are inserted into the cystosol but at different depths.
B
One electrode is applied to the membrane in a region containing on and one into the cytosol.
C
two electrodes are applied to the plasma membrane, one in a region containing only lipids and the other in a region contaning one or few ion channels.
D
One electrode is applied to the plasma membrane contaning one or few ion channels and one electrode inserted cytosel.
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following statements about YACs is FALSE?
A
YACs can carry DNA fragments of IMb YACs
B
A single yeast may contain more than one YAC
C
Rearrangements in YACs are rare because recombination is poor in yeast
D
YACs have to be transferred to bacteria for subsequent DNA manipulations.
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following host systems is best suited to express large amounts of glycoslated
protein for structural studies?
A
GST fusion protein in E. coli
B
His-tagged protein in E. coli
C
Native protein in baculovirus
D
Native protein in Pseudomonas fluorescens
Question 104Single Answer
Which one of the following statements regarding protein is CORRECT ?
A
n → σ* transition requires less energy than n- π* transition and can be monitored by mass spectrometry
B
n-π* transition requires more energy than n-π* -> transition and can be monitored by
C
n-π* transition required less energy than n->σ* transition and can be monitored by CD spectroscopy.
D
σ->σ* transition requires less energy than n->π* transition and can be monitored by CD spectroscopy
Question 105Single Answer
Which one of the following statements regarding use of hybrid nucleases for plant genome engineering is INCORRECT?
A
For gene knock out experiments, the nuclease is expressed without a donor DNA template
B
Hybrid nucleases typically comprise two protein subunits that dimerize at their muclease domain.
C
Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs) can efficiently target all nuclear genes with equal efficiency
D
Both ZFNs and TALENs are fused with cleavage domains of Fok I endonuclease
Question 106Single Answer
Which one of the following microscopes would you use to visualize a protein fused to an appropriate reporter in a living cell?
A
Fluorescence microscope
B
Scanning electron microscope
C
Differential interference contrast microscope
D
Phase contrast microscope
Question 107Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE about homologous characters?
A
Similar traits may not be homologous
B
Similar traits may be a result of convergent evolution
C
A homologous trail that is derived and shared from a common ancestor is called an autapomorphy.
D
Homologous characters may show structural similarity but functional diversity
Question 108Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the Neutral Theory as proposed by Motoo Kimura?
A
Except for advantageous mutations. alleles are under neutral selection
B
The rate of evolution for most genes will be equal to the neutral mutation rate
C
Advantageous mutations are exceedingly rare
D
At the level of DNA sequences, genetic drift dominates evolution
Question 109Single Answer
Cell cycle checkpoints are surveillance mechanisms that ensure order and fidelity of events of the cell cycle. Given below are some of the checkpoints proteins and their functions. A.Mad2 (i) Prevention of Cdc 14 activation
B.Tem 1 (ii) Prevention of Cdc20 activation
C.ATM (iii) Inhibition of p21CIP
D.ATR (iv) Inhibition of separase action
Match the checkpoint protein with its function.
A
A-iv, B-i and ii, C-iii
B
A-ii and iv, B-i,C-iii
C
A-ii, B-i and iii, C-iv
D
A-ii and iv, B-iii, C-i
Question 110Single Answer
Given below are organelles (column A) and properties associated with the organelles (column B).
Column A Column B
A.Lysosomes (i) Anterograde transport from ER to Golgi
B.cis-Golgi (ii) Clathrin-coated vesicles
C.trans-Golgi (iii) Cop I vesicles budding
D.Cop II vesicles (iv) Mannose-6- phosphate receptor
E.Endocytic (v) Protein aggregate for secretion
vesicle
Choose the option that matches the organelles with the most appropriate property
A
A-(iv); B-(iii), C-(v); D-(i), E-(ii)
B
A-(v), B-(iv); C-(i), D-(v), E-(ii)
C
A-(iii): B-(v); C-(i): D-(iv); E-(ii)
D
A-(iv); B-(v), C-(ii): D-(i); E-(iii)
Question 111Single Answer
Sphingolinids (S) and cholesterol (C) molecules of the lipid bilaver aggregate into multiple tiny rafts instead of a single large one. Considering that size of a lipid raft depends on the affinity of S and C for one another and other lipids in the membrane, choose the option that best describes this property.
A
S and C bind to one another tightly and independent of any other lipid molecules.
B
S and C bind to one another with same affinity as they bind to other lipid species of the membrane
C
S and C bind to one another with high affinity under the influence of some cytoskeletal elements.
D
S and C have slightly higher affinity than other lipid molecules of the membrane and are in dynamic equilibrium with their free forms.
Question 112Single Answer
A polymer is synthesized from an achiral amino acid. Conformation of the polymer can be investigated by the following techniques.
A.Fibre diffraction
B.Nuclear magnetic resonance spectror..
C.Circular dichroism spectroscopy
D.Differential scanning calorimetry
Choose the combination which would indicate that the polymer adopts a helical conformatio.
A
1,3
B
2,4
C
1,2
D
3,4
Question 113Single Answer
Match the chemical agents that interfere in oxidative phosphorylation process with their respective mode of action.
Column1 column II
A.Antimycin A (i) Inhibits Fo component of ATP
synthase
B.Oligomycin (ii)Disrupts inner mitochondrial
membrane potential
C.Valinomycin (iii)Prevent electron transport from Fe/S
cluster to ubiquinone Fe/S
D.Rotenone (iv) Blocks electron transfer from
cytochrome b to cytochrone ci
(v)Inhibits adenine nucleotide translocase
Choose the correct combination from below:
A
A-(ii), B-(iv),C-(v), D-(iii)
B
A-(iv), B-(i),C-(ii), D-(iii)
C
A-(i), B-(iii),C-(ii), D-(v)
D
A-(v). B-(ii),C-(i), D-(ii)
Question 114Single Answer
From the following statements
A.Enzymes enhance reaction rates by a factor of 2 to10
B.The activation energy for a reaction is lowered by enzymes
C.The interactions between enzymes and substrates are hydrogen bonding.
D.Substrate concentration does not affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions
Pick the combination with all INCORRECT statements
A
A,B
B
B,C
C
A,C
D
A,D
Question 115Single Answer
The following statements are made:
A.a and B anomers of glucose are inter-convertible and the ratio of their abundance
is 12 respectively
B.Single chain lipids (>C14) form micelles and double chain lipids form bilayers in water.
C.Proline is energetically favoured at the C- termini of an ox-helix than at the N-termini.
D.Major groove of DNA readily accommodates several common structural motifs in protein than the minor groove
E.Replacement of a canonical Watson-Crick pairing by Wobble base pairs does not change the surface properties in t-RNA
Which one of the following combinations is INCORRECT
A
A and D
B
B and E
C
C and E
D
B and C
Question 116Single Answer
Out of the statements mentioned below-
A.L-threonine and L-allo-threonine interact identically with plane polarized light.
B.van der Waals interactions are always attractive
C.Poly (pro) II helix is not stabilized by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
D.The folding of a protein is associated with an overall positive change in free energy and negative change in entropy
E.Lysine acetylation on histone is associated with loosening of the histone complex from DNA
Which of the following combinations is CORRECT?
A
A and C
B
B and D
C
C and E
D
D and E
Question 117Single Answer
Match the coenzymes in column I serving as transient carriers of specific atoms or functional groups in column II.
column I column II
A.Coenzyme A (i) Aldehyde groups
B.Flavin adenine (ii) Amino groups
dinucleotide
C.Pyridoxal phosphate (iii) Hydrogen atoms
D.Thiamine pyrophosphate (iv) Acyl groups
Select correct combinations from the options given below
A
A-(iv), B-(iii),C-(ii), D-(i)
B
A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
C
A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
D
A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
Question 118Single Answer
Two classes of genes-prot-oncogene and tumor suppressor gene usually contribute to the development of cancer. Following are some of the statements regarding both the genes. A.Proto-oncogenes result in the development of cancer by gain-of-function mutations whereas tumor suppressor gene leads to cancer development by loss-of –function mutation.
B.Proto-oncogenes result in development of cancer by loss-of-function mutation wheres tumor suppressor gene leads to cancer development by gain-of-function mutation.
C.Mutation in both alleles of a protooncogene is required for induction of cancer whereas mutation in one of the two alleles in tumor suppressor gene is sufficient for promoting tumorigenesis.
D.Mutation in one of the two alleles in proto-oncogene is sufficient for induction of cancer whereas mutation in both the alleles of a tumor suppressor gene is required for promoting tumorigenesis.
Which combinations of the above statements are true for both the genes?
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A and D
D
B and C
Question 119Single Answer
In a type of signal transduction pathway,ligand binding to a receptor triggers activation of a receptor associated kinase. This kinase may be an intrinsic part of the receptor protein or tightly bound to the receptor. Receptors in which the tyrosine kinase is an intrinsic part of it's polypeptide chain are called the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK). Which one of the following statements regarding RTK is INCORRECT ?
A
All RTKs have three essential components: an extracellular domain containing ligand
binding site, a transmembrane domain and a cytoplasmic segment that includes a domain
with protein tyrosine kinase activity.
B
Most RTKs are monomeric and ligand binding to the extracellular domain induces formation of receptor dimers.
C
All cytokine receptors belong to RTKs and cytokine binding activates tyrosine kinase and receptor dimerization.
D
Ligand binding to RTK leads to autophosphorylation of the protein tyrosine kinase in the cytoplasmic domain. The activated kinase then phosphorylates several tyrosine residues in the receptor's cytoplasmic domin.
Question 120Single Answer
tRNA genes of a Gram positive bacteria were sequenced. While some of the genes possessed sequence corresponding to the -CCA end of the tRNA, others did not. Interestingly, even the genes that lacked the sequence corresponding to the -CCA end of the tRNA were found to code for a functional tRNA. This is because-
A
the-CCA end in the tRNA is not essential for its function
B
the genes that do not posses sequence corresponding to -CCA ends of the tRNA are repaired prior to their transcription.
C
the -CCA end is added to the tRNA during their maturation
D
the primary transcripts of the genes lacking sequence corresponding to the -CCA end are subjected to g-RNA mediated editing prior to their maturation.
Question 121Single Answer
Imagine the following RNA sequence is translated in the mammalian cytosol and mitochondria.
RNA sequences:AUG AUA CUG UGA CUU AGG CUC UAA
Following are some putative peptide sequences Cytosol Mitochondria
(a) Met-Ile-Leu (I) Met-Ile-Leu-Trp- Leu-Arg-Leu
(b) Met-Ile-Leu-arg-Leu (ii) Met-Met-Leu- Trp-Leu Find out the correct combination of peptides made in the cytosol and mitochondria.
A
(i)
B
(ii)
C
(i)
D
(ii)
Question 122Single Answer
Following table lists the the major forms of DNA duplexes, conformation of base attached to the sugar and the nature of major and minor grooves.
DNA duplex DNA Properties
(A) A form (i) Syn conformation of the base to sugar
(B) B form (ii)Anti conformation of the base to sugar
(iii) Wide major groove
(iv)Narrow major groove
(v) Wide minor groove
(vi) Narrow mine groove
Which of the following combination correctly depicts the types of DNA duplexes and their properties (numbered within bracket)?
A
A-(i) (iii) (vi);B- (ii) (iii) (vi)
B
A-(i) (iii) (vi); B-(ii) (iii) (v)
C
A-(ii) (iv) (v); (B)- (ii) (iii) (vi)
D
A-(ii) (iv) (v);(B)- (ii) (iii) (vi)
Question 123Single Answer
You have discovered a new transposon, TnX. and would like to identify its mode of replication. A heteroduplex of the TnX sequence is made with a few mismatches and introduced into bacteria. The newly transposed genomic loci are sequence. You find that the sequence of the transposon matched exactly with one of its parent strands. This suggests that.
A
TnX transposes by conservative transposition mechanism
B
TnX transposes using a site-specific recombination mechanism
C
single-strands of the duplex are inserted
D
TnX transposes by replicative mechanism
Question 124Single Answer
What would be the effect on newt limb regeneration, if more than 90% of the nerve supply is severed before amputation?
A
The apical ectodermal cap stimulates growth of the blastema by secreting FGF8 but regeneration does not take place.
B
Limb regeneration will take place and form a limb with no nerve supply.
C
Outgrowth will occur but the identity of the limb formed will be lost with no clear anterior-posterior polarity.
D
Limb regeneration with nerve supply will take place.
Question 125Single Answer
Following are the events that might take place during dorso-ventral axis specification in early embryonic development of Drosophila.
A.Torpedo' receptor activation
B.'Pipe' synthesis
C.A cascade of protease activity
D.Cactus' dephosphorylation
E.Entry of 'Dorsal' in the nuclei of syncytial blastoderm stage embryo
Which combination of the above events will occur in the presumptive dorsal side of the embryo deficient in maternal gurken?
A
A only
B
B and C only
C
B, C and E only
D
B,C, D and E only
Question 126Single Answer
elegans embryo uses both autonomous and conditional modes of specification. Conditional specification at the 4-cell stage can be seen in the development of the endoderm cell lineage and also in the establishment of dorsal-ventral axis. Following are few statements regarding this: A.If the P2, cell is removed at the early 4-cell stage, the EMS cell will divide into two MS cells and no endoderm will be made.
B. In pop-1 deficient embryos, both EMS daughter cells become E cells.
C.When the position of ABa and ABp was reversed, their fates get reversed and no normal embryo forms
D.Ins embryos whose mother have mutant glp-1, ABp is transformed into AB a cell
Which of the above statements are true?
A
A, B and D
B
A, B and C
C
B, C and D
D
A, C and D
Question 127Single Answer
During vulva development in C. elegans, the anchor cell produces Lin-3 protein which interacts with the Let-23 protein present on the six vulval precursor cells (VPCs) that form an equivalence group. The central lineage cell (P6.p) adopts primary fate, the adjacent VPCs (P5.p and P7.p) adopt the secondary fate and the rest VPCs adopt the tertiary fate. Few mutants (Column A) and phenotypes (Column B) are listed in the table given below. Column A Column B
A.Loss of function of lin-3 (i) P5.p, P6.p and P7.p of lin-3 adopt primary fate.P4.p and P8.p adopt secondary fate
B.Loss of function (ii) Multivulva of lin-3 and gain of function of let-23
C.Reduced function of lin-3 (iii) P6.padopt primary fate and the rest of the VPCs adopt tertiary fate
D.Overexpression of lin-3 (iv) All VPCs adopt tertiary fate Match the correct mutant with phenotype.
A
A-iv,B-ii,C-iii,D-i
B
A-iv,B-iii,C-i,D-ii
C
A-ii, B-iii.C-iv,D-i
D
A-ii, B-i.C-ii,D-iv
Question 128Single Answer
Identification of genes that are associated with the development of male and/or female gametophyte and embryogenesis in plants is facilitated by T-DNA mediated insertional mutagenesis. In an experiement, a transganic plant was generated by insertion of T-DNA (containing a Kanamycin-resistance gene) a gene "A". Self pollination of theT0 plant generated F1, progeny that segregated in a 2:1 ratio for resistance:sensitivity to kanamycin These observations indicate that.
A
the emutant allele did not segregate from the wild type allele
B
mutation in gene "A" induces lethality in the male gametophyte
C
mutation in gene "A" induces lethality in the female gametophyte
D
mutation in gene "A" induces zygotic lethality
Question 129Single Answer
Oncogenic viruses could have either DNA or RNA genomes. Listed below are some
oncogenic viruses (Column A), their genome type (Column B) and cancers caused
viruses (Column C).
A B C
(a)Hepatitis B (i) DNA (x) Burkitt's
lymphoma
(b)Epstein Barr Virus (ii) RNA (y)T cell leukaemia
(c) HTLV (z)Hepatocellular carcinoma
Find out the correct combination
A
(a) (i) (x), (b) (ii) (y), (c) (ii) (z)
B
(a) (ii) (y), (b) (i) (Z), (C) (ii) (x)
C
(a) (ii) (v), (b) (ii) (z), (C) (i) (y)
D
(a) (i) (z), (b) (i) (x), (C) (ii) (y)
Question 130Single Answer
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules are encoded by a cluster of genes called MHC locus. There are several reasons why an MHC molecule on the surface of a cell is important. Which one of the following reasons is INCORRECT?
A
To display self class I to demonstrate that the cell is normal and healthy
B
To display foreign-peptide in class 1 to show that the cell is infected and to engage with T
helper cells.
C
To display a self -peptide in class I and II to test devloping T cells for autoreactivity
D
To display a self-peptide in class I and II to maintain tolerance to self proteins.
Question 131Single Answer
When a skeletal muscle was passively stretched, it contracted reflexly.however, when the muscle was over stretched in this way it showed sudden cessation of contraction followed by relaxation.the following statements provided the possible explanation of these observations.
A.The passive stretching of muscle spindle
B.The over stretching of muscle stimulated Golgi tendon organ
C.Group 1 b sensory nerve fibers were stimulated by stretching of muscles spindle
D.Group Ib sensory nerve fibers stimulated a motor neurons that supplied the muscle from which these fibers arose.
E.Group 1 a sensory nerve fibers were connected to Golgi tendon organ
F.The stimulation of group la sensory fibers led to the to the production of IPSP on a motor neurons that supplied the muscle from which these fibers arose.
Which of the above statement(s)/is are correct?
A
A and B
B
C and D
C
E and F
D
C and F
Question 132Single Answer
In the glomerular capillary (GC), fluid moves into Bowman's capsule through its almost entire length. But in the muscle capillary (MC), fluid moves into interstitial space at its arteriolar end. The difference between these two capillaries is explained in the following proposed statements.
A.Afferent and efferent arterioles are present on the two ends of GC, but in MC, arteriole and venule are present on two ends./GC.
B.The hydrostatic pressure in GC is higher than that in MC
C.The efferent arteriole in GC has a relatively low resistance, but venules in MC has a high resistance.
D.The difference of hydrostatic pressure Pressure between two ends of GC is relatively more but it is negligible in MC
E.The difference of oncotic pressure between two ends of MC is negligible but it is realtively more in GC
F.The net filtration pressure falls to zero at the efferent end of GC but it is 9 mm Hg inward at the venular end of MC.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?
A
A and B
B
C and D
C
E and F
D
B and F
Question 133Single Answer
The pacemaker cells of sinoatrial node (SA node) are inhibited by the stimulation of vagus nerve. The probable mechanisms of this inhibition are stated as follows:
A.The acetylcholine-regulated K+ channels are activated
B.The outward K+ causes hyperpolarization of pacemaker cells
C.The inward "funny current" of pacemaker potential is increased
D.The increased intracellular CAMP, induced by activation of M2, muscarinic-receptors, slows the opening of Ca++ channels.
Choose the answer with correct statements
A
A and C
B
B and C
C
A and B
D
C and D
Question 134Single Answer
The following statements describe the possible functions of the outer hair cells (OHC) of organ of Corti:
A.The outer hair cells (OHC) are depolarized or hyperpolarized depending on the direction of movement of stereocilia
B.The OHC are lengthened in depolarization and shortened in hyperpolarization
C.The OHC decrease the amplitude and clarity of sound by shortening and lengthening
D.The efferent nerve fibers of olivocochlear bundle modulate the sensitivity of the OHC
E.The effect of stimulation of olivocochler bundle on the OHC is excitatory
Which one of the options given below represents the correct statements?
A
A and B
B
C and D
C
A and D
D
D and E
Question 135Single Answer
Transgenic tobacco plants over-expressing isopentenyl transfer (IPT) under the control of promoter region of Senescence- Associated Receptor kinase (PSARK) were exposed to drought for 15 days followed by re-watering for 7 days. The following hypotheses were proposed regarding changes in the transgenic plants at the end of 7 days of re-watering.
A.The plants would be wilted and fail to survive
B.The plants would be healthy and survive
C.The plants would show higher production of cytokinin compared to wild type plants
D.The plants would show higher production of absicic acid compared to wild type plants.
Which one of the following combinations of the above hypotheses is correct?
A
A and C
B
A and D
C
B and C
D
B and D
Question 136Single Answer
With reference to plant biotic interactions, match the terms of column I with the most appropriate term of Column II.
Column I Column II
A. Phytoliths of Ponceac (i) Pholem feeders
B.Salicylic acid (ii)Decrease in Stomatal aperture
signalling pathway
C.MAMP (iii) R genese /NBS-LRR receptor
D. Effector triggered (iv) Mechanical barrier to herbivory
immunity
A
A-(ii) B- (iv),C-(i), D-(iii)
B
A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D- (iv)
C
A-(iv), B-(ii),C-(iii), D-(i)
D
A-(iv), B-(i),C-(ii), D-(iii)
Question 137Single Answer
The photon intensity captured by green plants is used in the following processes:
(i)Photosynthesis
(ii)Generation of heat
(iii)Production of toxic products such as superoxide, singlet oxygen etc.
(iv)Damage to DI protein of PSII
Based on the above facts, photoinhibiton happen when the
A
entire photon intensity is photosynthesis
B
excess photon intensity is completely used for heat generation
C
excess photon intensity is used for heat generation and formation of toxic products
D
excess photon intensity leads to the damage of DI protein
Question 138Single Answer
A researcher developed quadruple mutant that disrupted the function of all phytochrome interacting factor (PIF) family members. The following hypotheses were proposed regarding the phenotype of the mutant plants when grown in dark
A. Plants would show short hypocotyls
B.Plants would be etiolated
C.Light induced genes would be activated
D.The cotyledons would be open
Which one of the following combinations of the above hypotheses is correct?
A
A, B and C
B
A, B and D
C
A,C and D
D
B,C and D
Question 139Single Answer
Given below are some statements on secondary metabolites in plants.
A.Glucosinolates are synthesized by elongation in the length of side chains of their precursor amino acids.
B.All terpenes produced in herbs and spices are Sticky oily liquids which reduces the palatability (edible value ) of these plants.
C.Cyanogenic glycosides are produced and stored in a toxic form in plants and are therefore more effective in defense against invading pathogens and herbivores.
D.The defense molecules, alkaloids (or their precursors), are gathered from plants and used by some insects for their own protection against predators.
Which one of the following represents correct statements?
A
B and C only
B
A and B only
C
C only
D
A and D only
Question 140Single Answer
A specific Mitogen Activated Protein Kinase The (MAPK) cascade comprising MEKK 1 (a MAP3K), MKKI (a MAP2K) and MPK6 (a MAPK) is activated sequentially in that orders in Arabidopsis plants upon perceiving certain abiotic stress stimuli. The activated MPK6 phosphorylates and activates a transcription factor 'X' thereby making plant tolerant to the abiotic stress. Two different variants of MKK1 protein, a kinase inactive (KI) and a constitutively active (CA) forms were expressed independently in mkk1 mutant Arabidopsis plant. Considering above facts, which one of the following statements is CORRECT ?
A
'X' will be activated even in the absence of stimuli in CA plants.
B
'X' will not be activated in the absence of stimuli in CA plants.
C
'X' will be activated in the absence of stimuli in KI plants.
D
The Kl plants will be tolerant to the abiotic stress
Question 141Single Answer
Given below are statement on key characteristics of two fungal lineages.
A.Microsporidia do not have true mitochondria.
B.Most chytrids produce flagellated gametes
C.Microsporidia are usually free-living
D.Chytrids reproduce sexually without a dikaryon stage
Choose the combination with correct statements
A
A,B and C only
B
A, B and D only
C
B,C and D only
D
A and B only
Question 142Single Answer
Euphorbiaceae generally represents milky sap bearing plants but there are also some non-milky sap bearing plants that belong to this family. Identify the correct combination of the following given plants which belong to family Euphorbiacea.
A
Terminalia bellirica, Euphorbia hirta Nerium indicum
B
Mallotus philippense, Ficus religiosa Ricinus communis
Acalypha indica, Ricinus communis Mangifera indica
Question 143Single Answer
Two inbred lines of beans were intercrossed .In F1 the variance in bean length was measured as 2.0. The F1 was selfed to obtain F2 variance in bean length in F2 was 7.0 .The broad heritability of bean length in population will be:
A
0.75
B
9.0
C
5.0
D
0.71
Question 144Single Answer
In Drosophila, Bar eye (B) is a dominant mutation while miniature wing (m) and yellow body colour (y) are recessive mutations Heterozygous females for these mutations were crossed to normal eyed miniature winged and yellow body coloured males. Assume the following progeny was obtained:
Phenotypes Number
B+m+y+ 30
B my+ 25
Bm+y+ 165
B+my+ 120
B m y 20
Bm+y 110
B+m+y 45
Based on the results obtained, the order of genes will be
A. Bmy
B. mBy
The genetic distance between B and y will be
C. 40 cM
D. 17.1cM
The correct combination of answer is
A
A and C
B
B and C
C
A and D
D
B and D
Question 145Single Answer
In Burkitt's Lymphoma a reciprocal translocation between chromosome 8 and 14 is observed. If an individual is heterozygous for this translocations, the consequence in mciosis will be as follows.
A.Four chromosomes, i.e. normal chromosome 8 and 14, and translocated chromosome 8 and 14. pair together.
B.The two normal chromosomes 8 and 14, and two translocated chromosomes pair separately.
C.All gametes produced from this meiosis are non-viable as they have deletions and duplications.
D.in one of the cross configurations called “alternate segregation” all gametes having normal or translocated chromosomes survive
E.The gametes having normal chromosomes only survive while all gametes having translocated chromosomes are non-viable, hence the translocations are used as crossover supspressors.
Which of the following combinations best describes the meiotic consequence for the translocation described above?
A
B and E
B
B, C and E
C
A,C and E
D
A and D
Question 146Single Answer
In an examination 100 questions of 1 mark each are given. After the examination, 20 questions are deleted from evaluation, leaving 80 questions with a total of 100 marks. Student A had answered 4 of the deleted questions correctly and got 40 marks, whereas student B had answered 10 of the deleted questions correctly and got 35 marks. In this situation.
A
A and B were equally benefitted
B
A and B lost equally
C
B lost more than A
D
A lost more than B
Question 147Single Answer
A circular running track has six lanes, each 1m wide. How far ahead (in metres) should the runner in the outermost lane start from, so as to cover the same distance in one lap as the runner in the innermost lane?
A
6π
B
10 π
C
12 π
D
36 π
Question 148Single Answer
For the following set of observed values
{60, 65, 65, 70, 70, 70, 70, 82, 85, 90, 95, 95, 100, 160, 160},
Which of the statements is true?
A
mode median
B
mode
C
mean
D
median
Question 149Single Answer
If D = ABC + BCA + CAB where A, B and C are decimal digits, then D is divisible by
A
37 and 29
B
37 but not 29
C
29 but not 37
D
neither 29 nor 37
Question 150Single Answer
The diameters of the pinholes of two otherwise identical cameras A and B are 500 um and 200 um, respectively. Then the image in camera A will be.