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Latest Rajasthan University Lab Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge of Rajasthan, Biology, Chemistry, Physics
Question Bank Rajasthan University Lab Assistant Exam - English
General Knowledge of Rajasthan
Q 1 :
The district of Rajasthan which touches the boundary of Uttar Pradesh —
A.Bharatpur
B.Jaipur
C.Kota
D.Pali
Q 2 :
Who gave the name "Rajputana" for the Rajasthan State and in which year?
A.Col. Tod; 1806
B.Fahien; 633
C.George Thomas; 1800
D.Max Muller; 1815
Q 3 :
Which of the following districts of Rajasthan has longest boundary which touches Pakistan?
A.Barmer
B.Bikaner
C.Jaisalmer
D.Ganganagar
Q 4 :
Rajasthan Day is organized on —
A.20th March
B.29th March
C.30th March
D.31st March
Q 5 :
Which among the following states not touches the boundry of Rajasthan ?
A.Bihar
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Uttar Pradesh
Q 6 :
Which area of Rajasthan State was known as 'Maru Kantar in the Ramayana' ?
A.Bagar Region
B.Shekhawati Region
C.South-East Plateau
D.Western Rajasthan
Q 7 :
Which of the following Pakistani District do not make border with Rajasthan—
A.Khairpur
B.Meerpur Khas
C.Sukkur
D.Tharparkar
Q 8 :
The correct sequence in descending order of the given districts in terms of density of population in 2011 is —
A.Kota, Ajmer, Ganganagar and Churu
B.Jaipur, Bharatpur, Dausa and Alwar
C.Jaipur, Bharatpur, Alwar and Dausa
D.Alwar, Dausa, Ajmer and Churu
Q 9 :
Adjacent district in Rajasthan are —
A.Churu, Jhunjhunu, Jaipur
B.Jhalawar, Bundi, Tonk
C.Sirohi, Barmer, Jaisalmer
D.Sirohi, pali, Nagaur
Q 10 :
State bird of Rajasthan is —
A.Chinkara
B.Godawan
C.Neelgai
D.Peacock
Q 11 :
"KUBADPATTI" of Rajasthan is located at —
A.Banswara - Dungarpur
B.Bharatpur - Alwar
C.Nagaur - Ajmer
D.Kota - Bundi
Q 12 :
The smallest inter-state boundary of Rajasthan is with the state of —
A.Gujarat
B.Haryana
C.M.P.
D.Punjab
Q 13 :
Which place is occupied by Rajasthan in terms of area in the country?
A.First
B.Second
C.Third
D.Fourth
Q 14 :
What is the percentage of area of Rajasthan with respect to the area of India ?
A.4.6 %
B.5.8 %
C.8.2 %
D.10.4 %
Q 15 :
To who did Col. James Tod dedicated his travelague "Travels in Western India" —
A.Lord Minte
B.Lord William Bentinck
C.William Hunter Blair
D.Yati Gyanchandra
Q 16 :
As per 2011 census, the population Rajasthan is —
A.4.32 crores
B.5.8 Crores
C.6.8 Crores
D.7.1 Crores
Q 17 :
Position occupied by Rajasthan related to population of India is —
A.First
B.Fourth
C.Eighth
D.Eleventh
Q 18 :
Areawise place of Rajasthan in the country is —
A.First
B.Second
C.Sixth
D.Ninth
Q 19 :
The Population growth rate in Rajasthan during 2001-2011 can be classified as —
A.High growth with definite sign of slowing down.
B.Rapid high gowth
C.Stagnant population
D.Steady growth
Q 20 :
As per 2011 census the literacy rate of female in Rajasthan is —
A.39.7%
B.46.6%
C.48.0%
D.52.1 %
Q 21 :
Population wise biggest district or Rajasthan is —
A.Barrner
B.Bhilwara
C.Jaipur
D.Jodhpur
Q 22 :
Areawise largest district of the state is —
A.Bharatpur
B.Jaisalamer
C.Kota
D.Swaimadhopur
Q 23 :
The district of Rajasthan having minimum population —
A.Bundi
B.Jaisalmer
C.Pratapnagar
D.Rajsamand
Q 24 :
Neighbouring state on boundary of Rajasthan is —
A.Gujarat
B.Haryana
C.Punjab
D.Uttar Pradesh
Q 25 :
Which district of Rajasthan has the highest literacy rate of males (Census, 2011) -
A.Churu
B.Jhunjhunu
C.Kota
D.Udaipur
Q 26 :
According to census 2011 (provisional) birth rate in Rajasthan is (higher than that of the all India figure 21.8)
A.23.4
B.25.1
C.26.2
D.27.3
Q 27 :
The density of population (2011) for India is 382, whereas in Rajasthan state it is —
A.169
B.200
C.314
D.352
Q 28 :
Which districts of Rajasthan were having more than 500 density of population in 2011 —
A.Bharatpur-Dausa
B.Jaipur-Alwar
C.Jaipur-Bharatpur
D.Jaipur-Dausa
Q 29 :
As per 2011 census, the literacy rate of Rajasthan is —
A.52.6 %
B.62.3 %
C.66.1 %
D.73.2 %
Q 30 :
Sex ratio of females per 1000 males in Rajasthan as per 2011 Census is—
A.914
B.922
C.926
D.933
Q 31 :
The percentage of population of Rajasthan with reference to India (Census-2011) is -
A.5.23 %
B.5.67%
C.7.24%
D.8.1%
Q 32 :
With reference to India, the rank occupied by Rajasthan in relation to density of population is —
A.14th
B.16th
C.17th
D.18th
Q 33 :
The census data 2011 reveals that the population of schedule castes and schedule Tribes together in Rajasthan is—
A.24.7 %
B.28.5 %
C.30.4 %
D.34.1 %
Q 34 :
The density of population is affected by three factors, the first two being rain and settlement. The third factor is :
A.Agriculture
B.Relief
C.Soil
D.Water Supply
Q 35 :
The border of Rajasthan is lone with -
A.Gujarat
B.Haryana
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Uttar Pradesh
Q 36 :
In which year did Col. Tod wrote famous book "Annals and Antiquities of Rajasthan" ?
A.1821
B.1829
C.1831
D.1832
Q 37 :
What are the three primary needs for the speedy development keeping in view the present conditions of Rajasthan ?
A.Industry, Electricity, Irrigation
B.Irrigation, Transport, Industry
C.Water supply, Agriculture, Industry
D.Water supply, Irrigation, Energy
Q 38 :
Who amongst the following rulers conquered Rajasthan by defeating Gupta's in 503 AD?
A.Harshvardhana
B.Mahesan Gupta
C.Prabhakar
D.Yasovardhana
Q 39 :
The main ruler of Chauhans, Vasudev strengthened which of the following states near 551 A.D.?
A.Bairath
B.Bundi
C.Jalore
D.Sambhar
Q 40 :
The last Chauhan ruler of Ranthambore was?
A.Digvijay
B.Govindraj
C.Hammirdev
D.Vallabhdev
Q 41 :
During the sixth century, the border of which dynasty was linked with Rajasthan?
A.Avanti
B.Harsh
C.Kuru
D.Vadhan
Q 42 :
Which dynasty is the oldest among all royal dynasties of Rajasthan?
A.Chauhan Shakambhari (Ajmer)
B.Bhati (Jaisalmer)
C.Kachhwaha (Alwar)
D.Yadav (Karauli)
Q 43 :
In which century the rise of Rajputs took place?
A.Fifth
B.Sixth
C.Seventh
D.Eighth
Q 44 :
Who was the Founder of Guhil (Mewar) dynasty?
A.Bappa Rawal
B.Jagmal Singh
C.Haarit Rishi
D.Sihad
Q 45 :
The period from 7th to 12th Century has been dubbed as —
A.Maratha Period
B.Mughal Period
C.Rajput Period
D.Tughlaq Period
Q 46 :
Kingdom of which dynasty of Rajputs were established at Abu, Jalore and Bagar between 8th to 13th century?
A.Bhati Dynasty
B.Chawad Dynasty
C.Parmar Dynasty
D.Pratihar Dynasty
Q 47 :
The ruling period of prithviraj III was?
A.1178 to 1192
B.1180 to 1193
C.1175 to 1193
D.1168 to 1198
Q 48 :
Laxman Chauhan of Sambhar established an independent state arter the invasion of Nadol in —
A.915 A.D.
B.925 A.D.
C.940 A.D.
D.943 A.D.
Q 49 :
Muslim rule was established in the year—
A.1148
B.1192
C.1203
D.1206
Q 50 :
Who changed the capital of Mewar from Nagda to Chittor?
A.Jaitra Singh
B.Ratan Singh
C.Samar Singh
D.Tej Singh
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Rajasthan University Lab Assistant Exam Question Bank Book - English
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 52 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 53 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 54 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 55 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 56 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 57 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 58 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 59 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 60 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Q 61 :
Which of the following is properly matched ?
A.Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
B.Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
C.arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
D.Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Q 62 :
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
A.medulla oblongata
B.pons
C.cerebellum
D.hypothalamus
Q 63 :
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
A.protein particles
B.a class of bacteria
C.a class of viruses
D.fungi
Q 64 :
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
A.grafting
B.hybridization
C.embryo culture
D.shoot apex culture
Q 65 :
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
A.cyanosis
B.bronchitis
C.rhinitis
D.bronchial carcinoma
Q 66 :
Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A: Secretion of FSH
B: Growth of corpus luteum
C: Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D: Ovulation
E: Sudden increase in the levels of LH
A.C → A → D → B → E
B.A → C → E → D → B
C.A → D → C → E → B
D.B → A → C → D → E
Q 67 :
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only ?
A.Amoeba, sponge, leech
B.Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
C.Earthworm, sponge, leech
D.Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Q 68 :
Vaccination against small pox was developed by:
A.Louis Pasteur
B.Edward jenner
C.Robert Koch
D.Alexander Flemming
Q 69 :
The value of human diastolic blood pressure is :
A.120 – 80 = 40 mm. Hg
B.120 mm. Hg
C.80 mm. Hg
D.128/80 mm. Hg
Q 70 :
Balance theory of sex determination holds good for:
A.Allium cepa
B.Drosophila
C.Humans
D.grasshoppers
Q 71 :
the plants respond to photo – periods due to the presence of :
A.Phytochromes
B.Stomata
C.Enzymes
D.Phytohormones
Q 72 :
Identify the edible fresh-water telesots:
A.Sharks
B.Rays and skates
C.Hilsa ilisha
D.Catla catla
Q 73 :
Plasmids occur in:
A.Viruses
B.Chromosomes
C.Bacteria
D.Chloroplasts
Q 74 :
Match the names of antibiotics listed under column 1 with their source given under column 2; choose the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns:
The bond formed between the first phosphate group and adenosine in ATP is:
A.Nitro – phosphate bond
B.Adeno – phosphate bond
C.Phosphoester bond
D.Phosphoanhydride bond
Q 76 :
The protists have:
A.Gene containing nucleo-proteins condensed together in loose mass
B.Nucleo-protein in direct contact with the nest of the cell substance
C.Only tree nucleic acid aggregates
D.Membrane bound nucleo-proteins lying embedded in the cytoplasm
Q 77 :
Antrum is the cavity of:
A.Gastrula
B.Graffian follicle
C.Ovary
D.Blastula
Q 78 :
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A.Endospores are produced in pteridophyta
B.Naked seeds are seen in gymnosperms
C.Capsule is present in the sporophyte of bryophyte
D.Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of fungus
Q 79 :
The pioneers in the field of organic evolution are:
A.Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxely
B.Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin
C.Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, De Vries
D.Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, De Vries
Q 80 :
This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissues:
A.These cells never produce glands
B.The cells have a rapid rate of cell division
C.Tissues are highly vascularized
D.Large intercellular spaces are seen between the cells
Q 81 :
Great Indian Bustard sanctuary is located in:
A.Rajasthan
B.Maharashtra
C.Pakistan
D.Madhya Pradesh
Q 82 :
The result of ozone hole is:
A.Acid rain
B.Global warming
C.The UV radiations reach the earth
D.Greenhouse effect
Q 83 :
This is not cells of areolar tissue:
A.Macrophages
B.Schwann cell
C.Plasma cell
D.Adipose cell
Q 84 :
The pH of stomach range between:
A.7.1 – 8.2
B.7.6 – 8.6
C.1.5 – 2.0
D.6.8 – 7.2
Q 85 :
Match the name of the experiments listed under column 1 with the aim of the experiment given under column 2; choose the answer which give the correct combination of the alphabets:
column 1
column 2
A.
Gridling experiment
p
Ascent of sap
B.
Cobalt chloride paper method
q
Transpiration
C.
Crescograph
r
Unequel transpiration on leaf surfaces
D.
Bell jar experiment
s
translocation
A.A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q
B.A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
C.A = q, B = p, C = s, D = r
D.A = s, B = p, C = q, D = r
Chemistry
Q 86 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 87 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 88 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 89 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 90 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 91 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 92 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 93 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 94 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 95 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 96 :
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A.methanal
B.propanal
C.propanone
D.ethanal
Q 97 :
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A.CH3CH2OH
B.CH3 – C – CH3
C.(CH3)2CHOH
D.CH3CHO
Q 98 :
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Q 99 :
The one which has least iodine value is
A.sunflower oil
B.ginger oil
C.ghee
D.groundnut oil
Q 100 :
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Q 101 :
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
A.8000
B.6470
C.7465
D.5360
Q 102 :
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
A.403 K
B.303 K
C.606 K
D.273 K
Q 103 :
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
A.m–bromophenol
B.2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C.2-4 dibromophenol
D.A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Q 104 :
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
A.Nickel
B.Zinc
C.Sodium
D.Aluminium
Q 105 :
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
A.Benzyl alcohol
B.Acetophenone
C.Anisole
D.Toluene
Q 106 :
The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:
A.Guanine
B.Adenine
C.Uracil
D.Thymine
Q 107 :
The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:
A.7
B.3
C.8
D.14
Q 108 :
Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :
A.Dehydrogenation
B.Dehydration
C.Dehydrohalogenation
D.Dehalogenation
Q 109 :
Which of the following is the correct statement?
A.Order of a reaction has always an integral value
B.Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
C.Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
D.Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law
Q 110 :
The unit of quantity of electricity is:
A.Ohm
B.Ampere
C.Coulomb
D.Volt
Q 111 :
Which of the following organic compounds answers both iodoform test and fehling’s test ?
A.Methanal
B.Ethanol
C.Propane
D.Ethanal
Q 112 :
10 dm3 of N2 gas and 10 dm3 of gas X at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules.
A.NO
B.H2
C.CO2 or CO
D.All of these
Q 113 :
When the electrons of hydrogen atoms return to L shell from shells of higher energy, we get a series of lines in the spectrum. This series is called
A.Balmer series
B.Lyman series
C.Bracket series
D.Paschen series
Q 114 :
The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is:
A.Glycol
B.Glycerol
C.Propanol
D.Pentanol
Q 115 :
Which of the following alloys is used for making magnets for hearing aids?
A.Alnico
B.German silver
C.Invar
D.Monel metal
Q 116 :
One dm3 of 2M ethanoic acid is mixed with one dm3 of 3M ethanol to form an easter
CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 +H2O
The decrease in the initial rate if each solution is diluted with an equal volume of water would be
A.2 times
B.4 times
C.0.25 times
D.0.5 times
Q 117 :
Which one of the following can be classified as a Bronstead base?
A.NO3-
B.H3O+
C.CH3COOH
D.NH4+
Q 118 :
Gold sol is an electronegative sol. The amount of electrolyte required to coagulate a certain amount of gold sol is minimum in the case of :รขโฌโน
A.CaCl2
B.NaCl
C.AlCl3
D.Na2SO4
Q 119 :
Aluminium displaces hydrogen from acids, but copper does not. A Galvanic cell prepared by combining Cu/Cu2+ and Al/Al3+ has an emf of 2.0 V at 298 K. If the potential of copper electrode is +0.34 V, that of aluminium electrode is:
A.– 2.3 V
B.+ 2.34 V
C.– 1.66 V
D.+ 1.66 V
Q 120 :
1.5 moles of O2 combine with Mg to form the oxide MgO. The mass of Mg that has combined is (Mg = 24):
A.72 g
B.36 g
C.48 g
D.24 g
Physics
Q 121 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 122 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 123 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 124 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 125 :
Three resistors 1 รขโยฆ, 2 รขโยฆ, 3รขโยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโยฆ resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 126 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 127 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 128 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 129 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 130 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
Q 131 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A.(2รฐยลโน + 1)λ
B.2nรฐยลโน
C.nλ
D.n
Q 132 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A.multimeter
B.voltmeter
C.voltameter
D.potentiometer
Q 133 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A.Both K and L increase
B.Both K and L remain unchanged
C.K remains constant, L increases
D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 134 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A.Gas constant (R)
B.Pressure (p)
C.Volume (V)
D.Temperature (T)
Q 135 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A.300 m
B.3 km
C.15 m
D.15 km
Q 136 :
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
A.25 kWh
B.9 x 1010 kWh
C.3 x 1010 kWh
D.0.5 x 105 kWh
Q 137 :
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
A.5 and 6
B.5 and 7
C.2 and 7
D.2 and 6
Q 138 :
β-decay means emission of electron from
A.innermost electron orbit
B.a stable nucleus
C.outermost electron orbit
D.radioactive nucleus
Q 139 :
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
A.0.8 A
B.2.5 A
C.0.4 A
D.1.25 A
Q 140 :
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
A.50 s-2
B.25 s-2
C.12.5 s-2
D.6.25 s-2
Q 141 :
A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35o with respect to the direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is
A.35o
B.50o
C.55o
D.60o
Q 142 :
A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms-2. The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms-2)
A.0.015 N
B.0.15 N
C.0.030 N
D.zero
Q 143 :
The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids are called
A.emulsions
B.gels
C.foams
D.liquid crystals
Q 144 :
In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained during visible light because
A.I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
B.scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
C.the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
D.scattering of I–R light is less than visible light
Q 145 :
Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body
A.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
B.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
C.cannot keep the body in equilibrium
D.can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle
Q 146 :
Sound waves transfer
A.only energy not momentum
B.energy
C.momentum
D.both (a) and (b)
Q 147 :
G P Thomson experimentally confirmed the existence of matter waves by the phenomena
A.diffraction
B.refraction
C.polarisation
D.scattering
Q 148 :
The resistance of a wire at 300 K is found to be 0.3 รขโยฆ. If the temperature coefficient of resistance of wire is 1.5 x 10-3 K-1, the temperature at which the resistance becomes 0.6 รขโยฆ is
A.720 K
B.345 K
C.993 K
D.690 K
Q 149 :
Two luminous points sources separated by a certain distance are at 10 km from an observer. If the aperture of his eye is 2.5 x 10-3 m and the wavelength of light used is 500 nm the distance of separation between the point sources just seen to be resolved is
A.12.2 m
B.24.2 m
C.2.44 m
D.1.22 m
Q 150 :
A door 1.6 m wide requires a force of N to be applied at the free end to open or close it. The force that is required at a point 0.4 m distance from the hinges for opening or closing the door is
