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Latest REPCO Bank Clerk Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, Computer Awareness
Question Bank REPCO Bank Clerk Exam - English
Reasoning
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 22 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 23 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 24 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 25 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 26 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 28 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 29 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 30 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 31 :
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69
Q 32 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 33 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 34 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 36 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 38 :
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A.Two
B.One
C.None
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 40 :
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
English Language
Q 41 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 42 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 43 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 44 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 45 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 46 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 47 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 48 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 49 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 50 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
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English Language
Q 51 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 52 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 53 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 54 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 55 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 56 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 57 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 58 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 59 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 60 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Q 61 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 62 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 63 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 64 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 65 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 66 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 67 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 68 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 69 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 70 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Q 71 :
Deep-seated
A.Chronic
B.Temporary
C.inbred
D.Subconscious
Q 72 :
Vibrant
A.Drab
B.Gaudy
C.Jazzy
D.Vivid
Q 73 :
To scowl
A.To glower
B.To smirk
C.To Grimace
D.To grin
Q 74 :
I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
Q 75 :
Atheist
A.Skeptic
B.Pagan
C.Disciple
D.Agnostic
Q 76 :
Abdicate
A.Forgo
B.Usurp
C.Waive
D.Cede
Q 77 :
Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.
A.Little
B.Few
C.Many
D.Big
Q 78 :
A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-
A.Virtuoso
B.Linguist
C.Ventriloquist
D.Scholar
Q 79 :
Astringe
A. Liberate
B.Constringe
C.Circumscribe
D.Tauten
Q 80 :
The ………..of gurudakshina is very ancient.
A.habit
B.approach
C.perception
D.concept
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 81 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 82 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 83 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 84 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 85 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 86 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 87 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 88 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 89 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 90 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 91 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 92 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 93 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 94 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 95 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 96 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 97 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 98 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 99 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 100 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 101 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 102 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 103 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 104 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 105 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 106 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 107 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 108 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 109 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 110 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 111 :
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 112 :
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ​ Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 113 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 114 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 115 :
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
A.Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 116 :
Is x an integer ?
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 117 :
Out of the four teams A, B, C and D which team is not likely to win as per the opinion poll ?
(I) As per the opinion poll, chances of team C’s winning are more than that of team A.
​(II) As per the opinion poll team C’s chances of winning are less than that of team B but not less than that of team D, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 118 :
A, B and C are positive integers. Is their product an even number ?
(I) A is an even number.
(II) The product of A and B is an even number and that of A and C is also an even number.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 119 :
What was Mr. Srinivasula’s combined income for the year 1994-1999 ? In 1994, he made Rs.10,00,000.
(I) His average yearly income for the years 1994-1999 was Rs.12,00,000.
​(II) In 1999, his income was Rs.20,00,000.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement(I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 120 :
A, B, C and D made their project presentation, one on each day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day did ‘C’ make his presentation ?
(1) The first presentation was made on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by ‘D’s presentation.
​(2) ‘A’ did not make his presentation on 25th and one of them made his presentation, between A’s and B’s.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
General Awareness
Q 121 :
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A.It is a financial establishment
B.It acts like a financial intermediary
C.It accepts deposits from the public
D.It provides safe locker facility
E.All the above
Q 122 :
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B.They include general utility services and agency services.
C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Q 123 :
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
B.Providing safe custody of valuable items
C.ATM services
D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
Q 124 :
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
D.Company Act 1956
E.None of the above
Q 125 :
Banks in India are regulated by :
A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E.None of the above
Q 126 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 127 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 128 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 129 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 130 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 131 :
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 132 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 133 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 134 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 135 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 136 :
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A.Economic behavior
B.Human values and moral principles
C.Physical health
D.Political systems
Q 137 :
Which is the longest river in India?
A.Yamuna
B.Ganges
C.Brahmaputra
D.Godavari
Q 138 :
Which institution is known as the "banker's bank" in India?
A.SBI
B.RBI
C.NABARD
D.SIDBI
Q 139 :
The primary objective of the RBI is:
A.Profit maximization
B.Price stability and growth
C.Employment generation
D.Promoting exports
Q 140 :
The current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is:
A.Urjit Patel
B.Raghuram Rajan
C.Shaktikanta Das
D.Bimal Jalan
Q 141 :
Which of the following is NOT a function of the RBI?
A.Issuing currency
B.Accepting deposits from the public
C.Acting as banker to the government
D.Regulating banks
Q 142 :
The repo rate is the rate at which:
A.RBI lends to commercial banks
B.Commercial banks lend to RBI
C.Banks borrow from each other
D.RBI sells government securities
Q 143 :
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A.Chip India 3.0
B.India Chip Mission
C.Semicon 2.0
D.Semiconductor Bharat
Q 144 :
What is the primary focus of the RBI Master Circular on Credit Facilities to Scheduled Castes (SCs) & Scheduled Tribes (STs) issued on June 16, 2025?
A.Increasing loan interest rates
B.Enhancing credit access for marginalized communities
C.Reducing loan disbursements
D.Promoting digital banking
Q 145 :
According to the RBI Master Circular on Basel III Capital Regulations (May 12, 2023), what is the minimum capital adequacy ratio for banks?
A.5%
B.9%
C.12%
D.15%
Q 146 :
What does the RBI Master Circular on Housing Finance for UCBs (April 11, 2023) emphasize?
A.Reducing housing loan limits
B.Guidelines for housing finance by Urban Co-operative Banks
C.Increasing interest rates for home loans
D.Eliminating housing finance schemes
Q 147 :
Which RBI circular addresses the norms for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) financing?
A.Master Circular on SHG-Bank Linkage Programme
B.Master Circular on Bank Finance to NBFCs (April 24, 2024)
C.Master Circular on Lead Bank Scheme
D.Master Circular on Basel III Capital Regulations
Q 148 :
What is the purpose of the RBI Master Circular on Prudential Norms on Income Recognition, Asset Classification, and Provisioning (April 2, 2024)?
A.To regulate asset classification and provisioning
B.To standardize loan disbursement
C.To promote digital transactions
D.To increase loan interest rates
Q 149 :
Which RBI Master Circular regulates guarantees and co-acceptances for Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs)?
A.Master Circular on Housing Finance
B.Master Circular on Guarantees, Co-acceptances & Letters of Credit - UCBs (April 1, 2024)
C.Master Circular on Lead Bank Scheme
D.Master Circular on SHG-Bank Linkage Programme
Q 150 :
What is the key objective of the RBI Master Circular on SHG-Bank Linkage Programme (April 1, 2024)?
A.To promote corporate banking
B.To increase foreign investments
C.To reduce banking regulations
D.To facilitate credit to Self-Help Groups
Q 151 :
According to the RBI Master Circular on Conduct of Government Business by Agency Banks (April 1, 2024), what is the focus?
A.Payment of agency commission
B.Increasing loan disbursements
C.Promoting digital wallets
D.Reducing banking staff
Q 152 :
What does the RBI Master Circular on Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (April 16, 2024) aim to support?
A.Urban development projects
B.Corporate loan schemes
C.Rural livelihood programs
D.International trade
Q 153 :
What is the purpose of the RBI Master Circular on Lead Bank Scheme (April 3, 2023)?
A.To regulate foreign exchange
B.To promote digital banking
C.To coordinate banking services in districts
D.To reduce loan interest rates
Q 154 :
Which RBI circular addresses the management of advances for Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs)?
A.Master Circular on Housing Finance
B.Master Circular on Basel III Capital Regulations
C.Master Circular on Management of Advances - UCBs (July 25, 2023)
D.Master Circular on SHG-Bank Linkage Programme
Q 155 :
What is the focus of the RBI Master Circular on Credit Facilities to Minority Communities (August 2, 2022)?
A.Increasing interest rates
B.Reducing loan disbursements
C.Promoting digital transactions
D.Enhancing credit access for minority communities
Q 156 :
According to the RBI Master Circular on Exposure Norms and Statutory Restrictions for UCBs (January 16, 2024), what is regulated?
A.Loan interest rates
B.Exposure limits for banks
C.Digital banking platforms
D.Employee salaries
Q 157 :
What is the key purpose of the RBI Master Circular on Disbursement of Government Pension by Agency Banks (April 1, 2024)?
A.To promote digital wallets
B.To increase loan disbursements
C.To streamline pension payments
D.To reduce banking staff
Q 158 :
Which RBI circular provides guidelines for asset reconstruction companies?
A.Master Circular on Lead Bank Scheme
B.Master Circular on Housing Finance
C.Master Circular on SHG-Bank Linkage Programme
D.Master Circular on Asset Reconstruction Companies (April 3, 2023)
Q 159 :
What does the RBI Master Circular on Basel III Capital Regulations (May 12, 2023) emphasize?
A.Loan disbursement procedures
B.Capital adequacy and risk management
C.Digital banking platforms
D.Employee training programs
Q 160 :
According to the RBI Master Circular on Prudential Norms for UCBs (April 1, 2024), what is the focus?
A.Reducing banking regulations
B.Promoting corporate loans
C.Capital adequacy for Urban Co-operative Banks
D.Increasing foreign investments
Computer Awareness
Q 161 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 162 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 163 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 164 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 165 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Q 166 :
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A.Window program
B.Spreadsheet program
C.Graphics program
D.Word program
E.None of these
Q 167 :
The term Briefcase is used for
A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B.a window that us currently open
C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 168 :
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A.Executing a command or initiating an action
B.Permanently storing data
C.Displaying the computer's IP address
D.Formatting a disk automatically
Q 169 :
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 170 :
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A.The associated option is enabled or selected
B.The application has closed
C.The file has been deleted
D.The computer is offline
Q 171 :
The term classic style implies
A.you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B.a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C.both a and b
D.font style
E.None of these
Q 172 :
The term click implies
A.to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B.a button in a dialog box
C.to shut down or exit a dialog box
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 173 :
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A.Minimize the window
B.Close the associated window or application
C.Maximize the window
D.Move the window
Q 174 :
A command button
A.is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B.is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D.is a small button with an X on it
E.None of these
Q 175 :
What is smallest unit of the information?
A.A bit
B.A byte
C.A block
D.A nibble
Q 176 :
A cursor is
A.to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B.a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.pressing and holding the main mouse button
D.A button in a dialog box
E.None of these
Q 177 :
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A.A structured collection of data only
B.Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C.A physical device for storing database backups
D.A programming language used only for calculations
Q 178 :
The meaning of cut is
A.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B.to cut a document in two unequal parts
C.to cut a document in two equal parts
D.Only b and c are correct
Q 179 :
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A.pre - determined setting
B.user - setting
C.default
D.setting
E.None of these
Q 180 :
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A.wall paper
B.desktop
C.background
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 181 :
The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called Binary Digits or
A.Bytes
B.Kilobytes
C.Decimal bytes
D.Bits
Q 182 :
What language does a browser typically interpret to display information from the World Wide Web ?
A.Machine Code
B.Assembly Language
C.HTML
D.C++
Q 183 :
______ is the process of finding errors in software code.
A.Compiling
B.Testing
C.Running
D.Debugging
Q 184 :
The code for a Web page is written using _________.
A.A fifth generation language
B.WinZip
C.Peripherals
D.Hypertext Markup Language
Q 185 :
A program is a sequence of ___________ written in a programming language.
A.Lines
B.Function
C.Instructions
D.Code words
Q 186 :
Which of the following languages is more suited to a structured program ?
A.PL/1
B.FORTRAN
C.BASIC
D.PASCAL
Q 187 :
A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language to machine language is
A.compiler
B.Interpreter
C.Assembler
D.None of the above
Q 188 :
The symbols used in an assembly language are
A.Codes
B.Mnemonics
C.Assembler
D.All of the above
Q 189 :
Which is a non-standard version of a computing language ?
A.PROLOG
B.APL
C.Army
D.PL/1
Q 190 :
A language which is close to that used with in the computer is
A.High – level language
B.Assembly language
C.Low- level language
D.All of the above
Q 191 :
Program execution time would be minimum if the programs are written in
A.Machine Language
B.Assembly language
C.High level language
D.All of the above
Q 192 :
Which one of the following is not a type of a language processor ?
A.Compiler
B.Interpreter
C.Application software
D.Assembler
Q 193 :
Which one of the following is called low level languages ?
A.Machine language
B.Assembly language
C.both of the above
D.None of the above
Q 194 :
Which is the limitation of high level language ?
A.Lower efficiency
B.Machine dependence
C.Machine level coding
D.None of above
Q 195 :
Programming language which is used for scientific purposes and work is to be done in batches is
A.PASCAL
B.FORTRAN
C.LOGO
D.COMAL
Q 196 :
Programming language which is extension of programming language 'BASIC' is
A.PASCAL
B.COBOL
C.LOGO
D.COMAL
Q 197 :
Program subroutines are
A.called by other programs
B.fixed variable
C.default constants
D.default variables
Q 198 :
Loop statement which is repeated to some given number of times is classified as
A.FOR loop
B.GO loop
C.REPEAT loop
D.GO REPEAT loop
Q 199 :
A program which interprets each line of high level program at time of execution is called
A.instructor
B.interpreter
C.translator
D.executor
Q 200 :
Set of data whose items are organized together is classified as
Quantity II
​ Quantity II