Fire tetrahedron includes which additional element?
A
Carbon
B
Heat
C
Smoke
D
Chemical chain reaction
Question 5Single Answer
Removal of oxygen extinguishes fire by:
A
Cooling
B
Smothering
C
Starvation
D
Inhibition
Question 6Single Answer
Which method breaks the chemical chain reaction?
A
Cooling
B
Smothering
C
Starvation
D
Inhibition
Question 7Single Answer
Conduction is heat transfer through:
A
Liquids only
B
Gases only
C
Solids
D
Vacuum
Question 8Single Answer
Heat transfer by movement of fluids is called:
A
Convection
B
Conduction
C
Radiation
D
Insulation
Question 9Single Answer
Radiation transfers heat through:
A
Contact
B
Air currents
C
Electromagnetic waves
D
Liquids only
Question 10Single Answer
Flash point is the temperature at which a substance:
A
Burns continuously
B
Melts
C
Auto-ignites
D
Produces vapors that ignite momentarily
Question 11Single Answer
Fire point is the temperature at which a substance:
A
Gives off vapors
B
Ignites momentarily
C
Burns continuously
D
Decomposes
Question 12Single Answer
Ignition temperature is the temperature at which:
A
Fuel melts
B
Vapors form
C
Substance catches fire
D
Smoke forms
Question 13Single Answer
Auto-ignition occurs without:
A
Fuel
B
Oxygen
C
External flame or spark
D
Heat
Question 14Single Answer
Which stage of fire has slow growth?
A
Fully developed stage
B
Decay stage
C
Incipient stage
D
Flashover stage
Question 15Single Answer
Fire growth stage follows:
A
Decay stage
B
Incipient stage
C
Fully developed stage
D
Smoldering stage
Question 16Single Answer
Flashover occurs during:
A
Incipient stage
B
Decay stage
C
Growth stage
D
Smoldering
Question 17Single Answer
Fully developed fire stage is characterized by:
A
Low temperature
B
Oxygen rich condition
C
No flames
D
Maximum heat release
Question 18Single Answer
Decay stage occurs due to:
A
Excess fuel
B
High ventilation
C
Lack of oxygen
D
Cooling
Question 19Single Answer
Smoldering combustion occurs without:
A
Fuel
B
Heat
C
Visible flame
D
Smoke
Question 20Single Answer
Which heat transfer is most dangerous to firefighters?
A
Conduction
B
Convection
C
Reflection
D
Radiation
Question 21Single Answer
Fire load refers to:
A
Weight of fire equipment
B
Temperature of fire
C
Quantity of combustible material
D
Speed of fire spread
Question 22Single Answer
High fire load increases:
A
Fire risk
B
Safety
C
Cooling effect
D
Oxygen level
Question 23Single Answer
Class A fires involve:
A
Ordinary combustibles
B
Electrical equipment
C
Flammable liquids
D
Metals
Question 24Single Answer
Which fuel burns with glowing combustion?
A
LPG
B
Gasoline
C
Wood
D
Acetylene
Question 25Single Answer
Pyrolysis is:
A
Burning of gases
B
Cooling of fuel
C
Chemical decomposition due to heat
D
Heat transfer
Question 26Single Answer
Fire spread upward is faster due to:
A
Conduction
B
Radiation
C
Convection
D
Insulation
Question 27Single Answer
Which condition favors rapid fire growth?
A
Low oxygen
B
Adequate ventilation
C
High humidity
D
Low temperature
Question 28Single Answer
Smoke primarily contains:
A
Pure oxygen
B
Water only
C
Nitrogen only
D
Combustion products
Question 29Single Answer
Toxic gas commonly produced in fires is:
A
Oxygen
B
Nitrogen
C
Hydrogen
D
Carbon monoxide
Question 30Single Answer
Flame temperature depends on:
A
Fuel type
B
Oxygen supply
C
All of the above
D
Combustion efficiency
Question 31Single Answer
Cooling method of fire extinguishment removes:
A
Oxygen
B
Fuel
C
Heat
D
Chain reaction
Question 32Single Answer
Starvation method removes:
A
Heat
B
Oxygen
C
Fuel
D
Smoke
Question 33Single Answer
Which factor does not affect combustion?
A
Fuel
B
Sound
C
Oxygen
D
Heat
Question 34Single Answer
Flashover temperature is approximately:
A
500–600 C
B
300 C
C
100 C
D
1000 C
Question 35Single Answer
Fire intensity is measured by:
A
Flame color
B
Sound
C
Smoke density
D
Heat release rate
Question 36Single Answer
Incipient stage fires are easiest to control because:
A
High temperature
B
High smoke
C
Low heat release
D
Oxygen deficiency
Question 37Single Answer
Which combustion is slow and flameless?
A
Rapid combustion
B
Smoldering
C
Explosion
D
Detonation
Question 38Single Answer
Fire tetrahedron concept improved fire control by adding:
A
Heat removal
B
Fuel removal
C
Oxygen control
D
Chemical inhibition
Question 39Single Answer
Which gas supports combustion?
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Oxygen
C
Nitrogen
D
Helium
Question 40Single Answer
Minimum oxygen level required for combustion is about:
A
5%
B
16%
C
10%
D
25%
Question 41Single Answer
Which stage produces maximum smoke?
A
Incipient
B
Growth
C
Fully developed
D
Decay
Question 42Single Answer
Backdraft occurs due to:
A
Excess oxygen
B
Fuel shortage
C
Cooling
D
Sudden introduction of oxygen
Question 43Single Answer
Rollover refers to:
A
Flame spread at ceiling level
B
Floor collapse
C
Explosion
D
Smoke cooling
Question 44Single Answer
Which material has high ignition temperature?
A
Iron
B
Wood
C
Petrol
D
Paper
Question 45Single Answer
Which heat transfer requires no medium?
A
Conduction
B
Convection
C
Radiation
D
Evaporation
Question 46Single Answer
Fire triangle theory was proposed to explain:
A
Fire extinction
B
Fire prevention
C
Fire causes
D
Fire behavior
Question 47Single Answer
Fire tetrahedron is mainly useful for:
A
Class A fires
B
Modern fire suppression
C
Chemical fires
D
Electrical fires
Question 48Single Answer
Which process produces flammable vapors from solids?
A
Oxidation
B
Pyrolysis
C
Condensation
D
Reduction
Question 49Single Answer
Which stage is most dangerous for occupants?
A
Incipient
B
Growth
C
Fully developed
D
All stages
Question 50Single Answer
Fire spread between buildings mainly occurs due to:
A
Conduction
B
Convection
C
Radiation
D
Insulation
Important Questions Package
RMC Sub Officer Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy RMC Sub Officer Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in RMC Sub Officer question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
RMC Sub Officer Exam (Fire) - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
RMC Sub Officer Exam (Fire) - Hindi
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
3.
RMC Sub Officer Exam (Fire) - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
4.
RMC Sub Officer Exam (Fire) - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
5.
RMC Sub Officer Exam (Fire) - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
6.
RMC Sub Officer Exam (Fire) - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
7.
RMC Sub Officer Exam (Fire) Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
8.
RMC Sub Officer Exam (Fire) Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
Technical Knowledge (Fire)
Question 51Single Answer
Minimum heat required to start combustion is called:
A
Fire point
B
Flash point
C
Ignition temperature
D
Auto point
Question 52Single Answer
Which fuel burns with blue flame?
A
Wood
B
Coal
C
Rubber
D
LPG
Question 53Single Answer
Incomplete combustion produces:
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Water vapor
D
Oxygen
Question 54Single Answer
Which fire stage has decreasing temperature?
A
Incipient
B
Growth
C
Decay
D
Fully developed
Question 55Single Answer
Fire behavior is influenced by:
A
All of the above
B
Weather
C
Ventilation
D
Fuel
Question 56Single Answer
Which factor determines rate of fire spread?
A
Fuel arrangement
B
Wind
C
Topography
D
All of the above
Question 57Single Answer
Chemical chain reaction mainly occurs in:
A
Solid fuels
B
Gas-phase combustion
C
Liquid fuels
D
Metal fires
Question 58Single Answer
Flame is visible due to:
A
Glowing carbon particles
B
Hot gases
C
Smoke
D
Ash
Question 59Single Answer
Which stage involves highest oxygen consumption?
A
Fully developed
B
Growth
C
Incipient
D
Decay
Question 60Single Answer
Fire intensity reduces when:
A
Fuel increases
B
Oxygen increases
C
Ventilation increases
D
Heat is removed
Question 61Single Answer
Which is not a method of heat transfer?
A
Conduction
B
Compression
C
Radiation
D
Convection
Question 62Single Answer
Fire load density is expressed as:
A
m/s
B
C
C
kg/m2
D
lux
Question 63Single Answer
Which fuel has lowest flash point?
A
Diesel
B
Kerosene
C
Petrol
D
Lubricating oil
Question 64Single Answer
Which stage precedes flashover?
A
Incipient
B
Smoldering
C
Decay
D
Growth
Question 65Single Answer
Which combustion occurs with flame?
A
Smoldering
B
Oxidation
C
Rapid combustion
D
Corrosion
Question 66Single Answer
Fire science mainly studies:
A
Fire prevention
B
Fire behavior and control
C
Fire laws
D
Fire equipment only
Question 67Single Answer
Which gas reduces oxygen concentration?
A
Nitrogen
B
Carbon dioxide
C
Argon
D
All of the above
Question 68Single Answer
Fire growth rate depends on:
A
Fuel surface area
B
Fuel type
C
All of the above
D
Ventilation
Question 69Single Answer
Which condition causes flashover faster?
A
High ceiling
B
High fire load
C
Poor ventilation
D
Low fire load
Question 70Single Answer
Which stage has highest structural damage risk?
A
Incipient
B
Fully developed
C
Growth
D
Decay
Question 71Single Answer
Fire extinguishment aims to remove:
A
Any one element of fire
B
Two elements of fire
C
Three elements of fire
D
One element of fire
Question 72Single Answer
Which process causes fire spread horizontally?
A
Conduction
B
Radiation
C
Convection
D
Evaporation
Question 73Single Answer
Which factor is critical for flashover?
A
Room temperature
B
Smoke color
C
Oxygen content
D
Sound level
Question 74Single Answer
Fire tetrahedron is extension of:
A
Fire cube
B
Fire triangle
C
Fire square
D
Fire pyramid
Question 75Single Answer
Which type of combustion is explosion?
A
Slow
B
Rapid
C
Spontaneous
D
Detonation
Question 76Single Answer
Which fire stage is most suitable for evacuation?
A
Growth
B
Incipient
C
Fully developed
D
Decay
Question 77Single Answer
Which fuel produces dense smoke?
A
Wood
B
Paper
C
Plastic
D
Cotton
Question 78Single Answer
Which fire element is removed by water?
A
Oxygen
B
Heat
C
Fuel
D
Chain reaction
Question 79Single Answer
Fire science is important for:
A
Fire prevention
B
Fire suppression
C
All of the above
D
Fire investigation
Question 80Single Answer
Which stage involves most toxic gases?
A
Decay
B
Growth
C
Fully developed
D
Incipient
Question 81Single Answer
Which phenomenon occurs due to sudden cooling of gases?
A
Backdraft
B
Smoke explosion
C
Flashover
D
Rollover
Question 82Single Answer
Fire spread through walls occurs by:
A
Radiation
B
Convection
C
Conduction
D
Reflection
Question 83Single Answer
Which fire stage has unstable conditions?
A
Growth
B
Incipient
C
Fully developed
D
Decay
Question 84Single Answer
Which fuel burns fastest?
A
Gas
B
Liquid
C
Solid
D
Metal
Question 85Single Answer
Fire behavior is predictable based on:
A
Equipment used
B
Luck
C
Experience only
D
Fire science principles
Question 86Single Answer
Which fire element is hardest to control?
A
Heat
B
Fuel
C
Chain reaction
D
Oxygen
Question 87Single Answer
Fire tetrahedron concept mainly applies to:
A
Class A fires
B
Class B fires
C
Class C fires
D
All fires
Question 88Single Answer
Which combustion is self-sustaining?
A
Oxidation
B
Combustion
C
Corrosion
D
Decomposition
Question 89Single Answer
Which factor affects ignition temperature?
A
All of the above
B
Fuel condition
C
Oxygen concentration
D
Pressure
Question 90Single Answer
Fire science helps in designing:
A
Buildings
B
Fire safety systems
C
All of the above
D
Evacuation plans
Question 91Single Answer
Which fire stage shows decreasing flame size?
A
Incipient
B
Growth
C
Fully developed
D
Decay
Question 92Single Answer
Fire triangle cannot explain:
A
Fire start
B
Chemical inhibition
C
Fire growth
D
Fire extinction
Question 93Single Answer
Which heat transfer is dominant in room fires?
A
Conduction
B
Radiation
C
Convection
D
Evaporation
Question 94Single Answer
Which stage produces rollover?
A
Incipient
B
Growth
C
Fully developed
D
Decay
Question 95Single Answer
Fire load includes:
A
Furniture
B
Equipment
C
Stored materials
D
All of the above
Question 96Single Answer
Which factor increases flashover risk?
A
Low ceiling height
B
All of the above
C
Poor ventilation
D
High fire load
Question 97Single Answer
Which combustion is unwanted oxidation?
A
Fire
B
Detonation
C
Explosion
D
Corrosion
Question 98Single Answer
Fire science is a branch of:
A
Physics
B
Chemistry
C
All of the above
D
Engineering
Question 99Single Answer
Which fire stage is hardest to control?
A
Fully developed
B
Growth
C
Incipient
D
Decay
Question 100Single Answer
Fire tetrahedron removal of chain reaction uses:
A
Water
B
Foam
C
Sand
D
Dry chemical agents
General Awareness
Question 101Single Answer
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India as which type of State?
A
Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
B
Federal Socialist
C
Democratic Republic
D
Sovereign Democratic State
Question 102Single Answer
Which objective is not mentioned in the Preamble of India?
A
Justice
B
Liberty
C
Equality
D
Federalism
Question 103Single Answer
The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were added to the Preamble by which Amendment?
A
44th Amendment
B
42nd Amendment
C
52nd Amendment
D
61st Amendment
Question 104Single Answer
To whom does the Constitution of India give the ultimate power?
A
People of India
B
Supreme Court
C
President
D
Parliament
Question 105Single Answer
Fundamental Rights are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
A
Part III
B
Part II
C
Part IV
D
Part V
Question 106Single Answer
Which Fundamental Right is known as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
A
Right to Constitutional Remedies
B
Right to Freedom
C
Right to Equality
D
Right against Exploitation
Question 107Single Answer
Article 14 of the Constitution deals with which right?
A
Equality before Law
B
Freedom of Speech
C
Right to Education
D
Right to Religion
Question 108Single Answer
Which Fundamental Right was deleted by the 44th Amendment Act?
A
Right to Equality
B
Right to Freedom
C
Right to Property
D
Right to Religion
Question 109Single Answer
Right to Education is guaranteed under which Article?
A
Article 19
B
Article 21A
C
Article 21
D
Article 23
Question 110Single Answer
Which Article abolishes untouchability?
A
Article 15
B
Article 16
C
Article 17
D
Article 18
Question 111Single Answer
Fundamental Duties were added by which Amendment?
A
52nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
42nd Amendment
D
86th Amendment
Question 112Single Answer
Fundamental Duties are mentioned in which Part of the Constitution?
A
Part III
B
Part IV
C
Part IVA
D
Part V
Question 113Single Answer
How many Fundamental Duties are there at present?
A
10
B
9
C
12
D
11
Question 114Single Answer
Which Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th Amendment Act?
A
Protect environment
B
Promote harmony
C
Provide education to children
D
Respect Constitution
Question 115Single Answer
Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which Part?
A
Part IV
B
Part III
C
Part V
D
Part VI
Question 116Single Answer
DPSPs are borrowed from which country?
A
USA
B
Ireland
C
UK
D
Canada
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following DPSP aims at welfare state?
A
Uniform Civil Code
B
Living wage
C
Village Panchayats
D
Equal justice and free legal aid
Question 118Single Answer
Which Article directs the State to promote international peace?
A
Article 40
B
Article 43
C
Article 51
D
Article 48
Question 119Single Answer
DPSPs are:
A
Legally enforceable
B
Non-justiciable
C
Justiciable
D
Mandatory
Question 120Single Answer
National Emergency is declared under which Article?
A
Article 350
B
Article 360
C
Article 356
D
Article 352
Question 121Single Answer
National Emergency can be declared on which ground?
A
Financial instability
B
War, external aggression or armed rebellion
C
Failure of constitutional machinery
D
Natural disaster
Question 122Single Answer
Who proclaims National Emergency?
A
President
B
Parliament
C
Prime Minister
D
Supreme Court
Question 123Single Answer
Which Emergency is known as President’s Rule?
A
Article 352
B
Article 355
C
Article 356
D
Article 360
Question 124Single Answer
State Emergency is imposed when there is:
A
Failure of constitutional machinery
B
War
C
Financial crisis
D
External aggression
Question 125Single Answer
Financial Emergency is declared under which Article?
A
Article 352
B
Article 356
C
Article 360
D
Article 365
Question 126Single Answer
Which Emergency has never been proclaimed in India?
A
National Emergency
B
State Emergency
C
Internal Emergency
D
Financial Emergency
Question 127Single Answer
During National Emergency, Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are:
A
Enforced
B
Partially suspended
C
Automatically suspended
D
Unaffected
Question 128Single Answer
Who is the executive head of the Union?
A
Prime Minister
B
President
C
Vice-President
D
Speaker
Question 129Single Answer
The President of India is elected by:
A
Direct election
B
Electoral College
C
Members of Parliament only
D
State Assemblies only
Question 130Single Answer
The Governor of a State is appointed by:
A
President
B
Chief Minister
C
Prime Minister
D
Parliament
Question 131Single Answer
Governor is the executive head of:
A
Union
B
District
C
State
D
Judiciary
Question 132Single Answer
Which power allows the President to pardon sentences?
A
Legislative power
B
Executive power
C
Military power
D
Judicial power
Question 133Single Answer
The Indian Parliament consists of:
A
Lok Sabha only
B
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
C
Rajya Sabha only
D
Lok Sabha and President
Question 134Single Answer
Lok Sabha is also known as:
A
Upper House
B
Council of States
C
Lower House
D
Legislative Council
Question 135Single Answer
Rajya Sabha represents:
A
States
B
People
C
Judiciary
D
President
Question 136Single Answer
Maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
A
552
B
545
C
550
D
530
Question 137Single Answer
Rajya Sabha is a:
A
Temporary House
B
Dissolvable House
C
Permanent House
D
Joint House
Question 138Single Answer
Who presides over Rajya Sabha?
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Vice-President
D
Speaker
Question 139Single Answer
Money Bill can be introduced only in:
A
Rajya Sabha
B
President’s office
C
Joint Sitting
D
Lok Sabha
Question 140Single Answer
Which Schedule deals with Union, State and Concurrent Lists?
A
Seventh Schedule
B
Eighth Schedule
C
Ninth Schedule
D
Tenth Schedule
Arithmetic & Reasoning
Question 141Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 142Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 143Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 144Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 145Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 146Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 147Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 148Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 149Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 150Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 151Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 152Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 153Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 154Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 155Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 156Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 157Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 158Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 159Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 160Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 161Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 162Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 163Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 164Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 165Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 166Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 167Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 168Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 169Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 170Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 171Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 172Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 173Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 174Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 175Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 176Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 177Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 178Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 179Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 180Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
General English
Question 181Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 182Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 183Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 184Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 185Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 186Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 187Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 188Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 189Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 190Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 191Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 192Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 193Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 194Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 195Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 196Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 197Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 198Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 199Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 200Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.