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Latest RPCAU KVK Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Quantitative Aptitude & Reasoning, General Knowledge General knowledge, General knowledge, English Language, Programming
Question Bank RPCAU KVK Exam - English
Quantitative Aptitude & Reasoning
Q 1 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 2 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 3 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 4 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 5 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 6 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 7 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 8 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 9 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 10 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 11 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 12 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 14 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 15 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 16 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 17 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 18 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 19 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 20 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Q 21 :
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A.8
B.1
C.9
D.2
E.None of these
Q 22 :
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.None of these
Q 23 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A.A
B.G
C.H
D.B
E.None of these
Q 24 :
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A.S 3 H *
B.T#H*
C.T*#H
D.S*H5
E.SH*1
Q 25 :
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A.1
B.8
C.3
D.5
E.None of these
Q 26 :
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A.FYH
B.GWG
C.HWH
D.GUF
E.None of these
Q 27 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.215
B.143
C.247
D.91
E.65
Q 28 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.78
B.48
C.72
D.54
E.42
Q 29 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.45
B.51
C.39
D.93
E.85
Q 30 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.39
B.27
C.48
D.42
E.24
Q 31 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.187
B.323
C.119
D.221
E.289
Q 32 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.35
B.80
C.45
D.60
E.75
Q 33 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.31
B.39
C.47
D.41
E.43
Q 34 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.27
B.64
C.125
D.216
E.384
Q 35 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.25
B.64
C.189
D.225
E.121
Q 36 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.23
B.29
C.37
D.39
E.31
Q 37 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.115
B.145
C.95
D.155
E.75
Q 38 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.126
B.217
C.345
D.513
E.730
Q 39 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.144
B.169
C.256
D.288
E.324
Q 40 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.143
B.168
C.224
D.195
E.257
Q 41 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.29
B.85
C.147
D.125
E.53
Q 42 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabet series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group, if the English alphabetical series is broken into two equal halves, i.e. the first 13 alphabets are clubbed together and the last 13 alphabets are clubbed separately?
A.FH
B.SU
C.MA
D.CK
E.LB
Q 43 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.MPQO
B.DGHF
C.RUTV
D.VYZX
E.JMNL
Q 44 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.AMCL
B.WIVK
C.GVIU
D.XDZC
E.HRJQ
Q 45 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. AZMN
B.BYEF
C.CXUV
D.FUNO
E.IRDV
Q 46 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.LOJ
B.FID
C.RUP
D.ILN
E.CFA
Q 47 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.RICE : ECIR
B.WINGS : SGNIW
C.SMART : RTSMA
D.COUSIN : SINCOU
E.BRAKE : AKRFB
Q 48 :
the one that does not belong to that group?
A.VT
B.MK
C.DB
D.KH
E.XV
Q 49 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.PS
B.FI
C.AD
D.KN
E.GD
Q 50 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.PARENT : RPBTEO
B.MOSTLY : SMPYTM
C.SIMPLE : MSJEPM
D.MOTHER : TMPRHD
E.SUNDAY : NSVYDB
Important Questions Package
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The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 52 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 53 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 54 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 55 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 56 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 57 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 58 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 59 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 60 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 61 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 62 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 63 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 64 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 65 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 66 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 67 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 68 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 69 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 70 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 71 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 72 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 73 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 74 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 75 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 76 :
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A.1
B.10
C.Infinite
D.None
Q 77 :
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A.12345
B.1331
C.1234
D.1213
Q 78 :
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 79 :
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Q 80 :
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 81 :
Which of the following is composite ?
A.
17
B.19
C.21
D.23
Q 82 :
What is √0.0009 ?
A.0.003
B.0.03
C.0.3
D.0.09
Q 83 :
What is √1156 ?
A.32
B.34
C.36
D.38
Q 84 :
What is √2025 ?
A.35
B.40
C.45
D.50
Q 85 :
What is (51^2) ?
A.2601
B.2501
C.2551
D.2651
Q 86 :
7 8 18 57 ?
A.244
B.174
C.186
D.none of these
Q 87 :
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A.25 years
B.27 years
C.26 years
D.24 years
Q 88 :
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
A.2
B.-1
C.1
D.-2
Q 89 :
How many factors does 100 have ?
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
Q 90 :
If x = a – b, y = b – c, z = c – a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz will be
A.a + b + c
B.Zero
C.4 (a + b + c)
D.3 abc
Q 91 :
Which number is divisible by 13 ?
A.819
B.845
C.871
D.899
Q 92 :
A number leaves remainder 3 when divided by 5. What remainder when divided by 10 ?
A.3 or 8
B.3
C.8
D.Cannot determine
Q 93 :
What is the unit digit of (9^{101}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 94 :
How many prime numbers are between 10 and 20 ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 95 :
Which of the following pair is co-prime ?
A.8 and 12
B.9 and 15
C.14 and 25
D.21 and 35
Q 96 :
(43)2 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465
A.41
B.35
C.38
D.33
Q 97 :
269 – 122 – 33 = X * 2
A.51
B.41
C.21
D.49
Q 98 :
What is the remainder when 2100 is divided by 3 ?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Q 99 :
Which of the following is composite ?
A.17
B.19
C.21
D.23
General knowledge
Q 100 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 101 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 102 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 103 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 104 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 105 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 106 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 107 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 108 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 109 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 110 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 111 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 112 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 113 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 114 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 115 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 116 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 117 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 118 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 119 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 120 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 121 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 122 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 123 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 124 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 125 :
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.1,2,3 and 4
Q 126 :
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 127 :
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
A.IMF
B.RBI
C.Local bodies
D.Big Businessmen
Q 128 :
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A.4th plan
B.6th plan
C.8th plan
D.10th plan
Q 129 :
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
A.only 1
B.only 2
C.only 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 130 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 131 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 132 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 133 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 134 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 135 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 136 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 137 :
Who is set to be appointed as the new Chancellor of Germany?
A.Olaf Scholz
B.Friedrich Merz
C.Annalena Baerbock
D.Christian Lindner
Q 138 :
Which province launched Pakistan's first online medicine ordering portal?
A.Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
B.Punjab
C.Sindh
D.Balochistan
Q 139 :
What is the name of the mission through which NASA plans to return humans to the Moon by?
A.Artemis
B.Apollo
C.Orion
D.Perseverance
Q 140 :
Who won the Best Actor award at the 2025 Oscars?
A.Joaquin Phoenix
B.Leonardo DiCaprio
C.Will Smith
D.Brad Pitt
Q 141 :
Which country hosted the 2025 World Economic Forum Annual Meeting?
A.Switzerland
B.Singapore
C.United Arab Emirates
D.Germany
Q 142 :
What is the name of the mission through which ISRO plans to send humans to space by?
A.Gaganyaan
B.Chandrayaan
C.Mangalyaan
D.Shukrayaan
Q 143 :
Who is the current Director-General of the World Trade Organization (WTO) as of?
A.Roberto Azevรชdo
B.Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
C.Pascal Lamy
D.Christine Lagarde
Q 144 :
Which country the "Green Future" initiative to achieve carbon neutrality by?
A.Germany
B.Japan
C.United Arab Emirates
D.Canada
Q 145 :
The "One Health" initiative, addressing the interconnected health of people, animals, and the environment, was recently endorsed by which organization?
A.World Health Organization (WHO)
B.United Nations (UN)
C.World Bank
D.Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
Q 146 :
Which country recently became the first to approve the use of lab-grown meat for commercial sale?
A.United States
B.Singapore
C.Netherlands
D.Israel
General Knowledge General knowledge
Q 147 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 148 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 149 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
English Language
Q 150 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 151 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 152 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 153 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 154 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 155 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 156 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 157 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 158 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 159 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 160 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 161 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 162 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 163 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 164 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 165 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 166 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 167 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 168 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 169 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 170 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 171 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 172 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 173 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 174 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 175 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My neighbor along with his children
B.is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C.At Agra
D.No error
Q 176 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B.but the former is
C.greater than latter
D.No error
Q 177 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He has abandoned
B.the criminal activities
C.after returning from jail
D.No error
Q 178 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.We must have
B.sympathy for
C.needy and the poor
D.No error
Q 179 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Chinese is a very
B.difficult language to understand for those
C.who have never been to China
D.No error
Q 180 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The old women placed
B.kettle on fire
C.come back to the bedroom
D.No error
Q 181 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The singing is both
B.my vocation and avocation because it is a
C.source of joy and bread to me
D.No error
Q 182 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Snake we saw was
B.very deadly thought
C.it left the kitchen quietly
D.No error
Q 183 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Being M.A. only he
B.could not be appointed
C.to the post of a lecturer
D.No error
Q 184 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Our first trip was the most interesting one
B.but our second one
C.was even more interesting
D.No error
Q 185 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B.all the problems of future
C.but he did solve problems of
D.No error
Q 186 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Having finished his breakfast
B.he started working on the problem
C.that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D.No error
Q 187 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The new railway line will
B.greatly improve transport and communication
C.in eastern part of the country
D.No error
Q 188 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It being rainy day most of
B.the people out on the street
C.were carrying umbrellas
D.No error
Q 189 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.More you
B.think of it
C.the worse it becomes
D.No error
Q 190 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I like to travel
B.by the air as
C.I am a very busy person
D.No error
Q 191 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.This is
B.most important
C.lesson which we will have to study very carefully
D.No error
Q 192 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Hasan plays
B.both cricket and billiards
C.at the national level
D.No error
Q 193 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The USA has a strong army
B.that is capable of fighting
C.against any army of the world
D.No error
Q 194 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A man cannot be judged
B.by his external appearance
C.but by internal beauty
D.No error
Q 195 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I met the gentleman
B.today morning on my way
C.to the market
D.No error
Q 196 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It seems as the Sun
B.is coming much closer because
C.earth is greeting hotter
D.No error
Q 197 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I know student
B.who has stolen my book
C.the boy replied to his mother on her asking about the book
D.No error
Q 198 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Equator
B.divides the Earth
C.into two hemispheres
D.No error
Q 199 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In world of ours
B.one has to compete
C.for almost everything
D.No error
Programming
Q 200 :
The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called Binary Digits or
A.Bytes
B.Kilobytes
C.Decimal bytes
D.Bits
Q 201 :
What language does a browser typically interpret to display information from the World Wide Web ?
A.Machine Code
B.Assembly Language
C.HTML
D.C++
Q 202 :
______ is the process of finding errors in software code.
A.Compiling
B.Testing
C.Running
D.Debugging
Q 203 :
The code for a Web page is written using _________.
A.A fifth generation language
B.WinZip
C.Peripherals
D.Hypertext Markup Language
Q 204 :
A program is a sequence of ___________ written in a programming language.
A.Lines
B.Function
C.Instructions
D.Code words
Q 205 :
Which of the following languages is more suited to a structured program ?
A.PL/1
B.FORTRAN
C.BASIC
D.PASCAL
Q 206 :
A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language to machine language is
A.compiler
B.Interpreter
C.Assembler
D.None of the above
Q 207 :
The symbols used in an assembly language are
A.Codes
B.Mnemonics
C.Assembler
D.All of the above
Q 208 :
Which is a non-standard version of a computing language ?
A.PROLOG
B.APL
C.Army
D.PL/1
Q 209 :
A language which is close to that used with in the computer is
A.High – level language
B.Assembly language
C.Low- level language
D.All of the above
Q 210 :
Program execution time would be minimum if the programs are written in
A.Machine Language
B.Assembly language
C.High level language
D.All of the above
Q 211 :
Which one of the following is not a type of a language processor ?
A.Compiler
B.Interpreter
C.Application software
D.Assembler
Q 212 :
Which one of the following is called low level languages ?
A.Machine language
B.Assembly language
C.both of the above
D.None of the above
Q 213 :
Which is the limitation of high level language ?
A.Lower efficiency
B.Machine dependence
C.Machine level coding
D.None of above
Q 214 :
Programming language which is used for scientific purposes and work is to be done in batches is
A.PASCAL
B.FORTRAN
C.LOGO
D.COMAL
Q 215 :
Programming language which is extension of programming language 'BASIC' is
A.PASCAL
B.COBOL
C.LOGO
D.COMAL
Q 216 :
Program subroutines are
A.called by other programs
B.fixed variable
C.default constants
D.default variables
Q 217 :
Loop statement which is repeated to some given number of times is classified as
A.FOR loop
B.GO loop
C.REPEAT loop
D.GO REPEAT loop
Q 218 :
A program which interprets each line of high level program at time of execution is called
A.instructor
B.interpreter
C.translator
D.executor
Q 219 :
Set of data whose items are organized together is classified as
A.data structure
B.variable structure
C.string structure
D.positive structure
Q 220 :
______ is a container that represents a value in a program .
A.Compiler
B.Variable
C.Data type
D.None of the above
Q 221 :
To distinguish between different data types, a computer uses special ______ .
A.Internal codes
B.External codes
C.compilers
D.None of the above
Q 222 :
_______ is the same thing as a variable with one major difference. Its does not change, while the value of a variable can change throughout a program .
A.fixed-Variable
B.Conditional
C.Constant
D.None of the above
Q 223 :
Array is a special type of variable used in many programming languages, such as ________
A.C
B.C++
C.Java
D.All of the above
Q 224 :
What is a segment of code that executes repeatedly based on a certain condition ?
A.Function
B.Array
C.Loop
D.None of the above
Q 225 :
What is defined as a set of code used to carry out specific tasks ?
A.Function
B.Class
C.Loop
D.None of the above
Q 226 :
What is used for a real world object that is to be used in a program ?
A.Program
B.Template
C.Car Class
D.None of the above
Q 227 :
_______ is object oriented programming language that uses virtual functions, multiple inheritance, exception handling, polymorphism, etc .
A.C++
B.C
C.GUI
D.None of the above
Q 228 :
C++ provides comprehensive coverage of abstract classes, such as ______ .
A.Interfaces
B.Regular error handling, standard strings
C.I/O strings
D.All of the above
Q 229 :
A linked list a linear collection of similar data elements called ______ .
A.Subscript
B.Index
C.Nodes
D.Null
Q 230 :
______ was the first high-level language developed by john Backus at IBM in 1956
A.FORTRAN
B.COBOL
C.BASIC
D.NONE OF THE ABOVE
Q 231 :
This language was developed by Dennis Ritchie of Bell Laboratories in order to implement the operating system UNIX .
A.C
B.C++
C.Java
D.LISP
Q 232 :
C is known as
A.low level programming language
B.High level programming language
C.Machine language
D.None of the above
Q 233 :
Which of the following is language processor ?
A.Interpreter
B. Assembler
C.Compiler
D.All of the above
Q 234 :
________ converts an assembly language program into machine language .
A.Assembler
B.Compiler
C.Interpreter
D.All of the above
Q 235 :
Which of the following language processors converts a high-level language program line by line into a machine language ?
A.Assembler
B.Interpreter
C.Compiler
D.None of the above
Q 236 :
Errors in a computer program are referred to as
A.Bugs
B.Mistakes
C.Item overlooked
D.Crash
Q 237 :
Computer programs are written in a high level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called ________ .
A.cache
B.Instruction set
C.source code
D.word size
Q 238 :
Which of the following is not a programming language ?
A.Pascal
B.Microsoft Office
C.Java
D.C++
Q 239 :
What is correcting errors in a program called ?
A.Compiling
B.Debugging
C.Grinding
D.Interpreting
Q 240 :
Which one of the following is not a computer language ?
A.Java
B.COBOL
C.ASP
D.LOTUS
Q 241 :
Which of the following is not a computer language ?
A.PASCAL
B.UNIX
C.FORTRAN
D.COBOL
Q 242 :
A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do. It is called a __________
A.program
B.command
C.user response
D.processor
Q 243 :
A set of step-by-setp procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a (n) ________ .
A.algorithm
B.hardware program
C.software bug
D.firmware program
Q 244 :
All of the following are included in typical Computer programming language which are in use currently Except
A.C++
B.Java
C.visual Basic NET
D.Machine language
Q 245 :
Query language comes under:
A.Third generation
B.Fourth generation
C.Fifth generation
D.None of these
Q 246 :
Errors in computer programs are called
A.Follies
B.Mistakes
C.Bugs
D.Spam
Q 247 :
The default file extension of MS-Excel is
A.xlr
B.exe
C.exl
D.xls
Q 248 :
High Level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following ?
A.Oracle
B.Compiler
C.Mat lab
D.Assembler
Q 249 :
Which programming language are classified as low level languages ?