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Objective Questions

Latest RPSC Assistant Director Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

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Question Bank RPSC Assistant Director Exam - English
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Concerned Subject

Question 1Single Answer
What is the primary function of a plasmid in a bacterial cell ?
  1. A
    Energy Production
  2. B
    Protein Synthesis
  3. C
    Genetic Exchange
  4. D
    Cell division
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of plasmids ?
  1. A
    Single-stranded DNA
  2. B
    Circular DNA
  3. C
    Linear DNA
  4. D
    RNA genome
Question 3Single Answer
Bacteriophages primarily infect which type of microorganism ?
  1. A
    Bacteria
  2. B
    Fungi
  3. C
    Protozoa
  4. D
    Archaea
Question 4Single Answer
The protein coat of a bacteriophage is calledΒ ?
  1. A
    Capsid
  2. B
    Envelope
  3. C
    Nucleocapsid
  4. D
    Liposome
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following is a lytic cycle in bacteriophage replication ?
  1. A
    Lysogenic
  2. B
    Integration
  3. C
    Attachment
  4. D
    Bursting
Question 6Single Answer
Which enzyme is responsible for cutting the host DNA during bacteriophage integration in the lysogenic cycle ?
  1. A
    DNA ligase
  2. B
    DNA polymerase
  3. C
    Restriction endonuclease
  4. D
    Integrase
Question 7Single Answer
What is the name of the bacteriophage that infects E. coli and is commonly used in molecular biology research ?
  1. A
    T4 phage
  2. B
    Lambda phage
  3. C
    Adenovirus
  4. D
    Herpesvirus
Question 8Single Answer
Which type of plasmid carries genes that can cause antibiotic resistance in bacteria ?
  1. A
    Fertility plasmid
  2. B
    Resistance plasmid
  3. C
    Virulence plasmid
  4. D
    Conjugative plasmid
Question 9Single Answer
What is the process by which plasmids are transferred from one bacterium to another through direct cell-to-cell contact ?
  1. A
    Transduction
  2. B
    Transformation
  3. C
    Conjugation
  4. D
    Transcription
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which bacteria can acquire plasmids ?
  1. A
    Transformation
  2. B
    Conjugation
  3. C
    Transduction
  4. D
    Mitosis
Question 11Single Answer
What is the main function of the origin of replication (ori) in a plasmid ?
  1. A
    Attachment to host DNA
  2. B
    Initiation of plasmid replication
  3. C
    Transfer of plasmid to other cells
  4. D
    Integration into the host genome
Question 12Single Answer
Which term refers to the transfer of genetic material from one bacterial cell to another through the uptake of naked DNA from the environment ?
  1. A
    Conjugation
  2. B
    Transduction
  3. C
    Transformation
  4. D
    Replication
Question 13Single Answer
In which phase of the cell cycle is a bacterial cell most susceptible to transformation ?
  1. A
    G1 phase
  2. B
    S phase
  3. C
    G2 phase
  4. D
    Log phase
Question 14Single Answer
What is the role of the repressor protein in a temperate bacteriophage during the lysogenic cycle ?
  1. A
    Promotes gene transcription
  2. B
    Prevents viral replication
  3. C
    Activates the lytic cycle
  4. D
    Encapsidates the viral DNA
Question 15Single Answer
Which type of plasmid contains genes that enhance the fitness of the host bacterium but do not directly confer antibiotic resistance ?
  1. A
    Resistance plasmid
  2. B
    Fertility plasmid
  3. C
    R plasmid
  4. D
    Fitness plasmid
Question 16Single Answer
Which property of water makes it an excellent solvent for polar molecules?
  1. A
    High dielectric constant
  2. B
    Low dielectric constant
  3. C
    Low boiling point
  4. D
    Non-polar nature
Question 17Single Answer
The pH of a neutral solution at 25Β°C is:
  1. A
    5.0
  2. B
    7.0
  3. C
    9.0
  4. D
    14.0
Question 18Single Answer
Which buffer system is primarily responsible for maintaining blood pH?
  1. A
    Bicarbonate buffer
  2. B
    Phosphate buffer
  3. C
    Acetate buffer
  4. D
    Tris buffer
Question 19Single Answer
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:
  1. A
    Increased blood pH
  2. B
    Decreased blood pH
  3. C
    Increased bicarbonate levels
  4. D
    Decreased carbon dioxide levels
Question 20Single Answer
Respiratory alkalosis is caused by:
  1. A
    Hyperventilation
  2. B
    Hypoventilation
  3. C
    Increased bicarbonate production
  4. D
    Decreased carbon dioxide production
Question 21Single Answer
The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is used to calculate:
  1. A
    pH of a buffer solution
  2. B
    Enzyme kinetics
  3. C
    Gibbs free energy
  4. D
    Redox potential
Question 22Single Answer
Which clinical condition is associated with a high anion gap metabolic acidosis?
  1. A
    Diarrhea
  2. B
    Renal tubular acidosis
  3. C
    Hyperchloremic acidosis
  4. D
    Diabetic ketoacidosis
Question 23Single Answer
Water’s high heat capacity is due to:
  1. A
    Covalent bonding
  2. B
    Van der Waals forces
  3. C
    Ionic bonding
  4. D
    Hydrogen bonding
Question 24Single Answer
Which of the following is a clinical application of acid-base balance?
  1. A
    Management of diabetic ketoacidosis
  2. B
    Treatment of hypertension
  3. C
    Diagnosis of anemia
  4. D
    Treatment of osteoporosis
Question 25Single Answer
The pKa of a buffer is the pH at which:
  1. A
    The buffer has equal concentrations of conjugate acid and base
  2. B
    The buffer is fully deprotonated
  3. C
    The buffer is fully protonated
  4. D
    The buffer is ineffective
Question 26Single Answer
Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
  1. A
    Glycine
  2. B
    Alanine
  3. C
    Leucine
  4. D
    Aspartic acid
Question 27Single Answer
The isoelectric point (pI) of an amino acid is the pH at which:
  1. A
    It is fully protonated
  2. B
    It has no net charge
  3. C
    It is fully deprotonated
  4. D
    It forms a zwitterion
Question 28Single Answer
Which amino acid is classified as basic?
  1. A
    Lysine
  2. B
    Glutamic acid
  3. C
    Valine
  4. D
    Phenylalanine
Question 29Single Answer
Which amino acid contains a sulfur group in its side chain?
  1. A
    Tyrosine
  2. B
    Serine
  3. C
    Threonine
  4. D
    Methionine
Question 30Single Answer
The zwitterion form of an amino acid is characterized by:
  1. A
    A positive net charge
  2. B
    A negative net charge
  3. C
    No net charge
  4. D
    No side chain
Question 31Single Answer
The most common and stable form of DNA under physiological conditions is?
  1. A
    A-form
  2. B
    B-form
  3. C
    Z-form
  4. D
    H-form
Question 32Single Answer
B-form DNA has approximately how many base pairs per helical turn?
  1. A
    9
  2. B
    11
  3. C
    12
  4. D
    10.5
Question 33Single Answer
In B-form DNA the major groove is?
  1. A
    Absent
  2. B
    Narrower than the minor groove
  3. C
    Equal to the minor groove
  4. D
    Wider and deeper than the minor groove
Question 34Single Answer
A-form DNA is typically found under?
  1. A
    Dehydrated conditions or in RNA-DNA hybrids
  2. B
    High humidity
  3. C
    Physiological salt concentration
  4. D
    Low pH
Question 35Single Answer
The number of base pairs per turn in A-form DNA is approximately?
  1. A
    12
  2. B
    10.5
  3. C
    11
  4. D
    9
Question 36Single Answer
In A-form DNA the base pairs are?
  1. A
    Tilted ~20Β° relative to the helix axis
  2. B
    Perpendicular to the helix axis
  3. C
    Tilted 0Β°
  4. D
    Tilted 45Β°
Question 37Single Answer
Z-form DNA is a?
  1. A
    Triple helix
  2. B
    Right-handed double helix
  3. C
    Single-stranded
  4. D
    Left-handed double helix
Question 38Single Answer
Z-form DNA is favoured in sequences with?
  1. A
    No sequence preference
  2. B
    All AT
  3. C
    All purines
  4. D
    Alternating purine-pyrimidine (especially GC-rich)
Question 39Single Answer
The number of base pairs per turn in Z-form DNA is approximately?
  1. A
    11
  2. B
    10.5
  3. C
    12
  4. D
    10
Question 40Single Answer
In Z-form DNA the sugar conformation is?
  1. A
    Alternating C2'-endo and C3'-endo
  2. B
    All C2'-endo
  3. C
    All C3'-endo
  4. D
    No sugar pucker
Question 41Single Answer
The major groove in Z-form DNA is?
  1. A
    Wide and shallow
  2. B
    Narrow and deep
  3. C
    Absent
  4. D
    Equal to minor groove
Question 42Single Answer
mRNA is usually?
  1. A
    Circular
  2. B
    Single-stranded with secondary structures
  3. C
    Triple helix
  4. D
    Double-stranded helix
Question 43Single Answer
The typical secondary structures in mRNA include?
  1. A
    Hairpin loops, bulges, stem-loops
  2. B
    Only linear
  3. C
    Only helix
  4. D
    No structure
Question 44Single Answer
tRNA has a characteristic?
  1. A
    Linear structure
  2. B
    Cloverleaf secondary structure and L-shaped tertiary structure
  3. C
    Circular structure
  4. D
    No structure
Question 45Single Answer
The anticodon loop in tRNA is located at?
  1. A
    D-loop
  2. B
    One end of the L-shape
  3. C
    The acceptor stem
  4. D
    Variable loop
Question 46Single Answer
rRNA is the major component of?
  1. A
    Spliceosome
  2. B
    Ribosomes
  3. C
    Telomerase
  4. D
    snRNP
Question 47Single Answer
In prokaryotes, the large ribosomal subunit contains?
  1. A
    5.8S rRNA
  2. B
    28S rRNA
  3. C
    18S rRNA
  4. D
    23S and 5S rRNA
Question 48Single Answer
In eukaryotes, the small ribosomal subunit contains?
  1. A
    18S rRNA
  2. B
    28S rRNA
  3. C
    5.8S rRNA
  4. D
    5S rRNA
Question 49Single Answer
Haemoglobin interferes with DNA extraction from blood because it?
  1. A
    Increases yield
  2. B
    Strongly binds to DNA and inhibits downstream reactions
  3. C
    Degrades DNA
  4. D
    Has no effect
Question 50Single Answer
The heme group in haemoglobin can?
  1. A
    No effect
  2. B
    Enhance PCR
  3. C
    Cause PCR inhibition due to iron-mediated oxidation
  4. D
    Only bind protein
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