Which of the following is NOT a general principle of growth and development?
A
Development follows a predictable sequence.
B
Growth is always continuous.
C
Growth and development are influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.
D
Different aspects of development may occur at different rates.
Question 2Single Answer
The principle of development that states "Development occurs from head to toe" is called:
A
Cephalocaudal principle
B
Proximodistal principle
C
Orthogenetic principle
D
Specificity principle
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following is a key characteristic of the principle of development called "Proximodistal"?
A
Development begins from the center of the body and moves outward.
B
Development starts at the extremities and moves towards the center.
C
Development begins at the head and proceeds to the feet.
D
Development is uniform across all body parts.
Question 4Single Answer
Which principle of growth and development involves the child mastering simpler functions before more complex ones?
A
Orthogenetic principle
B
Proximodistal principle
C
Specificity principle
D
Maturation principle
Question 5Single Answer
The term 'growth' refers to:
A
Increase in size and number of body parts.
B
Functional maturity of organs.
C
Progression of motor and cognitive skills.
D
The emotional and social development of a child.
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following is a milestone associated with normal growth in the first year of life?
A
Walking independently
B
Developing a pincer grip
C
Saying simple words like 'mama' or 'papa'
D
Teething
Question 7Single Answer
Which of the following is a normal developmental milestone in adolescence?
A
Begins to sit without support
B
Development of secondary sexual characteristics
C
Ability to speak in full sentences
D
Fine motor skills for drawing shapes
Question 8Single Answer
During early childhood (3-5 years), children typically develop which of the following skills?
A
Speech begins to form in simple words.
B
Toilet training becomes more refined.
C
Walking and running are mastered.
D
Problem-solving skills become complex.
Question 9Single Answer
At what age does the average child typically begin walking?
A
6-8 months
B
9-12 months
C
12-18 months
D
18-24 months
Question 10Single Answer
The development of abstract thinking in adolescence typically begins around the age of:
A
3 years
B
5 years
C
12 years
D
18 years
Question 11Single Answer
The most accurate method to determine gestational age in a newborn is:
A
Maternal history
B
Ultrasonography
C
New Ballard Score
D
Physical examination
Question 12Single Answer
The Ballard Score is used to assess:
A
Gestational age of the newborn
B
Growth milestones in infants
C
Weight-for-age of the infant
D
Visual development in infants
Question 13Single Answer
The assessment of gestational age based on the physical characteristics of a newborn involves:
A
Physical examination by a pediatrician only
B
Scoring using the Dubowitz method
C
Neonatal reflex tests
D
Blood tests for hormones
Question 14Single Answer
Which of the following is considered a reliable indicator of gestational age in preterm infants?
A
Length of the infant
B
Presence of lanugo hair
C
Moro reflex
D
Feeding patterns
Question 15Single Answer
In the early postnatal period, the assessment of gestational age is most useful for:
A
Determining the future growth pattern
B
Estimating the developmental milestones
C
Identifying the likelihood of preterm birth complications
D
Predicting long-term cognitive outcomes
Question 16Single Answer
Which of the following growth patterns is typical during infancy?
A
Rapid growth with minimal weight gain
B
Steady growth in length and weight
C
A slow but steady increase in both height and weight
D
A rapid increase in height and a slight decrease in weight
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the growth pattern in childhood (4-10 years)?
A
Rapid weight and height increase
B
Slow and steady increase in both height and weight
C
No increase in height
D
Sudden growth spurts at irregular intervals
Question 18Single Answer
Which period of life is characterized by the most rapid growth rate in terms of height and weight?
A
Infancy (0-1 year)
B
Toddlerhood (1-3 years)
C
Early childhood (3-5 years)
D
Adolescence (12-18 years)
Question 19Single Answer
What is the average growth rate for children aged 3 to 5 years?
A
1.5 kg per year in weight and 5-7 cm in height
B
3 kg per year in weight and 10 cm in height
C
0.5 kg per year in weight and 1 cm in height
D
1 kg per year in weight and 3-5 cm in height
Question 20Single Answer
The adolescent growth spurt typically occurs:
A
Around 4-6 years
B
Between 10-12 years in girls and 12-14 years in boys
C
Between 1-2 years of age
D
During early childhood
Question 21Single Answer
The most commonly used growth charts for children under 5 years of age are developed by:
A
The World Health Organization (WHO)
B
The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP)
C
The National Institutes of Health (NIH)
D
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Question 22Single Answer
The growth chart that uses percentiles to represent a child's growth compared to a reference population is the:
A
BMI chart
B
Weight-for-age chart
C
WHO growth standards
D
Head circumference chart
Question 23Single Answer
Which of the following is an important factor when using growth charts to assess a child’s development?
A
Plotting the child’s measurements against a national standard
B
Comparing the child’s measurements only with their peer group
C
Using a different chart for girls and boys from birth to 2 years
D
Plotting only the weight-to-height ratio
Question 24Single Answer
The WHO growth standards for children are based on:
A
The average growth of children in developed countries
B
Data from healthy children breastfed exclusively
C
Data from children receiving mixed feeding
D
Growth patterns of children in urban areas
Question 25Single Answer
Which growth parameter is typically assessed using growth charts in early childhood?
A
Bone density
B
Head circumference
C
Muscle mass
D
Blood pressure
Question 26Single Answer
The Mamta Card is used to monitor which aspect of child health?
A
Immunization status
B
Nutritional intake
C
Birth weight and growth parameters
D
Family history
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following is true about the Mamta Card?
A
It is issued only to children under 5 years of age.
B
It tracks only immunization records.
C
It is a government initiative to track maternal health.
D
It is used to monitor maternal and child health in rural areas.
Question 28Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the Mamta Card?
A
To monitor a child’s intellectual development
B
To track immunization and growth data
C
To record the mother’s medical history
D
To assess the child’s social development
Question 29Single Answer
In India, Mamta Cards are primarily used for:
A
Maternal health education
B
Monitoring nutrition and feeding practices
C
Monitoring growth and immunization status of children
D
Recording birth and death rates in rural areas
Question 30Single Answer
Which organization implemented the Mamta Card program in India?
A
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B
World Health Organization (WHO)
C
UNICEF
D
National Rural Health Mission
Question 31Single Answer
At what age do children typically start developing social and emotional skills, such as making eye contact and smiling?
A
2 months
B
6 months
C
9 months
D
12 months
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following factors can influence the rate and pattern of a child's growth and development?
A
Genetics
B
Nutrition
C
Environment
D
All of the above
Question 33Single Answer
What is the term used to describe the process of a child’s development from simple to complex skills?
A
Proximodistal development
B
Cephalocaudal development
C
Maturation
D
Differentiation
Question 34Single Answer
The critical period of growth, where the body is most responsive to environmental factors, is in:
A
Late childhood
B
Adolescence
C
Early infancy
D
Early adulthood
Question 35Single Answer
At what age do children generally develop the ability to speak in short sentences?
A
6 months
B
12 months
C
18 months
D
2 years
Question 36Single Answer
During which stage of life does a child experience the highest rate of growth in terms of both height and weight?
A
Neonatal period
B
Infancy
C
Early childhood
D
Adolescence
Question 37Single Answer
In adolescence, the onset of puberty is associated with:
A
A marked increase in height, weight, and muscle mass.
B
Slower growth and development.
C
Development of fine motor skills.
D
Deceleration of growth.
Question 38Single Answer
Which of the following physical changes occur first in girls during puberty?
A
Menstruation
B
Breast development
C
Pubic hair growth
D
Increased muscle mass
Question 39Single Answer
What is the first developmental milestone that is typically reached by infants in the first year?
A
Rolling over
B
Sitting up without support
C
Walking
D
Crawling
Question 40Single Answer
A newborn is categorized as "preterm" if the gestational age is less than:
A
32 weeks
B
34 weeks
C
37 weeks
D
40 weeks
Question 41Single Answer
Gestational age can be determined by the first reliable method of fetal evaluation, which is:
A
Maternal physical examination
B
Ultrasound measurement of the crown-rump length
C
Fundal height measurement
D
Neonatal examination
Question 42Single Answer
The Ballard Score can help assess:
A
Nutritional status of the infant
B
The psychological state of the newborn
C
Gestational age of a newborn based on physical and neurological criteria
D
The cause of preterm birth
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following growth patterns is characteristic of the period between ages 1-3 years?
A
Rapid increase in weight and height
B
Minimal increase in height but rapid weight gain
C
Slow growth in both height and weight
D
Rapid height growth with minimal weight gain
Question 44Single Answer
By the age of 3 years, children typically reach approximately what percentage of their adult height?
A
50%
B
60%
C
75%
D
90%
Question 45Single Answer
The most rapid increase in weight during childhood occurs:
A
During the first few months of life
B
In the first year of life
C
Between 3-6 years
D
During adolescence
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the acceleration of growth during adolescence?
A
Nutritional intake
B
Hormonal changes, particularly increased secretion of growth hormone
C
Genetic predisposition
D
Environmental factors
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT typically plotted on a growth chart?
A
Weight-for-age
B
Height-for-age
C
Head circumference-for-age
D
Blood pressure-for-age
Question 48Single Answer
Growth charts are used to assess which aspect of a child's development?
A
The timing of developmental milestones
B
Nutritional status, including potential malnutrition
C
Cognitive development and intelligence
D
Family medical history
Question 49Single Answer
In assessing a child's growth, which of the following is NOT a typical parameter considered on a growth chart?
A
Body mass index (BMI)
B
Weight-for-height
C
Age-specific developmental milestones
D
Height-for-age
Question 50Single Answer
A child is considered to have stunted growth if their height-for-age percentile is below:
A
2nd percentile
B
10th percentile
C
50th percentile
D
75th percentile
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Pediatrics
Question 51Single Answer
Which of the following is true about asymmetric growth in children?
A
It refers to growth that is uniform across all body parts.
B
It usually occurs during the first 6 months of life.
C
Asymmetric growth is often associated with certain syndromes or conditions.
D
It is common in all children during their first year.
Question 52Single Answer
In asymmetric growth, which body part is most commonly affected in conditions such as hemihypertrophy?
A
Head
B
Limb
C
Trunk
D
Abdomen
Question 53Single Answer
Asymmetric growth can be indicative of which of the following?
A
Nutritional deficiency
B
A genetic condition
C
An infection
D
Normal growth variation
Question 54Single Answer
Skeletal dysplasia is a condition characterized by:
A
Abnormal growth of hair
B
Abnormal bone development
C
Cognitive delay
D
Heart defects
Question 55Single Answer
Which of the following is the most common type of skeletal dysplasia?
A
Achondroplasia
B
Marfan syndrome
C
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Question 56Single Answer
What is a primary clinical feature of skeletal dysplasia in children?
A
Short stature with disproportionate limbs
B
Excessive growth of limbs
C
Muscle wasting
D
Increased height with normal proportions
Question 57Single Answer
Which genetic mutation is most commonly associated with achondroplasia?
A
FGFR3 mutation
B
RAS gene mutation
C
COL1A1 mutation
D
L1CAM gene mutation
Question 58Single Answer
Developmental delay refers to:
A
A delay in physical growth
B
A delay in the acquisition of age-appropriate skills in one or more domains
C
Delay in bone development
D
Delay in sexual maturation
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following is a commonly used screening tool to assess developmental delay in children?
A
Apgar score
B
Denver Developmental Screening Test
C
MRI
D
Blood test
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT typically a domain assessed when evaluating developmental delay in children?
A
Gross motor skills
B
Communication skills
C
Cognitive skills
D
IQ score
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following can cause developmental delay in children?
A
Genetic disorders
B
Environmental factors such as neglect
C
Premature birth
D
All of the above
Question 62Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a developmental delay in a child?
A
Late speech development
B
Difficulty walking at the appropriate age
C
Lack of interest in social interactions
D
Proportional growth with age
Question 63Single Answer
Which method is commonly used to assess gestational age in newborns?
A
Ballard score
B
Ultrasound at birth
C
Weight-for-age
D
CT scan
Question 64Single Answer
Which of the following is used to estimate a child's developmental age?
A
Bone age X-ray
B
Blood test
C
Height measurement
D
Cognitive assessment
Question 65Single Answer
At which age is a child’s skeletal maturity typically measured using a bone age X-ray?
A
1 year
B
3 years
C
7 years
D
12 years
Question 66Single Answer
Which is a more accurate method of determining the age of a fetus?
A
Fundal height measurement
B
First-trimester ultrasound
C
Second-trimester ultrasound
D
Maternal age
Question 67Single Answer
Which of the following is the most accurate method for assessing chronological age?
A
Mental development
B
Dental development
C
Physical appearance
D
Height and weight percentiles
Question 68Single Answer
Which of the following is considered a typical sign of sexual maturation in girls?
A
Menarche
B
Deepening of voice
C
Growth of facial hair
D
Enlargement of breasts
Question 69Single Answer
Which hormone is primarily responsible for the onset of puberty in both boys and girls?
A
Estrogen
B
Progesterone
C
Testosterone
D
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Question 70Single Answer
What is the term for the absence of sexual maturation by the age of 14 years in boys?
A
Precocious puberty
B
Delayed puberty
C
Hypogonadism
D
Pseudohermaphroditism
Question 71Single Answer
Which condition is characterized by the premature onset of puberty in girls before the age of 8?
A
Turner syndrome
B
Klinefelter syndrome
C
Central precocious puberty
D
Testicular feminization syndrome
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following is an abnormal disturbance in sexual maturation in boys?
A
Early onset of puberty
B
Delayed onset of puberty
C
Normal onset of puberty
D
None of the above
Question 73Single Answer
Which of the following is a common psychological issue encountered in adolescence?
A
Anxiety and depression
B
Increased cognitive abilities
C
Higher levels of physical activity
D
Reduced risk-taking behavior
Question 74Single Answer
Which is the most common cause of mortality in adolescents?
A
Accidents and injuries
B
Cancer
C
Heart disease
D
Respiratory infections
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following is an important factor in the physical and emotional development of adolescents?
A
Peer influence
B
Family dynamics
C
Hormonal changes
D
All of the above
Question 76Single Answer
Which eating disorder is most commonly seen during adolescence?
A
Anorexia nervosa
B
Bulimia nervosa
C
Binge-eating disorder
D
All of the above
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following is a significant health concern for adolescents, particularly among those who engage in risky behaviors?
A
Substance abuse
B
Asthma
C
Obesity
D
Cardiovascular diseases
Question 78Single Answer
In adolescence, which of the following social behaviors is often seen as a challenge?
A
Peer pressure and conformity
B
Desire for independence
C
Emotional instability
D
All of the above
Question 79Single Answer
Which condition in adolescence is most closely associated with sexual health concerns?
A
Unprotected sexual activity and sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
B
Malnutrition
C
Vitamin deficiencies
D
None of the above
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following is a risk factor for suicide in adolescents?
A
Family history of mental illness
B
Substance abuse
C
Lack of social support
D
All of the above
Question 81Single Answer
Asymmetric growth in infants is most commonly associated with:
A
Infection during pregnancy
B
Prematurity
C
Maternal malnutrition
D
All of the above
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following is true about the management of asymmetric growth in children?
A
It does not require any medical intervention if detected early.
B
Treatment should focus on the underlying cause of the growth discrepancy.
C
It usually resolves on its own without any long-term effects.
D
Growth hormone therapy is always recommended.
Question 83Single Answer
Asymmetric growth is commonly associated with which of the following conditions in newborns?
A
Fetal alcohol syndrome
B
Hyperthyroidism
C
Cerebral palsy
D
Down syndrome
Question 84Single Answer
Which type of skeletal dysplasia is characterized by short limbs and a normal-sized trunk?
A
Osteogenesis imperfecta
B
Achondroplasia
C
Diastrophic dysplasia
D
Morquio syndrome
Question 85Single Answer
In children with skeletal dysplasia, what is the primary concern for parents and caregivers?
A
Intellectual impairment
B
Functional limitations due to abnormal bone structure
C
Risk of frequent infections
D
Cardiovascular complications
Question 86Single Answer
Which diagnostic tool is most commonly used to confirm skeletal dysplasia?
A
Genetic testing
B
Bone age X-ray
C
CT scan
D
MRI
Question 87Single Answer
Developmental delay can be associated with:
A
Genetic syndromes
B
Neurodevelopmental disorders
C
Environmental factors like poor nutrition
D
All of the above
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a recommended approach for assessing developmental delay in children?
A
Physical examination
B
Screening questionnaires
C
Genetic testing
D
Direct observation of developmental milestones
Question 89Single Answer
A child showing delays in motor, social, and language skills may be suspected to have which condition?
A
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
B
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
C
Down syndrome
D
All of the above
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following is a reliable method for assessing the gestational age of a neonate?
A
APGAR score
B
Neonatal reflexes
C
Physical examination and neurological assessment
D
Blood test for glucose levels
Question 91Single Answer
What is the most appropriate method for determining the developmental age of a child?
A
Measuring height and weight percentiles
B
Reviewing milestones for motor, cognitive, and social development
C
Genetic testing
D
Measuring bone age
Question 92Single Answer
In a preterm infant, which of the following is most commonly used to assess developmental progress?
A
Corrected gestational age
B
Physical examination at birth
C
Height and weight percentiles
D
Head circumference
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic of delayed puberty in girls?
A
No breast development by age 13
B
Menarche before age 10
C
Early growth spurt at age 8
D
All of the above
Question 94Single Answer
Which hormone is responsible for initiating puberty in both males and females?
A
Insulin
B
Leptin
C
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D
Growth hormone
Question 95Single Answer
Which of the following is the first physical sign of puberty in boys?
A
Testicular enlargement
B
Deepening of voice
C
Pubic hair growth
D
Acne development
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following is a common cause of anxiety in adolescents?
A
Academic pressure
B
Peer relationships
C
Body image concerns
D
All of the above
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of depression in adolescents?
A
Family history of mental illness
B
Substance abuse
C
Poor academic performance
D
All of the above
Question 98Single Answer
What is a common sign of eating disorders in adolescents?
A
Excessive weight gain
B
Restricting food intake
C
Increased appetite and eating excessively
D
Both b and c
Question 99Single Answer
Which of the following is a major concern for adolescents engaging in risky behaviors like smoking and alcohol use?
A
Increased risk of chronic diseases
B
Psychological and social impact
C
Early mortality
D
All of the above
Question 100Single Answer
Adolescent health problems such as depression and substance abuse are best managed through:
A
Medication alone
B
Peer counseling
C
Family support and therapy
D
School-based interventions only
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following is a key principle in perinatal care?
A
Ensuring maternal well-being
B
Timely identification of fetal distress
C
Monitoring both mother and baby during labor
D
All of the above
Question 102Single Answer
Perinatal care includes monitoring the newborn for which of the following?
A
Birth defects
B
Jaundice
C
Hypoglycemia
D
All of the above
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following is the most critical aspect of perinatal care to reduce neonatal mortality?
A
Antenatal care
B
Immediate resuscitation
C
Vaccination
D
Postnatal counseling
Question 104Single Answer
In the labor room, the immediate management of a newborn begins with:
A
Drying the baby
B
Administration of vaccines
C
Checking the APGAR score
D
Cutting the umbilical cord
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following is the first step in neonatal resuscitation in the labor room?
A
Intubation
B
Administering epinephrine
C
Providing warmth and clearing the airway
D
Initiating chest compressions
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following is true about the umbilical cord clamping?
A
Early clamping is recommended for all deliveries.
B
Delayed clamping can improve iron stores in preterm infants.
C
Immediate clamping increases the risk of hypovolemia.
D
The cord should be clamped after 10 minutes in all cases.
Question 107Single Answer
In neonatal resuscitation, which of the following actions should be prioritized in the first 30 seconds of life if the baby is not breathing?
A
Chest compressions
B
Positive pressure ventilation
C
Intubation
D
Administration of epinephrine
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following is true regarding the use of epinephrine during neonatal resuscitation?
A
It is administered when the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute despite adequate ventilation and chest compressions.
B
It should be given intravenously as a first line of treatment.
C
It is recommended for all newborns immediately after birth.
D
It should be given before initiating chest compressions.
Question 109Single Answer
The appropriate device to provide positive pressure ventilation during neonatal resuscitation is:
A
Endotracheal tube
B
Face mask and bag
C
Laryngeal mask airway
D
Nasal cannula
Question 110Single Answer
The most common cause of prematurity is:
A
Infection
B
Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy
C
Multiple pregnancies
D
Maternal smoking
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with prematurity?
A
Jaundice
B
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C
Hypoglycemia
D
All of the above
Question 112Single Answer
The risk of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) is highest in which group of premature infants?
A
Infants born at 32–34 weeks of gestation
B
Infants born at 28–30 weeks of gestation
C
Infants born at 25–26 weeks of gestation
D
Infants born at 36 weeks of gestation
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following is a normal finding in a healthy newborn?
A
Cyanosis of the extremities
B
Abnormal heart sounds
C
Persistent jaundice after the first 24 hours
D
Tachypnea
Question 114Single Answer
In a normal newborn, the Apgar score is typically:
A
5–6
B
7–8
C
8–10
D
0–4
Question 115Single Answer
The most important sign of normal circulation in a newborn is:
A
Normal heart rate
B
Presence of a strong pulse
C
Pink skin color
D
Crying immediately after birth
Question 116Single Answer
A high-risk newborn is defined as one who has a significant risk for which of the following?
A
Infection
B
Developmental delays
C
Respiratory complications
D
All of the above
Question 117Single Answer
The primary management goal for high-risk newborns is:
A
Preventing infections
B
Enhancing nutrition and growth
C
Providing respiratory support
D
All of the above
Question 118Single Answer
Which of the following conditions is a major risk factor for a high-risk newborn?
A
Prematurity
B
Maternal diabetes
C
Low birth weight
D
All of the above
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following is recommended during the follow-up care of a newborn discharged from the hospital?
A
Immunization according to schedule
B
Continuous monitoring in the NICU
C
Exclusive breastfeeding
D
No follow-up is necessary for healthy term infants
Question 120Single Answer
Post-discharge care for premature infants includes:
A
Regular weight monitoring
B
Respiratory support
C
Vision screening
D
All of the above
Question 121Single Answer
Which of the following is crucial for a successful follow-up after discharge for high-risk newborns?
A
Monitoring developmental milestones
B
Routine neonatal hearing screening
C
Early identification of complications
D
All of the above
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following diseases is routinely screened for in newborns?
A
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
B
Cystic fibrosis
C
Hypothyroidism
D
All of the above
Question 123Single Answer
The most commonly performed screening test for metabolic disorders in newborns is:
A
Pulse oximetry
B
Heel prick blood test
C
Urine culture
D
Echocardiogram
Question 124Single Answer
Newborn hearing screening is typically done by:
A
Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR)
B
Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE)
C
Pure tone audiometry
D
Both a and b
Question 125Single Answer
Persistent pulmonary hypertension (PPHN) in a newborn is associated with:
A
Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B
Decreased systemic vascular resistance
C
Decreased blood flow to the lungs
D
All of the above
Question 126Single Answer
A common treatment modality for PPHN includes:
A
Mechanical ventilation
B
Sildenafil
C
Nitric oxide therapy
D
All of the above
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing PPHN in newborns?
A
Meconium aspiration syndrome
B
Maternal hypertension
C
Intrauterine growth restriction
D
Down syndrome
Question 128Single Answer
High-Flow Nasal Cannula (HFNc) is used in neonates for:
A
Providing oxygen and reducing respiratory distress
B
Treating apnea of prematurity
C
Managing severe hypoxemia
D
All of the above
Question 129Single Answer
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) is mainly used to:
A
Treat neonatal seizures
B
Provide respiratory support to preterm infants with immature lungs
C
Improve feeding tolerance in neonates
D
Correct jaundice in newborns
Question 130Single Answer
Which of the following is an advantage of using CPAP in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?
A
It helps to maintain lung volumes
B
It requires no sedation
C
It improves oxygenation
D
All of the above
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is a key factor in reducing the risk of perinatal infections?
A
Hand hygiene and sterilization
B
Early initiation of antibiotics
C
Immediate cord clamping
D
All of the above
Question 132Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT part of the routine perinatal care in a healthy newborn?
A
Monitoring body temperature
B
Administration of vitamin K
C
Administration of antibiotics
D
Early initiation of breastfeeding
Question 133Single Answer
What is the recommended approach to newborn resuscitation when the heart rate is <60 bpm despite adequate ventilation and chest compressions?
A
Administer epinephrine
B
Provide oxygen therapy
C
Start CPR
D
Use surfactant therapy
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following is a contraindication for immediate clamping of the umbilical cord?
A
Full-term delivery
B
Premature birth
C
Cesarean delivery
D
All of the above
Question 135Single Answer
In neonatal resuscitation, what is the recommended chest compression rate for a newborn?
A
60-80 compressions per minute
B
100-120 compressions per minute
C
150-160 compressions per minute
D
120-150 compressions per minute
Question 136Single Answer
In a neonate with persistent bradycardia (heart rate <60 bpm), which of the following is the most appropriate next step after 30 seconds of ventilation and chest compressions?
A
Intubation
B
Administration of sodium bicarbonate
C
Administration of epinephrine
D
Increase the tidal volume
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following is a complication most commonly associated with prematurity?
A
Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
B
Hyperbilirubinemia
C
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
D
All of the above
Question 138Single Answer
Which of the following is the most important intervention to prevent retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) in preterm infants?
A
Vitamin D supplementation
B
Avoiding excessive oxygen supplementation
C
Administering surfactant
D
Early nutritional support
Question 139Single Answer
The most appropriate method to support breathing in an extremely premature neonate (born at 24 weeks) is:
