Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 7Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 8Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 9Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 11Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 12Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 13Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 14Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 15Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 16Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 17Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 18Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 19Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 20Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 21Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 23Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 24Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 25Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 26Single Answer
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 27Single Answer
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A
2001
B
2010
C
2012
D
2011
Question 28Single Answer
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A
1 only
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
1,2, and 3
Question 29Single Answer
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A
2007-12
B
2008-13
C
2010-15
D
2012-17
Question 30Single Answer
A closed economy is an economy in which
A
the money supply is fully controlled
B
deficit financing takes place
C
only exports take place
D
neither exports nor imports take place
Question 31Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
1,2,3 and 4
Question 32Single Answer
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
A
1 only
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
1,2 and 3
Question 33Single Answer
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
A
IMF
B
RBI
C
Local bodies
D
Big Businessmen
Question 34Single Answer
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A
4th plan
B
6th plan
C
8th plan
D
10th plan
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
A
only 1
B
only 2
C
only 3
D
1,2 and 3
Question 36Single Answer
Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission
A
Members and vice chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
B
it is not defined in Indian Constitution
C
Members do not require any minimum education
D
all of these
Question 37Single Answer
__________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National Development Council
A
Prime Minister
B
President
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 38Single Answer
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India
A
services Industry- Agriculture
B
Services- Agriculture-Industry
C
Industry-Services-Agriculture
D
Industry-Agriculture-Services
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of India
A
Assessment of the material ,capital and human resources of the country
B
formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of country’s resources
C
public cooperation in national development
D
preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plan
Question 40Single Answer
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commisison
A
Rajendra Prasad
B
Jawahar Lal Nehru
C
Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
D
J.B.Kriplani
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the statements given below is/are correct
1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10th Five Year Plan
2. The Planning Commission in India is a constitutional body
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 42Single Answer
The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which of the following
1. Greater attention to land reforms
2. double the rate of growth of irrigated area
3. promote animal husbandary and fishery
4. interest free credit to the farmers
Select the correct answer
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1,2 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 43Single Answer
What is the period of 11th Five Year Plan
A
2006-11
B
2007-12
C
2008-13
D
2009-14
Question 44Single Answer
In which one of the following Five Year Plan the actual growth performance in India in respect of GDP was less than the target set
A
6th Five Year Plan
B
7th Five Year Plan
C
8th Five Year Plan
D
9th Five Year Plan
Question 45Single Answer
Who of the following was the author of the chapter on 'Objectives of planned development' for the 3rd Five Year Plan
A
Morarji Desai
B
C.D.Deshmukh
C
Jawahar Lal Nehru
D
Lal Bahadur Shashtri
Question 46Single Answer
During which five year plan was the total expenditure on agriculture the highest
A
1st five year plan
B
2nd five year plan
C
3rd five year plan
D
4th five year plan
Question 47Single Answer
What is the correct sequence of the following strategies used for five year plan in India
1. balanced growth 2. Rehabilitation of the economy
3. industrial development
A
1,3,2
B
2,1,3
C
2,3,1
D
3,2,1
Question 48Single Answer
The steel plants at Durgapur, bhilai and Rourkela were established during the period of
A
1st five year plan
B
2nd five year plan
C
3rd five year plan
D
4th five year plan
Question 49Single Answer
The second five year plan laid more stress upon
A
agriculture
B
industrialization
C
removing poverty
D
self reliance
Question 50Single Answer
In which of the five year plan preference ws given to the weaker sections of the society
A
2nd
B
3rd
C
4th
D
5th
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General Studies
Question 51Single Answer
Which one fo the following Five year plan recognized human development as the core of all developmental efforts
A
the 3rd five year plan
B
the 5th five year plan
C
the 6th five year plan
D
the 8th five year plan
Question 52Single Answer
The growth rate of agricultural production was negative in the
A
first plan
B
second plan
C
third plan
D
fourth plan
Question 53Single Answer
The basic feature of the Rolling Plans was that
A
major development projects were to be completed in the stipulated period
B
revision of the achievements of previous year
C
annual fluctuations in prices and major economic developments could be considered while fixing targets
D
no financial target except in the term of annual plans was envisaged
Question 54Single Answer
A rolling plan was a plan for
A
one year
B
three year
C
five year
D
year to year basis
Question 55Single Answer
The strategy of Rolling Plan was adopted during the Prime Ministership of
A
Lal Bahadur Shastri
B
Indira Gandhi
C
Morarji Desai
D
Rajiv Gandhi
Question 56Single Answer
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A
गुण संधि के अनुसार
B
यण संधि के अनुसार
C
वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D
अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Question 57Single Answer
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A
त्
B
न्
C
द्
D
भ्
Question 58Single Answer
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A
ल
B
ष
C
ड़
D
न
Question 59Single Answer
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A
ख
B
ग
C
च
D
द
Question 60Single Answer
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A
ट ड द ढ
B
च छ ज झ
C
त थ द ध
D
प फ ब भ
Question 61Single Answer
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A
मूर्धा
B
कण्ठ
C
तालु
D
ओष्ठ
Question 62Single Answer
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A
ए - ऐ
B
ए - ओ
C
ए - ऊ
D
त - द
Question 63Single Answer
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
A
समास
B
अव्यय
C
उपसर्ग
D
प्रत्यय
Question 64Single Answer
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
A
प्र
B
त
C
प्रख
D
आत
Question 65Single Answer
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
A
सखी
B
शाखा
C
राखी
D
साक्षी
Question 66Single Answer
किस क्रम में वृत्तमुखी स्वर नहीं है -
A
आ
B
ऊँ
C
ओ
D
औ
Question 67Single Answer
उपसर्ग का प्रयोग होता है -
A
शब्द के आदि में
B
शब्द के मध्य में
C
शब्द के अंत में
D
इनमे से कोई नहीं
Question 68Single Answer
'पंडित दूध पीता है' इस वाक्य में कारक है -
A
कर्म, करण
B
सम्प्रदान, सम्बन्ध
C
कर्ता, कर्म
D
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Question 69Single Answer
'ने' किस कारक का चिह्न है -
A
कर्ता
B
करण
C
सम्प्रदान
D
कर्म
Question 70Single Answer
'वह जहाँ चाहे, जाये; मुझे क्या लेना-देना।' यह कैसा वाक्य है -
A
संयुक्त वाक्य
B
सरल वाक्य
C
मिश्रित वाक्य
D
संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य
Question 71Single Answer
व्याकरण के नियमानुसार किस वाक्य में पदक्रम सही है -
A
रावण को राम ने मारा।
B
राम ने रावण को मारा।
C
मारा राम ने रावण को।
D
संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य।
Question 72Single Answer
'अधिकरण' कारक का चिह्न है -
A
अरे
B
में
C
से
D
को
Question 73Single Answer
स्वर होते हैं -
A
घोष
B
अघोष
C
अल्पप्राण
D
महाप्राण
Question 74Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से वर्त्स्य है -
A
ल्
B
ड
C
ढ़
D
स्
Question 75Single Answer
'दित्व' का प्रयोग किस शब्द में नहीं हुआ है ?
A
सच्चा
B
कुत्ता
C
बल्गा
D
बग्गा
Question 76Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 77Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 78Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 79Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 80Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 81Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 82Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 83Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 84Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 85Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 86Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 87Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 88Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 89Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 90Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 91Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 92Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 93Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 94Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 95Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 96Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 97Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 98Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 99Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 100Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 101Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 102Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 103Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 104Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 105Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 106Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 108Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 109Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 110Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 111Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 112Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 113Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 114Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 115Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 116Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 117Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 118Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 119Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 120Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 121Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 122Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 123Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 124Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 125Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 126Single Answer
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
A
0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
B
0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
C
0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
D
0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
Question 127Single Answer
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
A
~ 5 mg/l
B
~ 25 mg/l
C
~ 71.4 mg/l
D
~75 mg/l
Question 128Single Answer
What will be the concentration of 40 ppb SO₂ in µg/m³ unit at 25°C ?
A
~ 0.04 µg/m³
B
~ 1047 µg/m³
C
~ 104.7 µg/m³
D
~ 10.47 µg/m³
Question 129Single Answer
National Ambient air quality standards typically include following components :
A
Maximum and Minimum pollutant levels, adjustment for co - pollutants
B
Abetment strategies, non - attainment penalties
C
Ambient temperature, size distribution and relative humidity
D
Indicator (Chemical/Chemical class), Averaging time, Pollutant form and level
Question 130Single Answer
Primary air pollutants differ from secondary air pollutants as they :
A
are present in levels that can be weighed on filter paper
B
are directly emitted from identified sources
C
have undergone chemical transformation in air after release from identified sources
D
are designated as hazardous air pollutants
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the nature of the Indian Constitution ?
A
Rigid
B
Flexible
C
Semi-rigid
D
Static
Question 132Single Answer
The Indian Constitution is largely based on the model of which country's constitution ?
A
United States
B
United Kingdom
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 133Single Answer
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of powers between the Union and the States ?
A
Preamble
B
Fundamental Rights
C
Union List
D
Federal Structure
Question 134Single Answer
What does the Preamble of the Indian Constitution declare India as ?
A
A Socialist Republic
B
A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
C
A Secular State
D
A Federal Republic
Question 135Single Answer
The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble by which Constitutional Amendment ?
A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
52nd Amendment
D
73rd Amendment
Question 136Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 137Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 138Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 139Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 140Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is considered the most essential macronutrient for energy production in the body?
A
Proteins
B
Fats
C
Carbohydrates
D
Vitamins
Question 142Single Answer
Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in the human body?
A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamin B12
C
Vitamin C
D
Vitamin D
Question 143Single Answer
Which nutrient is necessary for muscle repair and growth?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Proteins
C
Fats
D
Vitamins
Question 144Single Answer
What is the primary source of dietary fiber?
A
Meat
B
Fish
C
Whole grains and vegetables
D
Dairy products
Question 145Single Answer
Which mineral is critical for the production of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
A
Calcium
B
Iron
C
Magnesium
D
Potassium
Question 146Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 147Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 148Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 149Single Answer
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A
INSAT-1A
B
Aryabhata
C
Rohini
D
Bhaskara
Question 150Single Answer
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A
Dhruva
B
Kamini
C
Apsara
D
Kalpakkam
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following is a component of the cytoskeleton?
A
Microtubules
B
Ribosomes
C
Lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 152Single Answer
Microtubules are primarily composed of:
A
Actin
B
Tubulin
C
Myosin
D
Keratin
Question 153Single Answer
Which of the following is responsible for cell movement and shape?
A
Microfilaments
B
Lysosomes
C
Chromosomes
D
Centrioles
Question 154Single Answer
Microfilaments are mainly composed of:
A
Actin
B
Tubulin
C
Myosin
D
Collagen
Question 155Single Answer
Which cytoskeletal element is involved in the formation of the mitotic spindle?
A
Microfilaments
B
Intermediate filaments
C
Microtubules
D
Actin filaments
Question 156Single Answer
What does the Preamble to the Indian Constitution declare India as?
A
A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
B
A Union of States
C
A Welfare State
D
A Communist State
Question 157Single Answer
How many fundamental rights are enshrined in the Indian Constitution?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
5
Question 158Single Answer
Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides the right to equality?
A
Article 14
B
Article 19
C
Article 21
D
Article 32
Question 159Single Answer
Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
A
Fourth Schedule
B
Second Schedule
C
Sixth Schedule
D
Eighth Schedule
Question 160Single Answer
Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
A
Prime Minister
B
President
C
Parliament
D
Attorney General
Question 161Single Answer
Which of the following is a primary goal of modern agricultural practices?
A
Maximizing the use of manual labor
B
Increasing crop yields and efficiency
C
Reducing the use of technology in farming
D
Relying solely on traditional farming methods
Question 162Single Answer
What is the term for the application of scientific principles and new technologies to agriculture?
A
Traditional farming
B
Subsistence farming
C
Modern farming
D
Organic farming
Question 163Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of modern agriculture?
A
Use of high-yielding variety seeds
B
Increased reliance on chemical fertilizers and pesticides
C
Extensive use of manual labor
D
Mechanization of farming operations
Question 164Single Answer
What is the main advantage of using genetically modified (GM) crops in modern agriculture?
A
They require less water
B
They are always resistant to all pests and diseases
C
They can potentially increase yields and reduce the need for pesticides
D
They are easier to harvest manually
Question 165Single Answer
Which of the following is a key aspect of precision agriculture?
A
Uniform application of fertilizers across the entire field
B
Using satellites and GPS to manage and optimize farming practices
C
Ignoring variations in soil and crop conditions within a field
D
Relying solely on visual inspection for decision-making
Question 166Single Answer
What is the process by which plants produce offspring?
A
Photosynthesis
B
Germination
C
Reproduction
D
Respiration
Question 167Single Answer
Which type of reproduction involves only one parent?
A
Sexual reproduction
B
Asexual reproduction
C
Binary fission
D
Budding
Question 168Single Answer
Which structure in a flower contains pollen grains?
A
Stigma
B
Style
C
Ovary
D
Anther
Question 169Single Answer
Which part of the flower develops into a fruit after fertilization?
A
Ovule
B
Stigma
C
Ovary
D
Anther
Question 170Single Answer
What is the male reproductive part of a flower called?
A
Carpel
B
Pistil
C
Stamen
D
Ovule
Question 171Single Answer
What is the primary economic activity in Rajasthan?
A
Mining
B
Agriculture
C
Tourism
D
Handicrafts
Question 172Single Answer
Which crop is Rajasthan the largest producer of in India?
A
Wheat
B
Rapeseed
C
Rice
D
Sugarcane
Question 173Single Answer
What are the two main crop seasons in Rajasthan?
A
Summer and Winter
B
Kharif and Rabi
C
Monsoon and Dry
D
Spring and Autumn
Question 174Single Answer
What is the main source of irrigation in Rajasthan?
A
Rivers
B
Wells and tanks
C
Canals
D
Rainwater harvesting
Question 175Single Answer
Which canal irrigates northwestern Rajasthan?
A
Ganga Canal
B
Indira Gandhi Canal
C
Yamuna Canal
D
Bhakra Canal
Question 176Single Answer
Which site in Rajasthan has provided evidence of prehistoric stone tools?
A
Kalibangan
B
Tilwara
C
Chittorgarh
D
Jodhpur
Question 177Single Answer
The archaeological site Bagor is located in which district of Rajasthan?
A
Bikaner
B
Bhilwara
C
Udaipur
D
Chittorgarh
Question 178Single Answer
The excavation at Kalibangan revealed remains of which ancient civilization?
A
Mesopotamian
B
Egyptian
C
Roman
D
Harappan
Question 179Single Answer
The evidence of early agriculture in Rajasthan has been found at:
A
Bagor
B
Ganeshwar
C
Tilwara
D
Chirwa
Question 180Single Answer
Kalibangan is situated on the bank of which river?
A
Ghaggar
B
Luni
C
Yamuna
D
Chambal
Question 181Single Answer
Which constitutional article provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
A
Article 330
B
Article 332
C
Article 334
D
Article 335
Question 182Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the Rajasthan Mukhya Mantri Anuprati Coaching Yojana?
A
Provide financial assistance for higher education
B
Promote women’s entrepreneurship
C
Ensure employment for disabled persons
D
Offer free coaching to SC/ST/OBC students for competitive exams
Question 183Single Answer
Which scheme in Rajasthan provides financial assistance to SC/ST/BPL students for pursuing professional courses?
A
Mukhya Mantri Sarvjan Pension Yojana
B
Mukhya Mantri Anuprati Yojana
C
Rajasthan Scholarship Scheme
D
Palanhar Yojana
Question 184Single Answer
Under which article does the Indian Constitution mandate the promotion of educational and economic interests of weaker sections?
A
Article 15
B
Article 21
C
Article 46
D
Article 38
Question 185Single Answer
What is a key challenge in implementing social justice schemes for weaker sections in Rajasthan?
A
Lack of awareness among beneficiaries
B
Excessive funding
C
Over-regulated labor market
D
Universal coverage mandates
Question 186Single Answer
Which of the following is a core principle of India’s welfare state model as per the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)?
A
Promotion of laissez-faire economy
B
Social, economic, and political justice
C
Privatization of public sector enterprises
D
Minimal state intervention in welfare schemes
Question 187Single Answer
The concept of a welfare state in India is primarily derived from which part of the Constitution?
A
Fundamental Rights
B
Fundamental Duties
C
Directive Principles of State Policy
D
Preamble
Question 188Single Answer
Which article of the Indian Constitution mandates the state to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare?
A
Article 41
B
Article 39
C
Article 38
D
Article 42
Question 189Single Answer
Under Article 39 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT a directive for the state?
A
Equal distribution of material resources
B
Prevention of concentration of wealth
C
Right to adequate means of livelihood
D
Establishment of a uniform civil code
Question 190Single Answer
The National Food Security Act, 2013, is an example of a welfare policy aimed at achieving which objective?
A
Right to food security
B
Universal healthcare
C
Free education for all
D
Employment generation
Question 191Single Answer
Which of the following schemes is NOT directly associated with India’s welfare state framework?
A
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
B
Goods and Services Tax (GST)
C
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
D
Ayushman Bharat Yojana
Question 192Single Answer
The concept of ‘welfare state’ in India is often criticized for which of the following reasons?
A
Inadequate funding and implementation gaps
B
Over-reliance on market-driven policies
C
Absence of constitutional provisions
D
Excessive decentralization of powers
Question 193Single Answer
Which Five-Year Plan emphasized the need for a welfare state through social justice and poverty alleviation?
A
First Five-Year Plan
B
Eleventh Five-Year Plan
C
Seventh Five-Year Plan
D
Fifth Five-Year Plan
Question 194Single Answer
The Mid-Day Meal Scheme is an example of a welfare policy aimed at addressing which of the following?
A
Financial inclusion
B
Rural employment
C
Women empowerment
D
Malnutrition and school attendance
Question 195Single Answer
Which of the following is a key feature of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)?
A
Affordable housing for all by 2022
B
Providing free healthcare to urban poor
C
Subsidized loans for agricultural development
D
Skill development for unemployed youth
Question 196Single Answer
Which dimension is NOT included in the Human Development Index (HDI) calculation?
A
Life expectancy
B
Education
C
Employment rate
D
Per capita income
Question 197Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the Human Development Index (HDI) in Rajasthan’s policy framework?
A
Assess overall human well-being
B
Measure economic growth
C
Track industrial output
D
Evaluate agricultural productivity
Question 198Single Answer
Which organization publishes the global Human Development Report, influencing Rajasthan’s HDI policies?
A
World Bank
B
International Monetary Fund
C
United Nations Development Programme
D
World Health Organization
Question 199Single Answer
How is the education component of HDI calculated for Rajasthan?
A
Educational expenditure per capita
B
Literacy rate and enrollment ratio
C
Number of schools and teacher-student ratio
D
Mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling
Question 200Single Answer
What is a key challenge in improving Rajasthan’s HDI ranking?
A
Excessive industrial growth
B
Regional disparities in education and health
C
Overpopulation in urban areas
D
High foreign investment
Question 201Single Answer
Which Rajasthan district typically ranks highest in HDI due to better education and health indicators?
A
Jaisalmer
B
Barmer
C
Kota
D
Bikaner
Question 202Single Answer
How does Rajasthan’s HDI compare to the national average?
A
Consistently higher
B
Fluctuates significantly
C
Equal to the national average
D
Generally lower
Question 203Single Answer
Which factor most significantly impacts Rajasthan’s HDI in rural areas?
A
Limited access to healthcare
B
High literacy rates
C
Excessive industrial investment
D
Urban migration
Question 204Single Answer
What is the role of the Gender Development Index (GDI) in Rajasthan’s HDI framework?
A
Measures income inequality
B
Evaluates agricultural productivity
C
Tracks employment trends
D
Assesses gender disparities in HDI components
Question 205Single Answer
Which Rajasthan scheme indirectly improves HDI through education for girls?
A
Mukhya Mantri Rajshree Yojana
B
Mukhya Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
C
Palanhar Yojana
D
Indira Mahila Shakti Nidhi
Question 206Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the nature of the Indian State as per the Preamble of the Constitution?