In the Constitution of India, the principle of rule of law is mainly embodied in
A
Article 14
B
Article 32
C
Article 226
D
Article 227
Question 2Single Answer
In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary .
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II, III and IV
B
II, III, IV and V
C
I, III, IV and V
D
I, II, III and V
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, III, IV and V
B
II, III and IV
C
I, II, III and V
D
I, II and IV
Question 4Single Answer
Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest .
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
A
Only II
B
Either I or II
C
Only III
D
Only V
Question 5Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statement I and statement II are correct
B
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 6Single Answer
Consider the following statements .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I and III
B
II and IV
C
I, III and V
D
Only V
Question 7Single Answer
Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest) .
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
A
III, V, II, IV
B
IV, II, I, III
C
II, IV, I, III
D
V, IV, I, II
Question 8Single Answer
When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries the person who she subsequently marries, shall be the
A
adoptive father of the child
B
stepfather of the child
C
natural father of the child
D
Either 1 or 2
Question 9Single Answer
Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the Schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest) .
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Only III
D
Only IV
Question 10Single Answer
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider .
A
True
B
False
C
Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 11Single Answer
'General principles of law' recognised by civilised states as a source of international law has been applied in following case .
A
Corfu Channel Case
B
Asylum Case
C
Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
D
Reparations Case
Question 12Single Answer
Match List I with List II .
List – I List – II
(a) Theory of Justice (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
C
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Question 13Single Answer
.......... has to provide by making regulations for any class of class of companies which may file a shelf-prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities .
A
NCLT
B
SEBI
C
IBBI
D
Director of a company
Question 14Single Answer
The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I and II
B
I, II and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
II and V
Question 15Single Answer
Restitution of conjugal rights has its genesis under the
A
English law
B
Indian law
C
Jewish law
D
Swedish law
Question 16Single Answer
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 17Single Answer
The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to
A
Defamation
B
Decency and Morality
C
Integrity of India
D
Negligence
Question 18Single Answer
Consider the following statements .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II and III
B
I, III and IV
C
II, III and IV
D
III, IV and V
Question 19Single Answer
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 20Single Answer
Which of the following doctrines is called as 'Doctrine of Non-regonition' ?
A
Estrada Doctrine
B
Hallestein Doctrine
C
Franco Doctrine
D
Stimson Doctrine
Question 21Single Answer
Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall require it to be taken at a meeting .
A
by a majority of not less than two-third of the weighted votes of the members present
B
by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present
C
by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of all the mebers of the council
D
by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of all the members of the council
Question 22Single Answer
Match List – I with List II
List I List – II
(a) Mersey Docke v/s proctor I. statutory Authority
(b) Metropolitan Asylum District v/s Hill II. Vicarious Liability
(c) Nichols v/s Marsland III. Invevitable Accident
(d) Holmes v/s Mather IV. Act of God
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B
(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 23Single Answer
The doctrine, res-ipsa loquitur was applied by the Supreme court in
A
Alka v/s Union of India
B
Asa Ram v/s Municipal Corporation of Delhi
C
Municipal Corporation of Delhi V/s Subhagwanti
D
Jasbir kaur V/s State of Punjab
Question 24Single Answer
The Institution of Ombudsman was first developed in
A
India
B
UK
C
France
D
Sweden
Question 25Single Answer
Trade secrets do not cover the following information .
A
commercially valuable
B
production methods
C
business plans
D
information discovered by reverse engineering
Question 26Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Post-modernism I. Grund norm
(b) Source of Law II. Ratio decidendi
(c) Authority of a decision as a precedent III. Critical legal studies
(d) Analytical school IV. Volkgeist
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 27Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid I. 354-A, IPC
(b) Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid II. 326-B IPC
(c) Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment III. 354-D IPC
(d) Stalking IV. 326-A, IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
B
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
C
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Question 28Single Answer
Ordinarly, a delegated legislation can be given
A
prospective effect only
B
retrospective effect only
C
Both propsective and retrospective effect
D
effect as the court may decide
Question 29Single Answer
Read the following principles of the Rio-Declaration on Environment and Devleopment (1992) and select the correct answer from the given options .
I. Principle 1 – Human beings are at the centre of concern for sustainable development
II. Principle 16 – In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities
III. Principle 14 – Environmental impact assessment shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are liekly to have a significant adverse impact on the environment
IV. Principle 20 – Women have a vital role in environmental management and development
V. Principle 24 – Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I and IV
B
II and III
C
III and V
D
II and V
Question 30Single Answer
Among the Muslims, Sariri is the stage
A
When the boy or the girl is below 10 years of age
B
When the boy or the girl is above seven years but below fifteen years
C
When the boy or the girl is above fifteen years of age
D
when the boy of the girl is above 10 years of age
Question 31Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(Provision) (Section)
(a) Void marriage I. Section 27, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b) Divorce by mutual consent II. Section 24, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(c) Maintenance pendente lite III. Section 13 B, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(d) Disposal of property IV. Section 11, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
B
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Question 32Single Answer
A car was sold on 'as is' basis and without any warranty or guarantee whetever. After 5 days of the contract, the engine of the car blew up. Discuss the liability of the seller .
A
He is liable for the damages due to the doctrine of fundamental breach of standard from of contract
B
The seller is not liable because the car was sold on 'as is' basis and without any warranty of gurantee
C
The buyer should take care if he buys a second-hand car
D
Under standard from contract, in this case, contributory negligence is applicable
Question 33Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Doctrine of Pith and Substance I. What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly
(b) Doctrine of Indcidental Encroachment II. The part of statute which is bad cannot be severed from the rest
(c) Doctrine of Severability III. A law is not invalid even though trenched incidentally to another list
(d) Doctrine of colourable Legislation IV. True nature and character of the legislation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B
(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 34Single Answer
Who defined ownership as 'plenary control over an object' ?
A
Roscoe Pound
B
Holmes
C
Holland
D
Paton
Question 35Single Answer
Under which article of the constitution of India, it is the duty of the union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every state is carried on, in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India ?
A
Article 353
B
Article 354
C
Article 355
D
Article 356
Question 36Single Answer
Who said, "A legal person, is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality" ?
A
Salmond
B
Holmes
C
Jerome Frank
D
Pound
Question 37Single Answer
Who said that there are two elements of possession, (a) Corpus possessionis and (b) animus domini ?
A
Ihering
B
Paton
C
Savigny
D
Salmond
Question 38Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect ?
A
An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be voidable
B
An agreement enforeable by law is a contract
C
Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other is an agreement
D
An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void
Question 39Single Answer
The National green Tribunal Act, 2010 came into force on
A
10th May, 2010
B
18th August, 2010
C
10th December, 2010
D
18th October, 2010
Question 40Single Answer
The Competition Act, 2002, provides for which of the following ?
I. Establishment of a commission to prevent practices having effect on competition
II. To promote and sustain competition in markets
III. To protect the interests of consumers
IV. To ensure freedom of trade carried on by the other participants in the markets
V. To establish NCLT and NCLAT to decide various matters
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II, III, IV and V
B
II, III and IV
C
III, IV and V
D
I, II, III and IV
Question 41Single Answer
Arrange in chronological order the case laws pertaining to cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (year wise from beginning till the latest) .
I. Durga Prasanna Tripathy v/s Arundhati Tripathy
II. Bhagwat v/s Bhagwat
III. Parveen Mehtra v/s Inderjeet mehta
IV. Swapan Kumar Das v/s Maya Rani Dutta
V. Satendra Kumar Gupta v/s Kanchan Gupta and Others
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
II, III, I, IV, V
B
I, III, II, IV, V
C
III, IV, I, II, V
D
IV, III, II, I, V
Question 42Single Answer
National Commission for Backward Classes has been created through which Amendement to the constitution of India ?
A
100th Amendment
B
101st Amendment
C
102nd Amendment
D
103rd Amendment
Question 43Single Answer
Consider the following statements .
I. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse is covered in Article 301
II. Restrictions on legislative powers of the union and states with regard to trade and commerce are covered in Article 302
III. Power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse is covered in Article 302
IV. Restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse among states are covered in Article 304
V. Appointment of authority for carrying out the purposes of Article 301-304 is enshrined in Article 306
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II and III
B
II, III and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
II, IV and V
Question 44Single Answer
Every state and every local authority within the state is required to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to liguistic minority groups under .
A
Article 350
B
Article 350 A
C
Article 350 B
D
Article 351
Question 45Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I "All human beings are not loegal persons"
Statement II " State is a juristic person"
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statements I and II are correct
B
Both statements I and II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following is false ?
A
A contract is frustrated where the actual and specific subject matter of the contract has ceased to exist
B
A contract will frustrate where circumstances arise which make the performance of the contract impossible in the manner contemplated
C
A contract which required personal performance by promisor is frustrated on the death of the promisor
D
Ceasing of subject matter of contract does not frustrate the contract
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following is/are not administrative actions ?
A
Internment, Externment and Deportation
B
Functions of Selection Committee
C
Fact-finding Action
D
Forming Optinion on Objective Satisfaction
Question 48Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgement, final order of sentence in a criminal proceedng of a high Court in the territory of India, if the High Court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death
Statement II : An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgement final order or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India, if the High Court has withdrawn from trial before itself any case from any court subordinate to its authority and has in such a trial convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death
In light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statements I and II are correct
B
Both statements I and II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 49Single Answer
Pacta Terties Nec Noecent Nec Prosunt Means
A
Multilaeral treatties prevail over bilateral treaties
B
Treaties are no binding in case of situations of emergency
C
Only parties to an international treaty are bound by it
D
The right of innocent passage cannot be thwarted by bilateral treaties
Question 50Single Answer
Greenhouse effect means increase in atmospheric temperature due to the concentration of greenhouse
A
gases in the atmosphere
B
growing vegetables and flowers in increased temperature
C
growing food crops in glass houses
D
photosynthesis in plants grown in sunlight received in the glass house
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Law
Question 51Single Answer
Which one of the following is correct ?
A
A public company can be formed with a minimum of nine persons
B
A private company can be formed with two or more persons
C
Memorandum of association is not required or registration of a company
D
Articles of Association is not required for registration of a company
Question 52Single Answer
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : The ex post-facto laws are law which voided and punished an act that had been lawful when done
Reason (R) : Imposing or increasing a penalty with retrospective effect for violation of a taxing statute does not infringe Article 20(1)
In light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 53Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Bonn convention I. Protection of the ozone layer
(b) Vienna Convention II. Control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal
(c) Basel convention III. Conservation of migratory species of wild animals
(d) Rotterdam Convention IV. Prior informed consent procedure for certain hazarduous chemicals and pesticides in international trade
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Question 54Single Answer
Arranges the following in chronological order starting from earlier to later years .
I. The Trade Marks Act
II. The Petents Act
III. The Design Act
IV. The Copyright Act
V. The Protection of Plat Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II, III, IV, V
B
II, IV, I, V, III
C
IV, II, I, III, V
D
I, II, III, V, IV
Question 55Single Answer
'Voluntarily' has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means at the time of employing those means, to know or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it under
A
Section 35, IPC
B
Section 36, IPC
C
Section 39, IPC
D
Section 40, IPC
Question 56Single Answer
The law relating to armed conflicts of non-international character is governed by
A
Common Article 3 of the Geneva Convention, 1949, or The Additional Protocol I, 1977
B
Common Article 3 of the Geneva Convention, 1949 or the Additional Protocol II, 1977
C
Additional Protocols I and II, 1977
D
Only Additional Protocol I, 1977
Question 57Single Answer
Select the right answer from the given options .
I. COP 26 – Glasgow Climate Change Conference
II. COP 25 – Lima Climate Change Conference
III. COP 24 – Marrakesh Climate Change Conference
IV. COP 22 – Katowice Climate Change Conference
V. COP 21 – Paris Climate Change Conference
Choose the correct answer from the options gien below .
A
I and V
B
II and III
C
II and IV
D
III and IV
Question 58Single Answer
Who amongst the following can be appointed as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights commission (NHRC) ?
A
Only a person who has been the chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B
A person who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a Judge of the Supreme Court
C
A person who has been the Chief Justice of a High Court
D
A person who has been a Judge of the High court
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following can be registered as a trade mark ?
A
Mark devoid of distinctive character
B
A distinctive mark
C
A mark causing confusion
D
Oval shape of medicinal tablet
Question 60Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Solomon v/s Solomon I. Voting rights
(b) Royal Britisih Bank v/s Turquand II. Corporate personality
(c) Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron v/s Riche (Ashbury) III. Doctrine of Ultra Vires
(d) Vodafone International Holdings v/s UOI IV. Doctrine of Indoor management
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
D
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following is not correct under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 ?
A
Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the persons who produces the goods
B
Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the person who packages such goods
C
Producer, in case of natural goods, includes the person who exploits such goods
D
Producer in case of handicrafts, includes the person who packages such goods
Question 62Single Answer
Match List – I with List II
List I List – II
(a) Application of the act to electronic cheque and truncated cheque I. Section 3A
(b) Electron signature II. Section 81 A
(c) Secure electronic record III. Section 15
(d) Validity of contracts formed through electronic means IV. Section 10A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B
(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 63Single Answer
The test of reasonable foresight in determining remoteness of damages was first applied in
A
Re: Polemis
B
wagon Mound Case
C
Doughty v/s Turner manufacturing Co Ltd
D
SCM (United Kingdowm) Ltd v/s WJ whittal and sons
Question 64Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statements I Hart deals with primary rules of obligtion and secondary rules of recognition
Statements II Hart has nothing to do with the reformulation of analytical positivism
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statement I and statement II are correct
B
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 65Single Answer
Every partner of a partnership firm is liable for all the acts of the firm done while he is a partner. This doctrine is called
A
the doctrince of holding out
B
the doctrine of restitution
C
the doctrine of estoppel
D
the doctrine of proportionality
Question 66Single Answer
Nottebohm's case deals with nationality by
A
naturalisation
B
birth
C
resumption
D
subjugation
Question 67Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Every public company shall have at least three directors and every private company shall have at least two directors
Statement II : There can be a maximum of 15 directors and for having more than 15 directors, the company may pass a special resolution
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statement I and statement II are correct
B
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 68Single Answer
Give below are two statements .
Statement I : A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable
Statement II : An agreement in restraint of trade is voidable
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both statement I and statement II are true
B
Both statement I and statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but statement II is false
D
Statement I is false, but statement II is true
Question 69Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Personal rights are inheritable
Statement II : Legal rights are recognised and enforced by law
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statement I and statement II are correct
B
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 70Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Judicial review I. Indira Gandhi v/s Raj Narayan
(b) Free and fair election II. Keshavananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala
(c) Balance between part III and Part IV of the Constitution III. SR Bommai v/s Union of India
(d) Secularism IV. Minerva Mills Ltd v/s Union of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
B
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
D
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Question 71Single Answer
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R .
Assertion (A) : The President of India is a mere constitutional head
Reason (R) : In the parliamentary form of government, the Prime Minister is the head of government
In light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following is not a ground of divorce available to wife under section 13(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
A
Pre-Act Bigamaous marriage of the husband
B
Repudiation of marriage
C
Cruelty by husband
D
Husband guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality
Question 73Single Answer
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A master is liable for all tortious acts of his servants done in the course of employment
Reason (R) : The representatives of the dead person are in certain cases liable for the acts of the deceased
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is false, but (R) is true
D
(A) is true, but (R) is false
Question 74Single Answer
In which one of the following cases, legal aid was held as a Fundamental Right ?
A
Sunil Batra case
B
MH Hoskot case
C
Prem Shankar Shukla case
D
Kesavananda Bharati case
Question 75Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all deicisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislations.
Statement II : It is the duty of the Prime Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals or legislation as the President may call for.
In light of the above statements, chose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both statement I and statement II are true
B
Both statement I and statement II are false
C
Statement I is true, but statment II is false
D
Statement I is false, but statement II is true
Question 76Single Answer
Which one of the following is not one of the modes of termination of agency ?
A
Insolvency of principal
B
Principal or Agent's death
C
General Lien
D
Revocation
Question 77Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : A childless stepmother is entitled a claim maintenance under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
Statement II : Under the Hindu Adoption and maintenance Act 1956, if the son is to be adopted, the adoptive father or mother should not have a Hindu son, son's son or son's son's son (whether by legitimate blood relationship or by adoption) living at the time of adoption
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statement I and statement II are correct
B
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statment II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 78Single Answer
The word 'Environment' has been defined under which of the section of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?
A
Section 2(a)
B
Section 2(e)
C
Section 2(d)
D
Section 2(b)
Question 79Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Holland defines ownership as plenary control over an object
Statement II : Ownership is either vested or contingent
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below .
A
Both statement I and statement II are correct
B
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statment II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 80Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Imperative law means 'a concept of the rule of action imposed upon men by some authority which enforece obedience to it'
Statement II : Natural law signifies the principles of natural right and wrong
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both statement I and II are correct
B
Both statement I and II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statment II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 81Single Answer
Under Article 338 (5) of the Constitution of India, National Commission for Scheduled Castes has
A
the power to issue caste certificates
B
the power to revoke caste certificates
C
the power to decide validity of caste certificates
D
no power to issue/revoke certificates and has no power to decide upon the validity of caste certificates
Question 82Single Answer
In order to establish a cartel, what is not necessary ?
A
There should be an agreement
B
It should be between an association of producers, sellers, distributors, traders or service providers
C
The objective should be to limit, control or attempt to control the product distribution, sale or price of or trade in goods or provisions of services
D
Cartels are very good for competition
Question 83Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : For judicial review, "irrationality' means that the decision is so outrageous in its defiance of logic or accepted moral standards, that no sensible person could have arrived at such a decision
Statement II : For Judicial review, 'unreasonableness' means either the facts do not warrant the conclusion reached by the authority or the decision is partial and unequal in its operations
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statement I and II are correct
B
Both statement I and II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statment II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 84Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : A becomes surety to C for B's conduct as a manager in C's bank. Afterwards, B and C contract, without A's consent that B's salary shall be raised and that he shall becomes liable or one-fourth of the losses.
On overdrafts. B allows a customer to overdraw and the bank loses a sum of money
Statement II : A is liable a make good the losss as he is a surety a C for B's conduct
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both statement I and II are correct
B
Both statement I and II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statment II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 85Single Answer
The children born out a void Hindu marriage, are in the eyes of law
A
illegitimate
B
legitimate
C
illegitimate, having no rights in the ancestral property
D
legitimate but having right of inheritance limited to their parent's property only
Question 86Single Answer
In the light of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, which of the following statements is correct ?
A
The word 'rape' in section 375 IPC has been replaced with 'sexual assault'
B
Rape is now a gender-neutral offence
C
The Amendment has fixed the age for consensual sex as 16 years
D
The Amendment has fixed the age for consensual sex as 18 years
Question 87Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : A 'negotiable instrument' means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer
Statement II : Holder means any person who for consideration became the possessor of a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque, if payable to beareer or the payeee or endorsee
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both statement I and II are correct
B
Both statement I and II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statment II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 88Single Answer
Article 13 of the Consitution of India does not apply to
A
any legislation made by the Parliament under Article 245 of the Consitution
B
any legislation made by the Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution giving effect to international agreements
C
Any amendement of the Consitution made under Article 368
D
Custom and usage
Question 89Single Answer
"Every man has a property in his own person, he has right to preserve his property, that is, his wife, liberty and estate" ......... is said by
A
Bentham
B
Henry Main
C
Locke
D
Laski
Question 90Single Answer
Under Muslim law, divorce by common consent is known as
I. Taleq-e-Tafwid
II. Khula
III. Lian
IV. Mubarat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Only I, II and IV
B
Only II and IV
C
Only III and IV
D
Only I and II
Question 91Single Answer
Amendment in the American Constitution may be proposed by
I. congress with a two-third majority in both the Houses or Representatives and the Senate
II. Congress with a ¾ majority in both the Houses of Representatives and the Senate
III. Constitutional convention called by two-third of State legislatures
IV. Constitutional convenstion called by three-fourh of State legislatures
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
A
Only I and III
B
Only II and III
C
Only II and IV
D
Only I and IV
Question 92Single Answer
Which one of the following Geneva conventions has the provisions on, "The protection of the victims of maritime warfare" ?
A
The Second Geneva Convention, 1949
B
The Third Geneva Convention, 1949
C
The fourth Geneva Convention, 1949
D
The First Geneva Convention, 1949
Question 93Single Answer
Which one of the following is related to Amendment of the U.S. Constitution ?
A
Article III
B
Article IV
C
Article V
D
Article VI
Question 94Single Answer
The National Commission for women shall perform some of the following functions
I. Shall fund litigations involving issues affecting a large body of women
II. Shall provide, financial assistance to all those who are self-employed
III. Shall call for specific studies or investigation in to specific problems
IV. Shall impose punishment to those found involved in discrimination of women
V. Shall investigate and examine all matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the Constitution and other laws
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, III and V
B
II, IV and V
C
I, II and IV
D
V, I and II
Question 95Single Answer
Chronologically arrange (Article wise) the following provisions of the Constitution of India .
I. Special provisions with respect to the state of Sikkim
II. Special provision with respect to the state of karnataka
III. Special provisions with respect to the state of Manipur
IV. Special provisions with respect to the state of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
III, IV, I, II
B
IV, III, II, I
C
IV, III, I, II
D
III, IV, II, I
Question 96Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I (Books) List – II (Jurists)
(a) The Growth of the Law I. H. Cairns
(b) The Theory of Legal Science II. Cardozo
(c) An introduction to the Principles of Morals and Legislation III. John Rawls
(d) The Law of Peoples IV. Jeremy Bentham
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B
(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 97Single Answer
The distinctive features of 'Rioting' are an activity, which is accompainied by
A
Use of force and violence
B
Causing Alarm
C
Violence for a common purpose
D
Use of abusive language
Question 98Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct ?
I. Global justice inquires about what justice among human beings consists in
II. Global justice inquiries take individual human beings as of primary concern and seek to give an account of what fairness among such agents involves
III. In the domain of global justice, theorists seek primarily to define justice between states or nations
IV. In international justice the nation or state is taken as the central entity of concern and justice among nations or states is the focus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II and III
B
I, II and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
II, III and IV
Question 99Single Answer
Section 53 of Consumer Protection Act of 2019, provides for establishment of national Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission. It is to be known as
A
National Commission
B
National Council
C
National Dispute Redressal Commission
D
National Dispute Redressal Council
Question 100Single Answer
Nothing in TRIPS agreement, 1955 shall derogate from the existing obligations prescribed under
I. Paris Convention, 1967
II. Rome Convention, 1961
III. Berne Convention, 1971
IV. Biodiversity Convention, 1992
V. Integrated Circuit Treaty, 1989
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II, III, IV
B
II, III, IV, V
C
I, II, III, V
D
V, IV, III, I
Question 101Single Answer
The term private key refers to
A
Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber
B
Electronic signature certificate issued under Section 35
C
Key pair in an asymmetric crypto system
D
Key of key pair used to create a digital signature
Question 102Single Answer
'Stalking' (Following a women despite her disinterest, spying, etc) is an offence under
A
Section 354 (1) (ii) IPC
B
Section 354 B IPC
C
Section 354 A (1) (iii)
D
Section 354 D IPC
Question 103Single Answer
State Emergency or President Rule under Article 356 can be imposed in a State by the President for a maximum period of
A
3 years extendable by 1 year
B
2 years
C
6 months
D
1 year
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following groups of Jurists who consider the law as a command of sovereignty enforeced by a superior political authority and accordingly subscribe the the view that International Law is not law as 'properly so called ?
A
Starke, Salmond, Holland
B
Hart, Starke, Oppenheim
C
Holland, Oppenheim, Hart
D
Hobbes, Pufendorf, Austin
Question 105Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : No person except the father or mother of a child shall have the capacity to give the child in adoption under the Hindu Adoptions and maintenance Act 1956
Statement II : Under the Hindu Adoptions and maintenance Act 1956, the same child may no be adopted simultaneously by two or more person. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both statement I and statement II are correct
B
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statment II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 106Single Answer
Arrange the following in chronological order .
I. United Nations Conference on the Human Environment
II. United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
III. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
IV. World Commission on Environment and Development
V. United Nations Sustainable Development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II, III, IV, V
B
II, I, IV, III, V
C
I, IV, III, II, V
D
V, IV, II, III, I
Question 107Single Answer
'Cyber security' is defined under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000 ?
A
Section 2 (ua)
B
Section 2 (za)
C
Section 2 (nb)
D
Section 2 (tb)
Question 108Single Answer
The main purpose of corporation sole is
A
To protect the property of the Government
B
To make the property easily transferable
C
To make the property easily inheritable
D
To make continuity of an office
Question 109Single Answer
Which among the following is the most serious offence, and thus severely punishable ?
A
Unlawful Assembly
B
Rioting
C
Affray
D
Assault
Question 110Single Answer
Removal of members of Company Law Appellate Tribunal can be carried out in consultation by
I. Central Government
II. Chief Justice
III. Chairperson of Appellate tribunal
IV. Auditor General
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Only I and II
B
I, II and III
C
Only III and II
D
I, II, III and IV
Question 111Single Answer
Consumer, mediation Cell has to hold which of the following documnets ?
I. List of empanelled mediators
II. List of all cases handled by the cell
II. Records of all proceedings
IV. Information specified by regulations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Only I and II
B
Only II and IV
C
Only III and IV
D
I, II, III and IV
Question 112Single Answer
The geographical indications are distinctive signs or indications which identify any goods as
I. Act of unfair competition under Paris Convention, 1967
II. Originating in a specified territory
III. Stipulate the misleading test guranteeing a negative right
IV. Specific quality, reputation and characterstics
V. Essentially attributable to origin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II and III
B
III, IV and V
C
I, IV and II
D
II, IV and V
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?
I. When a State is defeated or conqureed, all the citizens acquire the Nationality of the conquering State. This is called 'cession' mode of gain of nationality
II. When a person gets Nationality of a State in place of the Nationality of another State. This is called 'substitution' mode of loss of nationality
III. The Public Trustee case is related to statelessness
IV. The General Assembly decided to convene a conference to conclude, a convention on reduction of statelessness in 1961
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Only II and III
B
I, II and III
C
I, III and IV
D
I, II, III and IV
Question 114Single Answer
Who among the following can remove the name of company from Register of Companies on suo moto basis in terms of section 248(1) of Companies Act, 2013 ?
A
Registrat of Companies
B
Securities and Exchange Board of India
C
National Company law Tribunal
D
Ministry of Coporate Affair
Question 115Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(Definitions of) (Provisions under Information Technology Act, 2000)
(a) Computer I. Section 2 (g)
(b) Computer Network II. Section 2 (k)
(c) Certifying Authority III. Section 2(j)
(d) Conmputer Resource IV. Section 2 (i)
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following is not correct in relation to rights in its various forms and its correlatives ?
A
Right (Strict sense) − Duty
B
Liberty − No right
C
Power − Liberty
D
Immunity − Disability
Question 117Single Answer
Arragne in chronological order the following judgements on cruelty as a ground of divorce
I. A. Jaya Chandra Vs. Aneel Kaur
II. Naveen Kohli Vs. Neelu Kohli
III. Dastane Vs. Dastane
IV. Bhagat Vs. Bhagat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
III, II, IV, I
B
I, III, II, IV
C
III, IV, I, II
D
IV, III, I, II
Question 118Single Answer
Endorsement of Negotiable instrument followed by delivery
I. Transfers the property in instrument to endorsee
II. Transfers the right of further negotiation to the endorsee
III. May exclude or restrict the right of further negotiation by endorsee
IV. May merely constitute the endorsee as an agent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below ;
A
Only I and II
B
Only III and IV
C
Only I, II, III
D
I, II, III and IV
Question 119Single Answer
Originally under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce was based on
A
Consent Theory
B
Breakdown Theory
C
Fault Theory
D
Will Theory
Question 120Single Answer
Under the special powers of Rajya Sabha, which of the following resolutions can originate only in Rajya Sabha ?
I. Resolution seeking removal of vice-President
II. Any resolution seeking creation of one or more all India service
III. Any resolution seeking legislation on state sbuject
IV. Introduction of money bills
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Only I and II
B
Only I and III
C
Only IV and II
D
Only I, II, III
Question 121Single Answer
Prof. william Fisher identified four analytical constructs of theories of intellectual property under which of the following sequence ?
I. Personality Theory
II. Labour Theory
III. Social Planning Theory
IV. Utilatarian Theory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
II, I, IV, III
B
III, II, I, IV
C
IV, II, I, III
D
I, IV, III, II
Question 122Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Negligence I. Ryland Vs. Fletcher
(b) Strict Liability II. M. C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
(c) Absolute Liability III. Glasgow Corporation Vs. Muir
(d) Nervous Shock IV. Bourhill Vs. Young
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(II), (I), (III), (IV)
B
(I), (III), (IV), (II)
C
(III), (I), (II), (IV)
D
(III), (II), (I), (IV)
Question 123Single Answer
Which of the following statement/statements are correct ?
I. 'Theft' is defined under section 378 of IPC, as the dishonest removal of movable property out of the possession of any person without his consent
II. In the offence of extortion punishment is upto 3 years under Section 384 of IPC
III. The offence of 'Robbery' is defined under Section 391 of IPC
IV. Dacoity is Robbery committed by five or more persons
V. The punsihment for 'Decoity' is prescribed under Section 392 of IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II, III, IV Only
B
I, II, IV Only
C
IV, V only
D
I, II only
Question 124Single Answer
Which of the following statment/statements is/are correct ?
I. The offence of abetment is defined under Section 107 of IPC
II. The essential ingredient of 'the offence of conspiracy is the agreement to commit an offence'
III. The punishment of criminal conspiracy is given under Section 120 of IPC
IV. State of Tamil Nadu through Superintendent of Police, CBI/SIT Vs. Nalini is a case related to offence of Abetment
V. abetment in India of offences committed outside of India is punishable under Section 108A of IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II, III, IV and V
B
II, IV, V only
C
I, II, V only
D
II, III only
Question 125Single Answer
Arrange the correct sequence in which the liability for tort will arise for the following :
I. Damages
II. Breach of duty
IIi. Duty to take care
IV. Causation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II, III, IV
B
II, III, I, IV
C
III, II, IV, I
D
III, I, II, IV
Question 126Single Answer
Which of the following judgement do not deal with the matter of Live –in relationship ?
A
Indra Sharma Vs. K.V. Sarma
B
Sharda Vs. Dharmpal
C
S. Khushboo Vs. Kannimmal
D
Chanmuniya Vs. Chanmuniya Kumar Singh
Question 127Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(Conference of WTO) (Places where held)
(a) Third Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at I. Hong Kong (China)
(b) Sixth Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at II. Seattle (USA)
(c) Fourth Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at III. Geneva (Switzerland)
(d) Seventh Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at IV. Doha (Qatar)
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(I), (II), (III), (IV)
B
(II), (I), (IV), (III)
C
(II), (IV), (I), (III)
D
(IV), (III), (II), (I)
Question 128Single Answer
In a contract of Guarantee under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 there are
A
Two parties and two contracts
B
Three parties and three contracts
C
Three parties and one contract
D
Two parties and one contract
Question 129Single Answer
The Preamble to both Environment (Protection) Act and Air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act were passed to implemetn the decision reached in one of the following .
A
San Francisco Conference, 1945
B
United Nations Conference on Environment and Development, 1992
C
United Nations Conference on the human Environment, 1972
D
Untied Nations conference on Environment, 1982
Question 130Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Article V I. Presidential Election, 7th November, 2012
(b) Article III II. Congress on the eve of Presential Election
(c) Chapter V III. The Judicial Power in American Supreme Court
(d) Chapter IV IV. Amendment of the Constitution
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(I), (III), (IV), (III)
B
(III), (I), (IV), (II)
C
(IV), (III), (II), (I)
D
(II), (IV), (III), (I)
Question 131Single Answer
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed "There is a thin line between the preparation for and an attempt to commit an offence" ?
A
State of Mahrashra Vs. Mohd. Yakul
B
Abhayanand Mishra Vs. State of Bihar
C
Malkiat Singh Vs. State of Punjab
D
Om Prakesh Vs. State of Punjab
Question 132Single Answer
'Digital signature' is defined under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000 ?
A
Section 2(p)
B
Section 2 (q)
C
Section 2 (r)
D
Section 2 (tb)
Question 133Single Answer
'Computer network' means the inter-connection of one or more computers of computer systems or communication devices through
I. The use of satellite, microwave, terrestrial line, wire, wireless or other communication media
II. A device or collection of devices including input and output support devices
III. Any electronic, magnetic, optical and other high speed data processing device
IV. All input, out, processing, storage, computer software or communication facilities
V. Terminal or a complex consisting of two or more interconnected computers or communication device
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Only II and III
B
Only IV and III
C
Only V and II
D
Only I and V
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct ?
I. In Canada, the federation was not a voluntary union but was imposed by an Act
II. In India, the Act of 1935 created autonomous units and forged them into a federation
III. The American Union was formed by Voluntary agreement among a number of sovereign states
IV. Indian constitution has been framed by the States and not by the people of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II and III
B
I, II and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
II, III and IV
Question 135Single Answer
Mental condition of a wrongdoer at the time of wrong doing is
A
Relevant in all torts
B
Relevant in torts based on fault
C
Relevant in tort based on strict liability
D
Not relevant at all
Question 136Single Answer
Arrange the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 in chronological order (Section wise)
I. Who are competent to contract
II. Effect of mistakes as to law
III. what agreements are contracts
IV. Agreement in restraint of marriage is void
Choose the correct answer from the otpions given below .
A
III, I, IV, II
B
I, III, II, IV
C
III, I, II, IV
D
I, III, IV, II
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following is not the principal organ of the United Nations ?
A
General Assembly
B
Economic and Social Council
C
International Court of Justice
D
International Human Rights Commission
Question 138Single Answer
Arrange in chronological order the publication of the books on Jurisprudence
I. A practical Treatise of Architectural Jurisprudence by James Elmes
II. The Spirit of Common Law by Roscoe Pound
III. World Poverty and Human Rights by Thomas Pogge
IV. Taking Rights Seriously by Ronald Dworking
V. The Growth of the Law by Benjamin N. Cardozo
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
II, I, III, V, IV
B
V, II, I, III, IV
C
I, II, V, IV, III
D
II, I, V, III, IV
Question 139Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : The right of private defence of body extends to causing of death to the Assailant in case of asault of throwing or administering acid or an attempt to throw or administer acid which may reasonably cause the apprehension that grievous hurt will otherwise by the consequnces of such Act
Reason (R) : This provision was inserted under clause (7) of section 100 IPC by Act 13 of 2013 in view of increasing cases of acid throwing on the girls and women in India
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
D
(A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
Question 140Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) National Human Rights Commission I. Article 338
(b) National Commission for Backward Class II. State to introduce regulatory regime in the National Interest
(c) National Commission for Minorities III. Power to recommend payment of compensation
(d) National Commission for Scheduled Caste IV. Article 338 - B
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(I), (III), (IV), (III)
B
(III), (I), (IV), (II)
C
(IV), (III), (II), (I)
D
(II), (IV), (III), (I)
Question 141Single Answer
Indicate the chronological order of the year of the following cases as decided by the Supreme court :
I. State of T.N. Vs. Balkrishna
II. Mangesh Vs. state of Maharshtra
III. Ram Kumar Vs. State of M.P.
IV. K.M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra
V. Mahesh Chander Vs. State of Delhi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II, III, IV, V
B
V, III, II, IV, I
C
IV, I, II, III, V
D
III, IV, I, II, V
Question 142Single Answer
Section 8(1) of the RTI Act provides how many exemptions fro the disclousure of information ?
A
7
B
8
C
9
D
10
Question 143Single Answer
Indicate the correct chronological order of years the following cases they were decided :
I. Case concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear
II. Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso Vs. Mali)
III. The Caroline case
IV. R.V. Keyn
V. Chorzow factory (Indemnity) case
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II, III, IV, V
B
V, IV, III, II, I
C
III, IV, V, I, II
D
II, III, IV, V, I
Question 144Single Answer
According to Prof. Lon L Fuller
I. Law is the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules
II. The morality of law has two aspects, external and internal
III. External morality is the morality of aspiration, ideas from which it is possible to derive a procedural version of natural law
IV. Internal morality of law is a 'substantive version of natural law'
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Only I and II
B
II, III and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
I, II and III
Question 145Single Answer
"The courts have created new torts by the gradual and sometime almost imperceptible extension of old tort". Who said the given statement ?
A
Professor Good Hart
B
Sir Frederic Pollock
C
Clerk and Lindsell
D
Salmond
Question 146Single Answer
Where the money received from a third party by the firm, in ordinary course of business, is misapplied by one of the partners to his own use, then :
A
Defaulting partner alone is liable for the same
B
Third party has no remedy
C
Firm is liable for the same
D
Firm is not liable for the same
Question 147Single Answer
In case of unascertained goods, the property in goods passes
A
When goods are ascertained
B
When the parties intend the property in goods to pass
C
As soon as the contract of sale is signed
D
After the payment of goods is received by the seller
Question 148Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Dominant position means position of strength enjoyed by an enterprise in relevant market in India which enables it to operate independently of operative forces and affects competitors and consumers in its favour
Statement II : No enterprise shall abuse its dominant position
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following judgement does not deal with the need of enactment of 'Uniform Civil code' in India ?
A
Mohd. Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum
B
Ashok Hurra Vs. Rupa
C
Sarla Mudgal Vs. Union of India
D
John Vallamatton vs. Union of India
Question 150Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : The rule making power of the Supreme Court for regulating the practice and procedure of the court is not subject to any law made by the Parliament of India
Reason (R) : Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the right of individual without fear or favour
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 151Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the Law of Evidence in civil cases?
A
To regulate court procedures
B
To determine guilt or innocence
C
To ensure fair and just proceedings
D
To define civil offenses
Question 152Single Answer
Hearsay evidence is generally:
A
Admissible
B
Inadmissible
C
Conditional
D
Irrelevant
Question 153Single Answer
What does the term "burden of proof" refer to in civil cases?
A
Defendant's responsibility to prove innocence
B
Plaintiff's responsibility to prove the case
C
Both parties' equal responsibility
D
Judge's responsibility to gather evidence
Question 154Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a type of evidence in civil cases?
A
Testimonial evidence
B
Documentary evidence
C
Expert evidence
D
Criminal evidence
Question 155Single Answer
What is the best definition of circumstantial evidence?
A
Direct evidence that proves a fact
B
Evidence based on personal knowledge
C
Indirect evidence that implies a fact
D
Hearsay evidence
Question 156Single Answer
What is the "best evidence rule"?
A
The most convincing evidence should be presented
B
Only original documents are admissible
C
Hearsay evidence is always admissible
D
Expert opinions are preferred over eyewitness accounts
Question 157Single Answer
In civil cases, what is the purpose of the discovery process?
A
To surprise the opposing party
B
To gather evidence before trial
C
To keep evidence confidential
D
To speed up the trial process
Question 158Single Answer
What is the role of a character witness in civil cases?
A
To provide expert opinions
B
To testify about the defendant's reputation
C
To present scientific evidence
D
To establish motive
Question 159Single Answer
What is the difference between direct and cross-examination?
A
Direct examination is conducted by the defense, while cross-examination is by the prosecution
B
Direct examination is the initial questioning, while cross-examination follows
C
Direct examination is for expert witnesses, while cross-examination is for lay witnesses
D
Direct examination is only for the plaintiff, while cross-examination is for the defendant
Question 160Single Answer
What does the parol evidence rule address in civil cases?
A
The admissibility of oral statements
B
The use of expert witnesses
C
The credibility of witnesses
D
The exclusion of written contracts
Question 161Single Answer
What is the significance of the "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine in evidence law?
A
Admissible evidence obtained unlawfully is excluded
B
Circumstantial evidence is deemed inadmissible
C
Hearsay evidence is considered unreliable
D
Expert testimony is given more weight
Question 162Single Answer
In civil cases, what is the purpose of a motion in limine?
A
To dismiss the case
B
To exclude certain evidence before trial
C
To request a summary judgment
D
To impeach a witness
Question 163Single Answer
What is the role of a court-appointed expert witness?
A
To advocate for one party
B
To assist the court by providing expertise
C
To testify as a character witness
D
To present hearsay evidence
Question 164Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of real evidence in a civil case?
A
Witness testimony
B
Documented records
C
Physical objects
D
Expert opinions
Question 165Single Answer
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the term for the act of a partner binding the firm to a contract?
A
Implied authority
B
Actual authority
C
Ostensible authority
D
Imputed authority
Question 166Single Answer
What is the best description of the "best interests of the child" standard?
A
A standard of proof
B
A rule of evidence
C
A legal presumption
D
A guiding principle in child custody cases
Question 167Single Answer
What is the term for the dissolution of a partnership due to the death of a partner?
A
Dissolution by mutual consent
B
Dissolution by agreement
C
Dissolution by operation of law
D
Dissolution by court order
Question 168Single Answer
What is the "Dead Man's Statute" designed to address?
A
Hearsay evidence
B
Admissibility of expert testimony
C
Competency of witnesses
D
Testimony about transactions with deceased individuals
Question 169Single Answer
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the liability of a partner for the wrongful act or omission of another partner?
A
Joint liability
B
Several liability
C
Joint and several liability
D
Limited liability
Question 170Single Answer
What does the "chain of custody" refer to in evidence law?
A
The order of presenting witnesses
B
The chronological sequence of events
C
The proper handling and documentation of physical evidence
D
The authentication of electronic records
Question 171Single Answer
Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the definition of arrest?
A
Section 41
B
Section 46
C
Section 49
D
Section 51
Question 172Single Answer
In CrPC, what does FIR stand for?
A
First Information Report
B
Final Investigation Record
C
Forensic Information Registry
D
Formal Inquiry Request
Question 173Single Answer
What is the maximum period a person can be detained in police custody without being produced before a magistrate, as per CrPC?
A
12 hours
B
24 hours
C
48 hours
D
72 hours
Question 174Single Answer
Under CrPC, which section deals with the conditions for the grant of bail?
A
Section 41
B
Section 437
C
Section 173
D
Section 306
Question 175Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a charge sheet in criminal proceedings?
A
To arrest the accused
B
To initiate investigation
C
To record the evidence
D
To accuse the person of an offense
Question 176Single Answer
In CrPC, what is the term for the examination of a witness by the party producing him?
A
Cross-examination
B
Re-examination
C
Direct examination
D
Preliminary examination
Question 177Single Answer
What is the maximum duration allowed for the investigation of an offense under Section 173 of CrPC?
A
30 days
B
45 days
C
60 days
D
90 days
Question 178Single Answer
In CrPC, what is the term for the formal commencement of a trial in a court?
A
Summons
B
Warrant
C
Charge
D
Complaint
Question 179Single Answer
Under CrPC, which section deals with the procedure for the examination of an accused by a medical practitioner?
A
Section 160
B
Section 164
C
Section 174
D
Section 175
Question 180Single Answer
What is the term for the written statement of the substance of the evidence given by a witness in a judicial proceeding?
A
Affidavit
B
Deposition
C
Statement
D
Report
Question 181Single Answer
Hindu Law is
A
Civil Law
B
Personal Law
C
Constitutional Law
D
Criminal Law
Question 182Single Answer
Who amongst the following had said while defining the Hindu law that "Hindu Law is law of Smritis" ?
A
Derret
B
Salmond
C
Maine
D
K.P. Rangaswami
Question 183Single Answer
Who among the following is known as founder of Hindu Law ?
A
Narad
B
Manu
C
Yajnavalkya
D
Vigyaneswara
Question 184Single Answer
According to Manu, which of the following are the sources from which knowledge of Hindu Law is to be derived
A
Shruti
B
Smriti
C
Approved usage
D
Purans
Question 185Single Answer
Manu Smriti is related with :
A
Economics
B
Political Science
C
Medical Jurisprudence
D
Law
Question 186Single Answer
Dayabhaga' is authored By
A
Vijnaneshwara
B
Yagyavalkya
C
Jimutavahana
D
None of the above
Question 187Single Answer
The author of Dayabhaga was
A
Vijnaneshwara
B
Jimutavahana
C
Vashishtha
D
Narada
Question 188Single Answer
Which of the following is a school of Hindu Law :
A
Mitakshara
B
Dayabhaga
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
None of the above
Question 189Single Answer
'Jimutavahana' is known for his work
A
Nirnaya Sindhu
B
Dayabhaga
C
Dayatatva
D
Dattak Mimansa
Question 190Single Answer
Mitakshara is a commentary on
A
Manu Smriti
B
Yajnavalkya Smriti
C
Narada Smriti
D
Parashara Smriti
Question 191Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 192Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 193Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 194Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 195Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 196Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 197Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above
Question 198Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above
Question 199Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947
Question 200Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan
Question 201Single Answer
Limitation Act cam into force on :
A
5th October
B
11th November, 1963
C
30th December, 1963
D
1st January, 1964
Question 202Single Answer
Limitation Act
A
Has to be constructed strictly
B
Is an exhaustive code
C
Is a rule of procedures
D
All of the above
Question 203Single Answer
Under the Limitation Act, 1963 'Applicant' means
A
A petitioner
B
Person from or though whom an applicant derives his title
C
Any person whose estate is represented by the applicant as executor administration or other representative
D
All of the above
Question 204Single Answer
Under Limitation Act applicant includes -
A
A petitioner
B
Any person from or through whom an application derives his right to apply
C
Any person whose estate is represented by the applicant an executor, administrator of other representative
D
All of the above
Question 205Single Answer
As per section 2 (c) of the Limitation Act a bill of exchange includes -
A
Promissory noe and bond
B
Pomissory note
C
A hundi and a cheque
D
Bond
Question 206Single Answer
In a suit under Section 2 (l) of the Limitation Act
A
Appeal included
B
Application included
C
Appeal or application is not included
D
Appeal is included but application is not included
Question 207Single Answer
Time requisite under the Limitation Act means
A
Minimum Time
B
Maximum Time
C
Actual Time Taken
D
Abosolutely necessary time
Question 208Single Answer
Under Section 2 (l) of Limitation Act, 1963 'suit' includes -
A
Appeal
B
Appliation
C
Revision
D
None of the above
Question 209Single Answer
The provision relating to Bar of limitation is contained in Section
A
3 of the Limitation Act
B
4 of the Limitation Act
C
5 of the Limitation Act
D
6 of the Limitation Act
Question 210Single Answer
Defendant can be allowed to raise the point of limitation
A
At any stage of suit of proceding
B
For the first time in appeal
C
At any stage of suit or proceding or for the first time in appeal
D
None of the above
Question 211Single Answer
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
A
Lord Macaulay
B
Sir James F. Stephen
C
Huxley
D
Sir Henery Maine
Question 212Single Answer
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
A
Lord Denning
B
A.V. Dicey
C
Lord Macaulay
D
J. F. Stephen
Question 213Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
A
Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
B
Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
C
The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
D
None of the above
Question 214Single Answer
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
A
Substantive Law
B
Procedural Law
C
Substantive and Procedural Law
D
None of the above
Question 215Single Answer
Law of evidence is
A
A substantive law
B
an adjective law
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
Neither (A) nor (B)
Question 216Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
A
Only civil proceedings
B
Only criminal proceedings
C
Civil and criminal Proceeding both
D
None of the above
Question 217Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :
A
Not correct
B
Correct
C
Partly correct
D
None of the above
Question 218Single Answer
Law of Evidence :
A
Retrospective
B
Effect the fundamental right of person
C
Always have prospective effect
D
Not a procedural law
Question 219Single Answer
Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is
A
Lex Talionis
B
Lex Fori
C
Lex Loci
D
Lex Situ
Question 220Single Answer
The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :
A
Law of the Land is Supreme
B
Law of Land
C
Local Laws
D
Law of England
Question 221Single Answer
What does “Ab Initio” mean in Legal Maxims?
A
from the end
B
from the beginning
C
from the middle
D
from any time
Question 222Single Answer
What does “Bona Fide” mean in Legal Maxims?
A
with bad intentions
B
with good intentions
C
without intention
D
with intention
Question 223Single Answer
What is the meaning of “Caveat Emptor” in Legal Maxims?
A
Sellers should be careful
B
Buyers beware
C
Both be careful
D
No one should be careful
Question 224Single Answer
What is the meaning of “Actus Non Facit Reum Nisi Mens Sit Rea” in Legal Maxims?
A
Only the act constitutes a crime
B
Only mentality constitutes crime
C
Both actions and mentality constitute a crime
D
does not commit any crime
Question 225Single Answer
What does “Audi alteram partem” mean in legal maxims?
A
listen to one side
B
listen to both sides
C
listen to no one
D
listen only to the judge
Question 226Single Answer
What is the meaning of “Amicus Curiae” in Legal Maxims?
A
Friend of the Court
B
enemy of the court
C
Court witness
D
Judge of the court
Question 227Single Answer
What is the meaning of “Alibi” in Legal Maxims?
A
at one place
B
second place
C
nowhere
D
everywhere
Question 228Single Answer
What is the meaning of “Certiorari” in Legal Maxims?
A
Decision of the lower court
B
High Court decision
C
Review of lower court decision
D
Review of the decision of the High Court
Question 229Single Answer
What is the meaning of “Corpus Delicti” in Legal Maxims?
A
body of the crime
B
Proof of crime
C
place of crime
D
time of crime
Question 230Single Answer
What does “De Facto” mean in Legal Maxims??
A
legally
B
actually
C
hypothetically
D
temporarily
Question 231Single Answer
The Widow Remarriage Act was implemented in India during the tenure of which Governor General?
A
lord curzon
B
lord bentinck
C
Lord Canning
D
Lord Dalhousie
Question 232Single Answer
Which year was declared as the Year of Women Empowerment by the Government of India?
A
2005
B
2008
C
2015
D
2001
Question 233Single Answer
The father of the concept of juvenile delinquency is the scientist-
A
Cesar Lambrosso
B
John Cambay
C
Sigmund Freud
D
None
Question 234Single Answer
The former name of Anganwadi service was-
A
Integrated Child Protection Service
B
Child support service
C
Child protection service
D
Integrated child development
Question 235Single Answer
When was the Child Marriage Free Rajasthan joint campaign started to end child marriage in Rajasthan -
A
July 15, 2016
B
28 April, 2015
C
July 18, 2016
D
July 25, 2014
Question 236Single Answer
Who was the first chairperson of the Child Rights Protection Commission-
A
Shanta Sinha
B
Madhurima Sinha
C
Mridula Sinha
D
Sahajo Bai
Question 237Single Answer
'Swadhar Yojana' run by the Ministry of Women and Child Development is related to which community-
A
Unemployment
B
By foeticide
C
Child labour
D
Women
Question 238Single Answer
In which year the Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed in India?
A
2006
B
2008
C
2011
D
1997
Question 239Single Answer
In which year the Act against Domestic Violence was passed in India?
A
Year 2005
B
Year 2006
C
Year 2004
D
Year 2008
Question 240Single Answer
When was the National Authority for the Abolition of Child Labour established?
A
16 August 1996
B
5 June 1990
C
22 July 2002
D
26 September 1994
Question 241Single Answer
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
A
Only (i) is correct
B
Only (ii) is correct
C
Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
D
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Question 242Single Answer
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
A
Chapter VIII
B
Chapter IX
C
Chapter X
D
Chapter XI
Question 243Single Answer
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
A
State of Tripura
B
State of Assam
C
State of Meghalya
D
State of Nagaland
Question 244Single Answer
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
A
State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
B
Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
C
Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
D
State of Nagaland v. Chung
Question 245Single Answer
What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
A
Municipal area of Shilong
B
Municipal area of Mizoram
C
Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
D
Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Question 246Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 247Single Answer
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?
A
On April 1, 1973
B
On April 1, 1974
C
On January 1, 1974
D
On March 1, 1974
Question 248Single Answer
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?
A
25-12-1973
B
25-01-1974
C
25-02-1974
D
25-05-1974
Question 249Single Answer
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :
A
21st July, 2005
B
23rd June, 2005
C
22nd August, 2005
D
20th September, 2005
Question 250Single Answer
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on
A
6th April, 2013
B
3rd February, 2013
C
7th January, 2013
D
5th March, 2013
Question 251Single Answer
What does the term "environment" broadly encompass?
A
Only natural elements
B
Only man-made elements
C
The totality of man's surroundings, both natural and man-made
D
Only biological factors
Question 252Single Answer
What is environmental pollution?
A
Natural changes in the environment
B
Contamination of the environment by pollutants
C
Weather changes
D
Seasonal variations
Question 253Single Answer
Which of the following is a type of environmental pollution?
A
Photosynthesis
B
Water pollution
C
Seed germination
D
Evaporation
Question 254Single Answer
What is the primary cause of air pollution in urban areas?
A
Volcanic eruptions
B
Industrial emissions and vehicular traffic
C
Deforestation
D
Natural decay
Question 255Single Answer
What does "biodiversity" refer to?
A
The variety of rocks
B
The variety of plants and animals
C
The variety of climates
D
The variety of soils
Question 256Single Answer
What is the effect of noise pollution on human health?
A
Improved hearing
B
Stress and hearing impairment
C
Increased energy
D
Improved sleep
Question 257Single Answer
What is the meaning of "sustainable development"?
A
Development without any environmental consideration
B
Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs
C
Development that only focuses on economic growth
D
Development that ignores social factors
Question 258Single Answer
What is the greenhouse effect?
A
Cooling of the Earth's atmosphere
B
Trapping of heat by atmospheric gases
C
Increased rainfall
D
Reduced sunlight
Question 259Single Answer
What is the impact of deforestation on the environment?
A
Increased oxygen levels
B
Soil erosion and loss of biodiversity
C
Reduced carbon dioxide levels
D
Increased rainfall
Question 260Single Answer
What is the meaning of an "ecosystem"?
A
A collection of buildings
B
A community of living organisms and their physical environment
C
A single species
D
A weather pattern
Question 261Single Answer
Can a minor sue their guardian for mismanagement of property?
A
No, not until they reach a certain age
B
Yes, upon attaining majority
C
Only if the guardian consents
D
Only if relatives agree
Question 262Single Answer
What is the legal position of a guardian's actions that are beyond their authority?
A
They are valid
B
They can be challenged
C
They are automatically ratified
D
They are automatically transferred to the government
Question 263Single Answer
Can a guardian use the minor's property for their own benefit?
A
Yes, always
B
No, unless authorized by the court
C
Only if the minor is above 16
D
Only if relatives agree
Question 264Single Answer
What is the effect of a natural guardian's death on the guardianship?
A
It is automatically transferred to the minor's spouse
B
It is automatically transferred to the other natural guardian (if applicable)
C
It is transferred to the community elders
D
It is transferred to the government
Question 265Single Answer
Can a guardian be removed for conflict of interest?
A
No, never
B
Yes, if it is in the welfare of the minor
C
Only if the minor requests it
D
Only if relatives request it
Question 266Single Answer
What is the legal position of a guardian's actions that are fraudulent?
A
They are valid
B
They can be challenged
C
They are automatically ratified
D
They are automatically transferred to the government
Question 267Single Answer
Can a guardian enter into contracts on behalf of the minor?
A
Yes, always
B
Yes, but only if it is for the benefit of the minor
C
No, unless authorized by the court
D
Only if the minor is above 16
Question 268Single Answer
What is the effect of a court's order in guardianship matters?
A
It can be ignored by relatives
B
It is legally binding
C
It is only advisory
D
It is only applicable in urban areas
Question 269Single Answer
Can a guardian educate the minor according to their own religious beliefs?
A
Yes, always
B
Yes, but only if it is not against the minor's best interest
C
No, unless authorized by the court
D
Only if relatives agree
Question 270Single Answer
What is the legal position of a guardian's actions that are negligent?
A
They are valid
B
They can be challenged
C
They are automatically ratified
D
They are automatically transferred to the government
Question 271Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the Rajasthan Nari Yojana?
A
Promote women's entrepreneurship
B
Provide financial assistance to women
C
Improve child education
D
Support elderly healthcare
Question 272Single Answer
Who is the target beneficiary of the Rajasthan Chief Minister Kanyadaan Scheme?
A
Widows
B
Brides from economically weaker sections
C
Pregnant women
D
School children
Question 273Single Answer
What does the Chief Minister Mass Marriage Grant Scheme aim to promote?
A
Education for girls
B
Mass weddings for economically weaker families
C
Healthcare for women
D
Skill development for women
Question 274Single Answer
Which scheme provides financial support to pregnant and lactating mothers?
A
Rajasthan Nari Yojana
B
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
C
Chief Minister Nari Samman Pension Scheme
D
Girl Child Education Foundation Scheme
Question 275Single Answer
What is the maximum financial assistance provided under the Chief Minister Mass Marriage Grant Scheme per couple?
A
Rs.10,000
B
Rs.20,000
C
Rs.30,000
D
Rs.50,000
Question 276Single Answer
What is the main focus of the Chief Minister Nari Samman Pension Scheme?
A
Education for girls
B
Financial support for elderly women
C
Healthcare for pregnant women
D
Skill training for women
Question 277Single Answer
When was the Rajasthan State Women’s Policy launched?
A
2018
B
2019
C
2020
D
2021
Question 278Single Answer
What is the key objective of the Girl Child Education Foundation Scheme?
A
Provide free uniforms
B
Promote education for girls
C
Support women entrepreneurs
D
Provide healthcare for children
Question 279Single Answer
Who is eligible for the Kali Bai Bhil Medha Protsahan Scooty Scheme?
A
Women entrepreneurs
B
Meritorious girl students from the Bhil community
C
Pregnant women
D
Widows
Question 280Single Answer
What does the Chief Minister Free Dress Distribution and Incentive Scheme provide to school children?
A
Free textbooks
B
Free uniforms and incentives
C
Free transportation
D
Free meals
Question 281Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of procedural law in India?
A
Defining criminal penalties
B
Regulating the process of justice delivery
C
Enforcing tax policies
D
Limiting judicial powers
Question 282Single Answer
What distinguishes procedural law from substantive law?
A
It defines rights and duties
B
It governs how legal processes are conducted
C
It establishes tax regulations
D
It limits constitutional rights
Question 283Single Answer
What is a source of procedural law in India?
A
Corporate policies
B
Statutes and precedents
C
Trade agreements
D
Tax exemptions
Question 284Single Answer
Which constitutional article ensures the right to life and personal liberty?
A
Article 14
B
Article 32
C
Article 21
D
Article 226
Question 285Single Answer
What remedy does Article 32 provide in India?
A
Tax exemptions
B
Wage regulations
C
Corporate mergers
D
Judicial remedies through writs
Question 286Single Answer
Which writ ensures release from unlawful detention?
A
Mandamus
B
Certiorari
C
Habeas corpus
D
Quo warranto
Question 287Single Answer
What does the principle of audi alteram partem ensure?
A
No one is a judge in their own cause
B
Limiting judicial review
C
Tax enforcement
D
Right to be heard
Question 288Single Answer
What is the role of Lok Adalats in India?
A
Enforcing tax laws
B
Providing access to justice
C
Reducing wages
D
Limiting trade unions
Question 289Single Answer
Which system is primarily followed in Indian courts?
A
Inquisitorial
B
Arbitration
C
Adversarial
D
Mediation
Question 290Single Answer
Which constitutional list includes procedural laws?
A
State List
B
Union List, Entry 13
C
Corporate List
D
Tax List
Question 291Single Answer
What is the primary objective of legal drafting?
A
To create ambiguous legal documents
B
To ensure clarity, precision, and enforceability
C
To use complex legal jargon
D
To avoid contractual obligations
Question 292Single Answer
Which principle of legal drafting emphasizes using simple and clear language?
A
Principle of Ambiguity
B
Principle of Simplicity
C
Principle of Complexity
D
Principle of Redundancy
Question 293Single Answer
What should a legal drafter avoid to prevent misinterpretation of a document?
A
Plain language
B
Specific clauses
C
Defined terms
D
Ambiguous terms
Question 294Single Answer
Which part of a legal document typically outlines the purpose and scope?
A
Schedules
B
Operative provisions
C
Signature block
D
Recitals
Question 295Single Answer
What is the purpose of defining terms in a legal document?
A
To increase document length
B
To ensure consistent interpretation
C
To confuse the reader
D
To avoid legal enforceability
Question 296Single Answer
Which drafting principle requires consistency in terminology throughout a document?
A
Principle of Clarity
B
Principle of Redundancy
C
Principle of Consistency
D
Principle of Vagueness
Question 297Single Answer
What should a legal drafter consider when drafting a contract?
A
Only the interests of one party
B
The intentions and expectations of all parties
C
Only statutory requirements
D
Only judicial precedents
Question 298Single Answer
Which type of clause specifies the governing law of a contract?
A
Arbitration clause
B
Termination clause
C
Force majeure clause
D
Choice of law clause
Question 299Single Answer
What is the role of the ‘whereas’ clause in a legal document?
A
To define key terms
B
To specify penalties
C
To outline remedies
D
To provide background or context
Question 300Single Answer
Which principle of legal drafting avoids unnecessary repetition of words?
