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Latest RPSC Veterinary Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge of Rajasthan, Veterinary Science
Question Bank RPSC Veterinary Officer Exam - English
General Knowledge of Rajasthan
Q 1 :
The district of Rajasthan which touches the boundary of Uttar Pradesh —
A.Bharatpur
B.Jaipur
C.Kota
D.Pali
Q 2 :
Who gave the name "Rajputana" for the Rajasthan State and in which year?
A.Col. Tod; 1806
B.Fahien; 633
C.George Thomas; 1800
D.Max Muller; 1815
Q 3 :
Which of the following districts of Rajasthan has longest boundary which touches Pakistan?
A.Barmer
B.Bikaner
C.Jaisalmer
D.Ganganagar
Q 4 :
Rajasthan Day is organized on —
A.20th March
B.29th March
C.30th March
D.31st March
Q 5 :
Which among the following states not touches the boundry of Rajasthan ?
A.Bihar
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Uttar Pradesh
Q 6 :
Which area of Rajasthan State was known as 'Maru Kantar in the Ramayana' ?
A.Bagar Region
B.Shekhawati Region
C.South-East Plateau
D.Western Rajasthan
Q 7 :
Which of the following Pakistani District do not make border with Rajasthan—
A.Khairpur
B.Meerpur Khas
C.Sukkur
D.Tharparkar
Q 8 :
The correct sequence in descending order of the given districts in terms of density of population in 2011 is —
A.Kota, Ajmer, Ganganagar and Churu
B.Jaipur, Bharatpur, Dausa and Alwar
C.Jaipur, Bharatpur, Alwar and Dausa
D.Alwar, Dausa, Ajmer and Churu
Q 9 :
Adjacent district in Rajasthan are —
A.Churu, Jhunjhunu, Jaipur
B.Jhalawar, Bundi, Tonk
C.Sirohi, Barmer, Jaisalmer
D.Sirohi, pali, Nagaur
Q 10 :
State bird of Rajasthan is —
A.Chinkara
B.Godawan
C.Neelgai
D.Peacock
Q 11 :
What fraction of India's total area is covered by Rajasthan?
A.Around 5%
B.Around 15%
C.Around 10%
D.Around 20%
Q 12 :
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A.Rajasthan's total geographical area is around 3.42 Lakh Sq. Km.
B.Total Populations of Rajasthan is around 10 crore.
C.Out of total population of Rajasthan, 24.9% people live in urban regions.
D.All of the above
Q 13 :
Which district has highest population in Rajasthan?
A.Jaipur
B.Jaisalmer
C.Udaipur
D.Ajmer
Q 14 :
What fraction of Rajasthan's total area is covered by Thar Desert?
A.Around 30%
B.Around 40%
C.Around 60%
D.Around 70%
Q 15 :
The temple city of Osean in Rajasthan was established by which of the following Rajputs?
A.Gurjar Pratiharas
B.Chauhans
C.Solankis
D.Sisodias
Q 16 :
The Jhamarkotra mines of Rajasthan are best known for which among the following minerals?
A.Mica
B.Zinc
C.Rock Phosphate
D.Lime Stone
Q 17 :
What is the population of Scheduled Caste in Rajasthan?
A.20.3%
B.21%
C.17.8%
D.21.6%
Q 18 :
According to census 2011, what is the literacy rate in Rajasthan?
A.60%
B.78%
C.66%
D.55%
Q 19 :
How many people are working in Rajasthan (in percentage)?
A.56%
B.23%
C.43.6%
D.52.4%
Q 20 :
The word 'Rajputana' for Rajasthan was first used by:
A.James Todd
B.George Thomas
C.Geogra Greeson
D.Kushal Labh
Q 21 :
How many districts are there in Rajasthan in 2021?
A.21
B.16
C.30
D.33
Q 22 :
Rajasthan shares the longest border with which state?
A.Gujarat
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Uttar Pradesh
D.Haryana
Q 23 :
Which district of the Rajasthan does not touch the international border?
A.Ganganagar
B.Bikaner
C.Barmer
D.Jodhpur
Q 24 :
Which of the following districts of Rajasthan has shortest international boundary?
A.Jaisalmer
B.Bikaner
C.Barmer
D.Ganganagar
Q 25 :
With how many states Rajasthan shares its border?
A.7
B.5
C.6
D.3
Q 26 :
which city in Rajasthan was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage City?
A.Jaipur
B.Jodhpur
C.Udaipur
D.Jaisalmer
Q 27 :
Which of the following best describes the nature of the Indian Constitution ?
A.Rigid
B.Flexible
C.Semi-rigid
D.Static
Q 28 :
The Indian Constitution is largely based on the model of which country's constitution ?
A.United States
B.United Kingdom
C.Canada
D.Australia
Q 29 :
When was the Panchayati Raj system started in Rajasthan?
A.1959
B.1960
C.1961
D.1962
Q 30 :
How many levels are there under the Panchayati Raj system in Rajasthan?
A.two
B.three
C.four
D.five
Q 31 :
What does the Preamble to the Indian Constitution declare India as?
How many fundamental rights are enshrined in the Indian Constitution?
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.5
Q 33 :
What is the name of the campaign launched by CM Bhajanlal Sharma for water conservation in June 2025?
A.Jal Jeevan Mission
B.Vande Ganga
C.Narmada Abhiyan
D.Save Water Initiative
Q 34 :
Which policy did the Rajasthan government aim to implement to train 1.5 lakh youth in the next two years?
A.Skill Policy
B.Education Policy
C.Health Policy
D.Tourism Policy
Q 35 :
What was the duration of the βVande Gangaβ water conservation campaign launched in June 2025?
A.June 1β15
B.June 10β25
C.June 5β20
D.June 15β30
Q 36 :
Who was assigned special responsibilities for the βVande Gangaβ campaign across 41 districts in Rajasthan?
A.District Collectors
B.Village Panchayats
C.Local NGOs
D.State Ministers
Q 37 :
Which new exploration module was set to be launched by the Ministry of Coal on July 4, 2025, affecting Rajasthanβs coal sector?
A.Mining Safety Module
B.Coal Extraction Module
C.Digital Approval Module
D.Environmental Clearance Module
Q 38 :
Which site in Rajasthan has provided evidence of prehistoric stone tools?
A.Kalibangan
B.Tilwara
C.Chittorgarh
D.Jodhpur
Q 39 :
The archaeological site Bagor is located in which district of Rajasthan?
A.Bikaner
B.Bhilwara
C.Udaipur
D.Chittorgarh
Q 40 :
The excavation at Kalibangan revealed remains of which ancient civilization?
A.Mesopotamian
B.Egyptian
C.Roman
D.Harappan
Veterinary Science
Q 41 :
Notch like depression on bony surface is known as
A.Facet
B.Fossa
C.Fovea
D.Incisura
Q 42 :
Any Small and rough projection on the bone is Called
A.Tubercle
B.Trochanter
C.Tuberosity
D.Trochlea
Q 43 :
Small articular surface which is nearly flat or slightly undulating is
A.Facet
B.Fossa
C.Fovea
D.Groove
Q 44 :
An articular surface in the from of a small pit
A.Facet
B.Fossa
C.Fovea
D.Groove
Q 45 :
Digital impressions are shallow depressions on the inside of the
A.Cranium
B.Lungs
C.Liver
D.Kidney
Q 46 :
Acetabulum is perforated in case of
A.Ox
B.Dog
C.Pig
D.Fowl
Q 47 :
Margoplicatus divides the
A.Oesophageal and glandular part
B.Rumen and reticulum
C.Both 'a' and 'b '
D.None of the above
Q 48 :
Acromian process in horse is found in
A.Scapula
B.Ulna
C.Radius
D.Absent
Q 49 :
Os phrenic is found in
A.Fowl
B.Camel
C.Dog
D.Ox
Q 50 :
Os optious is found in
A.Fowl
B.Camel
C.Dog
D.Ox
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Veterinary Science
Q 51 :
Os cordis is found in
A.Fowl
B.Camel
C.Dog
D.Ox
Q 52 :
Os penis is found in
A.Fowl
B.Camel
C.Dog
D.Ox
Q 53 :
Thymus originates from the endoderm of
A.1st pharyngeal pouch
B.2nd pharyngeal pouch
C.3rd pharyngeal pouch
D.4th pharyngeal pouch
Q 54 :
Cartwheel appear of nuclei is that of
A.Mast cells
B.Macrophages
C.Rouget cells
D.Plasma cells
Q 55 :
Albumen secreting region of oviduct in hen is
A.Magnum
B.Isthmus
C.Uterus
D.Infundibulum
Q 56 :
Which of the following laryngeal cartilage is paired
A.Epiglottis
B.Thyroid
C.Arytenoid
D.Cricoid
Q 57 :
Gizzard or the muscular stomach is found in
A.Ox
B.Horse
C.Fowl
D.Pig
Q 58 :
Pericytes are also known as
A.Mast cells
B.Macrophages
C.Rouget cells
D.Plasma cells
Q 59 :
The auditory tube in horse expands ventrally to from the
A.Guttural
B.Vestibule
C.Cochlea
D.Spiral organ
Q 60 :
Tapetum cellulosum is found in
A.Dog
B.Cow
C.Goat
D.Camel
Q 61 :
Fovea capitis is notched in
A.Ox
B.Horse
C.Dog
D.Pig
Q 62 :
The last coccygeal vertebra in fowl is formed by fusion of two or more
segments and is termed as
A.Uncinate process
B.Styloid projection
C.Keel
D.Pygostyle
Q 63 :
Which of the following is not a muscle of the medial aspect of shoulder
A.Subscapular
B.Teres major
C.Coracobrachialis
D.Deltoid
Q 64 :
A perforation through the bone having certain amount of length iscalled
A.Foramen
B.Canal
C.Hitatus
D.Depression
Q 65 :
Depression having a few foramina is
A.Hitatus
B.Canal
C.Depression
D.Foramen
Q 66 :
Vertebral formula of ox is
A.C-7 T-13 L-6 S-5 Cy. 18-20
B.C-7 T-18 L-6 S-5 Cy. 18-21
C.C-7 T-13 L-7 S-3 Cy. 18-23
D.C-14 T-7 L+S = 14 Cy. 6
Q 67 :
Vertebral formula of dog is
A.C-7 T-13 L-6 S-5 Cy. 15-20
B.C-7 T-18 L-6 S-5 Cy. 18-21
C.C-7 T-13 L-7 S-3 Cy. 20-23
D.C-14 T-7 L+S = 14 Cy. 6
Q 68 :
Verebral formula of horse is
A.C-7 T-13 L-6 S-5 Cy. 15-20
B.C-7 T-18 L-6 S-5 Cy. 15-21
C.C-7 T-13 L-7 S-3 Cy. 18-23
D.C-14 T-7 L+S = 14 Cy. 6
Q 69 :
Verebral formula of fowl is
A.C-7 T-13 L-6 S-5 Cy. 15-20
B.C-7 T-18 L-6 S-5 Cy. 18-21
C.C-7 T-13 L-7 S-5 Cy. 18-23
D.C-14 T-7 L+S = 14 Cy. 6
Q 70 :
Cervical vertebrae are found in the
A.Neck
B.Cervix
C.Thorax
D.Abdomen
Q 71 :
Which of the following is a primary contribution of livestock to the Indian economy ?
A.Export of electronic goods
B.Providing employment opportunities
C.Promotion of tourism
D.Importing agricultural equipment
Q 72 :
What percentage of India's total agricultural output is contributed by the livestock sector ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.25%
D.40%
Q 73 :
Which livestock product contributes the most to the Indian economy ?
A.Wool
B.Meat
C.Milk
D.Leather
Q 74 :
Which state in India is known for having the highest milk production ?
A.Punjab
B.Uttar Pradesh
C.Gujarat
D.Rajasthan
Q 75 :
What role does livestock play in the agricultural sector of India ?
A.Soil erosion
B.Pollution control
C.Draught power
D.Industrialization
Q 76 :
The Leghorn breed is associated with which type of livestock ?
A.Cattle
B.Goat
C.Poultry
D.Pig
Q 77 :
Which of the following is a key reason for the importance of livestock in rural India ?
A.Source of raw material for industries
B.Major source of foreign exchange
C.Source of livelihood and nutrition
D.Source of water
Q 78 :
Which animal is primarily raised in India for wool production ?
A.Buffalo
B.Cow
C.Goat
D.Sheep
Q 79 :
Which laboratory animal is commonly used in biomedical research due to its short gestation period and genetic similarity to humans ?
A.Guinea pig
B.Mouse
C.Rabbit
D.Hamster
Q 80 :
What percentage of the global buffalo population is found in India ?
A.30%
B.50%
C.70%
D.90%
Q 81 :
What is the causative agent of Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD) in cattle ?
A.Bacterium
B.Virus
C.Fungus
D.Parasite
Q 82 :
Which metabolic disease in dairy cows is characterized by low blood calcium levels ?
A.Ketosis
B.Milk fever
C.Mastitis
D.Anaplasmosis
Q 83 :
What are the characteristic symptoms of Newcastle Disease in poultry ?
A.Lameness and swollen joints
B.Respiratory distress, nervous signs, and drop in egg production
C.Diarrhea and dehydration
D.Skin lesions and hair loss
Q 84 :
Which disease in pigs is caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia ?
A.Swine dysentery
B.Atrophic rhinitis
C.Glasser's disease
D.Pleuropneumonia
Q 85 :
What is a common non-infectious disease affecting horses, characterized by inflammation of the laminae within the hoof ?
A.Colic
B.Laminitis
C.Strangles
D.Tetanus
Q 86 :
Which bacterial infection in sheep and goats is characterized by abscesses in the lymph nodes and is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis ?
A.Caseous lymphadenitis
B.Johne's disease
C.Brucellosis
D.Contagious ecthyma
Q 87 :
What is the most common sign of Canine Parvovirus infection in dogs ?
A.Coughing and sneezing
B.Vomiting and bloody diarrhea
C.Skin lesions
D.Hair loss
Q 88 :
Which disease in cattle is caused by a deficiency of cobalt, leading to anemia and ill-thrift ?
A.White muscle disease
B.Grass tetany
C.Pine
D.Rickets
Q 89 :
What is a common pathological lesion seen in birds affected by Avian Influenza ?
A.Thickening of the footpads
B.Hemorrhages in internal organs and respiratory tract
C.Excessive feather growth
D.Enlargement of the crop
Q 90 :
Which disease in pigs is characterized by bloody diarrhea and is caused by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae ?
A.Swine influenza
B.Swine dysentery
C.African swine fever
D.Classical swine fever
Q 91 :
What is the primary goal of agricultural extension?
A.To increase agricultural production through research
B.To provide farmers with knowledge and skills to improve their practices
C.To create new agricultural policies
D.To import and export agricultural products
Q 92 :
Which principle emphasizes the need for extension services to be relevant to the local context and conditions?
A.Flexibility
B.Participatory
C.Localization
D.Efficiency
Q 93 :
What is the main objective of extension education?
A.To develop new agricultural technologies
B.To enhance the capacity of farmers to adopt new practices
C.To conduct agricultural research
D.To manage agricultural markets
Q 94 :
Which extension principle involves involving farmers in decision-making and problem-solving processes?
A.Top-down approach
B.Participatory approach
C.Centralized approach
D.Bureaucratic approach
Q 95 :
What does the term 'extension' refer to in the context of agriculture?
A.The expansion of agricultural land
B.The dissemination of agricultural knowledge and technology
C.The development of new crop varieties
D.The mechanization of farming
Q 96 :
Which model of extension emphasizes the role of extension agents as facilitators and educators rather than direct providers of solutions?
A.The Transfer of Technology Model
B.The Participatory Model
C.The Top-Down Model
D.The Integrated Model
Q 97 :
What is the primary focus of the "Training and Visit" (T&V) extension system?
A.Direct marketing of agricultural products
B.Regular training and field visits to update farmers on new practices
C.Conducting large-scale agricultural research
D.Importing agricultural technology
Q 98 :
Which principle of extension emphasizes the need for programs to be based on the needs and priorities of the farmers?
A.Farmer-centered approach
B.Research-driven approach
C.Supply-driven approach
D.Technology-centered approach
Q 99 :
What is the main objective of community-based extension programs?
A.To provide centralized services
B.To address the needs of entire communities rather than individual farmers
C.To focus exclusively on high-value crops
D.To minimize local participation
Q 100 :
Which approach involves using local resources and knowledge in extension programs?
A.Centralized approach
B.Bottom-up approach
C.Exogenous approach
D.Indigenous approach
Q 101 :
What is the primary component of semen ?
A.Hormones
B.Spermatozoa
C.Enzymes
D.Carbohydrates
Q 102 :
Which fluid is responsible for providing nourishment and a medium for sperm movement in semen ?
A.Seminal plasma
B.Cerebrospinal fluid
C.Gastric juice
D.Lymph
Q 103 :
What is the normal pH range of semen in most animals ?
A.3.5 - 4.5
B.4.5 - 5.5
C.6.0 - 7.0
D.7.2 - 8.0
Q 104 :
What is the primary role of fructose in semen ?
A.Hormonal regulation
B.Providing energy to sperm
C.Enhancing immune response
D.Protecting sperm from oxidation
Q 105 :
Which protein found in semen helps in coagulating the semen after ejaculation ?
A.Albumin
B.Prostaglandins
C.Semenogelins
D.Enzymes
Q 106 :
What is the typical concentration range of spermatozoa in normal semen ?
A.10-20 million/ml
B.20-50 million/ml
C.50-100 million/ml
D.100-200 million/ml
Q 107 :
Which of the following factors can adversely affect semen quality ?
A.High temperature during storage
B.Proper nutritional balance
C.Good hygiene practices
D.Optimal breeding conditions
Q 108 :
Which of the following is a chemical property of semen ?
A.Viscosity
B.Color
C.Volume
D.Temperature
Q 109 :
What is the typical volume range of semen per ejaculate in cattle ?
A.1-2 ml
B.2-5 ml
C.5-10 ml
D.10-15 ml
Q 110 :
Which factor can cause a decrease in sperm motility ?
A.Adequate hydration
B.Excessive heat exposure
C.Proper diet
D.Optimal storage conditions
Q 111 :
Which plant by-product is commonly used in feed formulations for livestock ?
A.Apple peels
B.Wheat bran
C.Orange pulp
D.Pine needles
Q 112 :
How can livestock contribute to weed management in crop fields ?
A.By promoting weed growth
B.By grazing on weeds, reducing their prevalence
C.By spreading weed seeds
D.By providing no help in weed control
Q 113 :
What is the significance of crop residue management in integrated farming systems ?
A.It leads to increased waste disposal issues
B.It provides a valuable source of feed for livestock
C.It has no impact on farm productivity
D.It only benefits crop production
Q 114 :
Which practice enhances the symbiotic relationship between plants and animals in farming systems ?
A.Intensive monocropping
B.Crop rotation and livestock integration
C.Exclusive plant breeding
D.Livestock confinement without plant interaction
Q 115 :
What percentage of India's agricultural GDP is contributed by the livestock sector ?
A.10%
B.20%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 116 :
How does the use of green manure crops benefit both plant and animal husbandry ?
A.By depleting soil nutrients
B.By providing fodder and enhancing soil fertility
C.By reducing crop and livestock yields
D.By increasing the need for synthetic fertilizers
Q 117 :
Which livestock product is a major source of protein for the Indian population ?
A.Wool
B.Leather
C.Milk
D.Feathers
Q 118 :
How does livestock contribute to soil fertility in agriculture ?
A.By consuming pests
B.Through manure production
C.By aerating the soil with their hooves
D.By reducing water usage
Q 119 :
Which of the following is a challenge in the integration of plant and animal husbandry ?
A.Enhanced nutrient cycling
B.Increased reliance on chemical inputs
C.Management of manure and crop residues
D.Decreased farm resilience
Q 120 :
Which animal is primarily associated with draught power in Indian agriculture ?
A.Sheep
B.Goats
C.Cattle
D.Pigs
Q 121 :
What are the two main categories of animal feed ?
A.Roughages and Concentrates
B.Grains and Seeds
C.Legumes and Fruits
D.Vegetables and Dairy
Q 122 :
Which of the following is classified as a roughage ?
A.Wheat bran
B.Corn silage
C.Soybean meal
D.Fish meal
Q 123 :
What is the primary characteristic of concentrates in animal feed ?
A.High fiber content
B.High energy and protein content
C.Low digestibility
D.Low nutritional value
Q 124 :
Which of the following feeds is typically classified as a protein concentrate ?
A.Alfalfa hay
B.Oats
C.Soybean meal
D.Barley
Q 125 :
What type of feed is generally used to provide essential minerals and vitamins to livestock ?
A.Energy feeds
B.Protein feeds
C.Mineral and vitamin supplements
D.Fiber sources
Q 126 :
Which of the following is a common example of an energy feed ?
A.Cottonseed meal
B.Beet pulp
C.Corn grain
D.Lucerne hay
Q 127 :
What is the primary role of roughages in animal nutrition ?
A.To provide high energy
B.To supply essential amino acids
C.To provide fiber for proper digestion
D.To increase the protein content in feed
Q 128 :
Which of the following is a common type of legume used as feed ?
A.Timothy hay
B.Clover
C.Ryegrass
D.Orchard grass
Q 129 :
What is a characteristic feature of fibrous feeds ?
A.High fat content
B.High carbohydrate content
C.High fiber content
D.Low water content
Q 130 :
Which feed category includes by-products from milling and processing industries ?
A.Energy feeds
B.By-product feeds
C.Protein supplements
D.Roughages
Q 131 :
What is the recommended practice for pre-milking udder preparation ?
A.Washing the udder with clean, warm water and disinfecting it
B.Dry wiping the udder
C.Using only a dry cloth to clean the udder
D.Avoiding udder preparation
Q 132 :
Why is proper storage of milk important in clean milk production ?
A.To enhance flavor
B.To prevent microbial growth and spoilage
C.To reduce packaging costs
D.To improve milk color
Q 133 :
What is a key component of clean milk production related to the milking environment ?
A.Ensuring the milking area is clean and dry
B.Increasing the number of cows in the barn
C.Limiting air circulation in the milking area
D.Using non-disposable materials
Q 134 :
How should milk storage containers be maintained for clean milk production ?
A.They should be cleaned and sanitized regularly
B.They should be left unwashed
C.They should be used only once
D.They should be stored in direct sunlight
Q 135 :
What is the role of personal hygiene in clean milk production ?
A.To ensure milk is aesthetically pleasing
B.To prevent contamination of milk by the milkers
C.To increase milk yield
D.To reduce feed costs
Q 136 :
Which practice helps in minimizing the risk of mastitis in dairy cows ?
A.Regular udder cleaning and proper milking techniques
B.Reducing milking frequency
C.Increasing grain feed
D.Limiting water access
Q 137 :
What should be done immediately if milking equipment becomes contaminated ?
A.Discard the equipment
B.Clean and sanitize the equipment
C.Continue using it
D.Rinse it with water only
Q 138 :
What is the primary focus of nutritional management for pregnant cows ?
A.Increasing fiber content
B.Providing balanced energy and protein
C.Reducing water intake
D.Minimizing feed costs
Q 139 :
How often should pregnant cows be checked for signs of calving ?
A.Daily
B.Weekly
C.Monthly
D.Biannually
Q 140 :
Why is it important to maintain a clean and dry environment for dairy cows ?
A.To prevent diseases and contamination of milk
B.To increase milk yield
C.To reduce feed costs
D.To enhance cow color
Q 141 :
What is a critical aspect of maintaining a disease-free zone in animal populations ?
A.Regular health checks and vaccination programs
B.Frequent movement of animals between farms
C.Limited use of preventive measures
D.Reduced monitoring of animal health
Q 142 :
Which of the following is a common cause of foot - and-mouth disease in cattle ?
A.Virus
B.Bacteria
C.Parasite
D.Fungus
Q 143 :
What is the primary route of transmission for avian influenza in poultry ?
A.Airborne droplets
B.Direct contact with infected animals
C.Contaminated feed
D.Waterborne transmission
Q 144 :
Which technique is used to visualize internal structures of animals for disease diagnosis ?
A.Ultrasound imaging
B.Physical examination
C.Blood tests
D.Endoscopy
Q 145 :
Which diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm bovine tuberculosis in cattle ?
A.Tuberculin skin test
B.PCR test
C.Blood smear
D.ELISA test
Q 146 :
What role do Animal Health Centers play in outbreak management ?
A.They provide immediate response and control measures
B.They only focus on breeding animals
C.They mainly handle feed distribution
D.They focus on improving animal performance
Q 147 :
What is a common postmortem lesion seen in pigs infected with porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) ?
A.Interstitial pneumonia
B.Liver necrosis
C.Gastrointestinal ulcers
D.Skin abscesses
Q 148 :
Which laboratory technique helps in identifying specific pathogens in animal samples ?
A.Culture and sensitivity testing
B.Radioimmunoassay
C.Microscopy
D.Thermal imaging
Q 149 :
Which bacterium is responsible for causing anthrax in cattle ?
A.Bacillus anthracis
B.Escherichia coli
C.Streptococcus pyogenes
D.Mycobacterium bovis
Q 150 :
What is the pathogenesis of blue tongue disease in sheep ?