Question for RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Grade III 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Professional Ability, General Awareness, General Intelligence and Reasoning, General Science, Mathematics

Question Bank RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam - English

Back to Exam

Professional Ability

Question 1Single Answer

The stress-strain curve is plotted between?

A
Load and extension
B
Stress and strain
C
Force and time
D
Hardness and load

Question 2Single Answer

Which point on the stress-strain curve indicates the end of elastic deformation?

A
Ultimate point
B
Fracture point
C
Yield point
D
Proportional limit

Question 3Single Answer

The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is called?

A
Poisson’s ratio
B
Modulus of elasticity
C
Bulk modulus
D
Rigidity modulus

Question 4Single Answer

Percentage elongation is primarily a measure of?

A
Strength
B
Hardness
C
Ductility
D
Toughness

Question 5Single Answer

In engineering stress-strain curve, stress is calculated using?

A
Instantaneous cross-sectional area
B
Original cross-sectional area
C
Final cross-sectional area
D
Average cross-sectional area

Question 6Single Answer

Necking phenomenon is observed after?

A
Proportional limit
B
Yield point
C
Ultimate tensile strength
D
Elastic limit

Question 7Single Answer

Which material shows a clear distinct yield point in tensile test?

A
Mild steel
B
Aluminium
C
Copper
D
Cast iron

Question 8Single Answer

The upper yield point is also known as?

A
Lower yield point
B
Yield strength
C
Proof stress
D
Upper yield stress

Question 9Single Answer

Proof stress is used for materials which do not have?

A
Clear yield point
B
High ductility
C
High hardness
D
Low toughness

Question 10Single Answer

Young’s modulus is highest for which material?

A
Rubber
B
Mild steel
C
Aluminium
D
Cast iron

Question 11Single Answer

The slope of the initial straight line portion of stress-strain curve gives?

A
Yield strength
B
Ultimate strength
C
Modulus of elasticity
D
Breaking strength

Question 12Single Answer

Which property is NOT determined from tensile test?

A
Yield strength
B
Ultimate tensile strength
C
Hardness number
D
Percentage elongation

Question 13Single Answer

True stress is always __________ engineering stress after necking.

A
Less than
B
Equal to
C
Greater than
D
Half of

Question 14Single Answer

Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of?

A
Longitudinal strain to lateral strain
B
Lateral strain to longitudinal strain
C
Shear strain to normal strain
D
Volumetric strain to linear strain

Question 15Single Answer

For most engineering metals, Poisson’s ratio lies between?

A
0.1 – 0.2
B
0.25 – 0.35
C
0.4 – 0.5
D
0.6 – 0.8

Question 16Single Answer

Resilience is the ability of material to absorb energy?

A
Up to fracture
B
Up to elastic limit
C
Up to yield point
D
During plastic deformation

Question 17Single Answer

Toughness is represented by?

A
Area under elastic portion
B
Total area under stress-strain curve
C
Slope of curve
D
Height of curve

Question 18Single Answer

The maximum stress a material can withstand is called?

A
Yield stress
B
Proof stress
C
Ultimate tensile stress
D
Breaking stress

Question 19Single Answer

In tensile testing machine, extensometer is used to measure?

A
Load
B
Extension/strain
C
Hardness
D
Impact energy

Question 20Single Answer

Which test specimen is dog-bone shaped?

A
Charpy
B
Izod
C
Tensile
D
Bend

Question 21Single Answer

Strain is a __________ quantity.

A
Scalar
B
Vector
C
Tensor
D
Dimensionless

Question 22Single Answer

The primary purpose of impact testing is to determine?

A
Hardness
B
Toughness under sudden loading
C
Compressive strength
D
Fatigue life

Question 23Single Answer

In Charpy impact test, the specimen is positioned?

A
Vertically with V-notch
B
Horizontally supported at both ends with notch facing down
C
In cantilever setup
D
Under compressive load

Question 24Single Answer

What distinguishes Izod impact test from Charpy test?

A
Izod uses cantilever specimen, Charpy uses simply supported beam
B
Izod measures hardness, Charpy measures toughness
C
Izod is for metals only
D
Izod applies static load

Question 25Single Answer

Hardness testing evaluates resistance to?

A
Fracture under impact
B
Permanent deformation or indentation
C
Elastic recovery
D
Tensile stretching

Question 26Single Answer

In Brinell hardness testing, the indenter used is?

A
Diamond pyramid
B
Steel ball
C
Conical diamond
D
Vickers square pyramid

Question 27Single Answer

Rockwell hardness testing advantage is?

A
Requires optical measurement
B
Direct reading of hardness value
C
Used only for soft materials
D
Measures toughness

Question 28Single Answer

In Vickers hardness testing, the indenter shape is?

A
Spherical ball
B
Square-based diamond pyramid
C
Conical tip
D
Flat punch

Question 29Single Answer

Bend tests are primarily used to assess?

A
Ductility and soundness of welds
B
Hardness under load
C
Impact resistance
D
Compressive strength

Question 30Single Answer

The Brinell hardness number (BHN) is calculated as?

A
Load divided by surface area of indentation
B
Load divided by depth of indentation
C
Diagonal length squared
D
Impact energy absorbed

Question 31Single Answer

Which hardness test uses a diamond cone indenter?

A
Brinell
B
Rockwell (C scale)
C
Vickers
D
Shore

Question 32Single Answer

In impact testing, absorbed energy is measured in?

A
Joules
B
Newton
C
Pascal
D
MPa

Question 33Single Answer

Ductile materials in tensile test show?

A
Cup and cone fracture
B
Plain fracture
C
No necking
D
Brittle failure

Question 34Single Answer

Brittle materials in tensile test show?

A
Cup and cone fracture
B
Plain fracture at 90°
C
High elongation
D
Necking

Question 35Single Answer

The property by which material can be drawn into wire is?

A
Malleability
B
Ductility
C
Hardness
D
Toughness

Question 36Single Answer

Load deflection test is commonly performed on?

A
Springs
B
Beams
C
Shafts
D
Gears

Question 37Single Answer

Which test is used to check weld ductility?

A
Tensile test
B
Bend test
C
Impact test
D
Hardness test

Question 38Single Answer

The transition temperature in impact test indicates change from?

A
Ductile to brittle behavior
B
Brittle to ductile behavior
C
Elastic to plastic
D
Hard to soft

Question 39Single Answer

In Vickers test, hardness is based on?

A
Diameter of indentation
B
Diagonal length of indentation
C
Depth of indentation
D
Area of ball contact

Question 40Single Answer

Charpy test uses which type of notch?

A
U-notch
B
V-notch
C
Keyhole notch
D
All of the above

Question 41Single Answer

The main limitation of Brinell test is?

A
Not suitable for thin materials
B
Requires microscope
C
Direct reading
D
For soft materials only

Question 42Single Answer

Ultimate tensile strength (UTS) is?

A
Maximum stress before fracture
B
Stress at yield
C
Breaking stress
D
Proof stress

Question 43Single Answer

In tensile test of mild steel, upper yield point is due to?

A
Strain ageing
B
Luders bands
C
Neck formation
D
Elastic recovery

Question 44Single Answer

Impact toughness is high in which condition?

A
High temperature
B
Low temperature
C
Room temperature
D
After heat treatment

Question 45Single Answer

Rockwell hardness uses different scales like?

A
A, B, C
B
Only B
C
Only C
D
HV

Question 46Single Answer

Which test is destructive in nature?

A
Ultrasonic
B
Tensile
C
Radiography
D
Dye penetrant

Question 47Single Answer

Percentage reduction in area measures?

A
Ductility
B
Strength
C
Hardness
D
Elasticity

Question 48Single Answer

In bend test, the specimen is bent to?

A
180° or specified angle
B
90° only
C
Until fracture
D
360°

Question 49Single Answer

The energy absorbed in impact test depends on?

A
Notch geometry
B
Temperature
C
Material type
D
All of the above

Question 50Single Answer

Vickers test is suitable for?

A
Macro hardness
B
Micro hardness
C
Very soft materials
D
Large samples only

Important Questions Package

RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam Online Question Bank Package

Buy RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.

+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download

Sr.	Package Name	Amount
1.	RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer	₹101 ~~[₹500]~~
2.	RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam - Hindi Description : 2000 Question with Answer	₹151 ~~[₹500]~~
3.	RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer	₹101 ~~[₹500]~~
4.	RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam - English Description : 2000 Question with Answer	₹151 ~~[₹500]~~
5.	RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam - Hindi Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)	₹151 ~~[₹450]~~
6.	RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam - English Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)	₹151 ~~[₹450]~~
7.	RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹450 ~~[₹800]~~
8.	RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam Question Bank Book - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹390 ~~[₹600]~~

General Awareness

Question 51Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 52Single Answer

Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?

A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu

Question 53Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan

Question 54Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 55Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 56Single Answer

Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?

A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 57Single Answer

What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?

A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems

Question 58Single Answer

Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?

A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan

Question 59Single Answer

Which is the longest river in India?

A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari

Question 60Single Answer

Who among the following was associated with Enlightenment philosophy?

A
Voltaire
B
Shakespeare
C
Erasmus
D
All of the above

Question 61Single Answer

Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?

A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons

Question 62Single Answer

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?

A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026

Question 63Single Answer

The Union Cabinet raised the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of wheat for the 2027-28 Rabi season by how much?

A
₹25 per quintal
B
₹15 per quintal
C
₹50 per quintal
D
₹75 per quintal

Question 64Single Answer

The Cabinet approved an Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) for Delhi at an approximate cost of:

A
₹790 crore
B
₹2,790 crore
C
₹1,790 crore
D
₹3,790 crore

Question 65Single Answer

Which initiative was launched under Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0 to develop 50 model cities?

A
PRAGATI-50
B
Smart City Mission
C
AMRUT 2.0
D
Clean India Mission

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Question 66Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 67Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 68Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 69Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 70Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 71Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 72Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 73Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 74Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 75Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 76Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 77Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 78Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 79Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 80Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

General Science

Question 81Single Answer

When Ramesh was at the age of 8 years, he hammered a nail into a large tree to mark his height. If the tree grows 2 cm/year, how much higher would the nail be after 6 years?

A
5 cm higher
B
0 cm higher
C
10 cm higher
D
8 cm higher

Question 82Single Answer

The molar fraction of hydrochloric acid extremely dilute aqueous solution is The pH of the resulting solution is-

A
approximately doubled
B
approximately halved
C
increased
D
reduced

Question 83Single Answer

Approximately how much blood flows the through a normal human heart beating 70 times per minute, having a relaxed volume 110 cc and compressed volume of 70cc?

A
7150 litres
B
4000 litres
C
28000 litres
D
11100 litres

Question 84Single Answer

Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of

A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these

Question 85Single Answer

Electron volt is a unit of

A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity

Question 86Single Answer

Dimensions of impulse are

A
[MLT ^–1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT^–2]
D
[ML^–1T^–3]

Question 87Single Answer

Potential is measured in

A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these

Question 88Single Answer

Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:

A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster

Question 89Single Answer

Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?

A
Ca₃Al₂O₆
B
Ca₃SiO₅
C
Ca₂SiO₄
D
Ca₃(PO₄)₂

Question 90Single Answer

What is the reson for white cement to be white ?

A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium

Mathematics

Question 91Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 92Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 93Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 94Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 95Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 96Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 97Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 98Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 99Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 100Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

Back to Exam

Latest RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Professional Ability

RRB Ministerial Lab Assistant Exam Online Question Bank Package

General Awareness

General Intelligence and Reasoning

General Science

Mathematics

Quick View