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RRC Trade Apprentice Exam - English

Duration: 90 ยท Questions: 100 ยท Max Marks: 100 ยท Language: 3

View RRC Jaipur Trade Apprentice 2026 Exam Page

General Knowledge

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
7
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
8
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
9
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
10
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
11
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
  1. A.National Income Committee
  2. B.Planning Commission
  3. C.Reserve Bank Of India
  4. D.Central Statistical Organisation
12
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
  1. A.April 1951         
  2. B.April 1955
  3. C.April 1957         
  4. D.April 1978
13
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
  1. A.2008     
  2. B.2009
  3. C.2010     
  4. D.2012
14
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
  1. A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
  2. B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
  3. C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
  4. D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
15
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
  1. A.President
  2. B.Prime Minister
  3. C.Finance Minister
  4. D.Commerce Minister
16
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
  1. A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
  2. B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
  3. C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
  4. D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
17
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
  1. A.Dutt committee
  2. B.Lakdawala committee
  3. C.Cheliah Committee
  4. D.Chakravorty Committee
18
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
  1. A.1975                 
  2. B.1981
  3. C.1991                 
  4. D.2000
19
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
            Which of the above statements are correct
  1. A.1,2 and 3          
  2. B.1,2 and 4
  3. C.1,3 and 4          
  4. D.2,3 and 4
20
When was first human development report of India issued
  1. A.April 2001         
  2. B.March 2000
  3. C.June 2002
  4. D.April 2002
21
In which state, the Department of Posts delivered mail using a drone for the first time ?
  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Telangana
  3. C.Gujarat
  4. D.Odisha
22
Bandhan Express and Maitree Express, which were seen in the news, run between India and which country ?
  1. A.Nepal
  2. B.Sri Lanka
  3. C.Bangladesh
  4. D.Myanmar
23
What is the theme of the ‘United Nations Peace keepers 2022’ ?
  1. A.People Peace Progress
  2. B.Peace for All
  3. C.Plant Peace Partnerships
  4. D.Tribute to Peacekeepers
24
As per the ‘Road Accidents in India – 2020’ report released recently, which state/UT recorded the highest accident severity in 2020 ?
  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Mizoram
  3. C.Assam
  4. D.Himachal Pradesh
25
Which is the second state to recognize Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights inside a National Park ?
  1. A.Rajasthan
  2. B.Chhattisgarh
  3. C.Karnataka
  4. D.Madhya Pradesh

General Intelligence

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
12
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
13
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
14
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
15
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
16
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
17
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
18
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
19
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
20
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
21
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
22
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.Both CAT and OWN
  2. B.Both BRU and INK
  3. C.Only CAT
  4. D.Only INK
  5. E.Only LEG
23
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
  1. A.OWN
  2. B.LEG
  3. C.BRU
  4. D.CAT
  5. E.INK
24
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
25
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
  1. A.HID
  2. B.SON
  3. C.Both LAP and BUT
  4. D.CAR
  5. E.Both CAR and LAP

Arithmetic Ability

1
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
  1. A.{–2, 2} 
  2. B.{–1, 0, 1}
  3. C.{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
  4. D.{0, 1, 2}
2
  1. D.None of these
3
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
  1. A.{2}
  2. B.{1, 2}  
  3. C.{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
  4. D.{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
4
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
  1. A.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
  2. B.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}  
  3. C.{2, 4, 6}
  4. D.{1, 3, 5}
5
If A B and A B, then
  1. A.A is called a proper subset of B
  2. B.A is called a super set of B
  3. C.A is not a subset of B 
  4. D.B is a subset of A
6
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
  1. A.15
  2. B.14
  3. C.16
  4. D.17
7
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
  1. A.2m – 1
  2. B.m 
  3. C.m2
  4. D.2m
8
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
  1. A.3
  2. B.8
  3. C.7
  4. D.None of these
9
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
  1. A.16
  2. B.15  
  3. C.4 
  4. D.None of these 
10
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
  1. A.A is always a subset of the complement of B
  2. B.B is always a subset of A  
  3. C.A and B are always disjoint
  4. D.A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint  
11
Which of the following is/are empty set? 
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z}   B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
  1. A.A
  2. B.B  
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of the above 
12
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
  1. A.empty
  2. B.finite
  3. C.infinite
  4. D.singleton 
13
The universal set for the sets   
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and   
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
  1. A.{1, 2}
  2. B.{1, 3}
  3. C.{1, 2, 3}
  4. D.{0, 1, 2, 3}
14
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0}, 
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and 
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
  1. A.A and B
  2. B.A and C  
  3. C.A, B and C 
  4. D.A, C and D
15
If A = (–3, 5) and  B = [–7, 9], then
  1. A.A = B
  2. B.A B 
  3. C.B A
  4. D.None of these 
16
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
  1. A.7, 6
  2. B.5, 1
  3. C.6, 3
  4. D.8, 7
17
Combine terms: 12a + 26b  - 4b – 16a .
  1. A.4a + 22b
  2. B.-28a + 30b
  3. C.-4a + 22b
  4. D.28a + 30b
18
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
  1. A.25.30
  2. B.25.5
  3. C.25.00
  4. D.12.25
19
60 Times of 8 Equals to
  1. A.480
  2. B.300
  3. C.250
  4. D.400
20
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
  1. A.A
  2. B.A and B
  3. C.A and C
  4. D.A, B and C
21
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
  1. A.N
  2. B.Y – X
  3. C.X
  4. D.Y
22
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
  1. A.I and III are correct
  2. B.II and III are correct  
  3. C.Only IV is correct 
  4. D.All above are correct 
23
    24
    Consider the following statements :
    1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
    2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    1. A.1 only
    2. B.2 only
    3. C.Both 1 and 2
    4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
    25
    What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
    1. A.13
    2. B.12
    3. C.14
    4. D.11

    General Science

    1
    In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
    1. A.metastable state to any lower state
    2. B.any higher state of lower state
    3. C.metastable state to ground state
    4. D.any higher state to ground state
    2
    A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
    1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
    2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
    3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
    4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
    3
    convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
    1. A.0.45 m    
    2. B.0.15 m
    3. C.0.30 m       
    4. D.0.6 m
    4
    Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
    1. A.having a constant phase difference
    2. B.of equal wavelength
    3. C.of equal speed
    4. D.having same shape of wavefront
    5
    Three resistors 1 รขโ€žยฆ, 2 รขโ€žยฆ, 3รขโ€žยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโ€žยฆ resistor is -
    1. A.0.75 A     
    2. B.1 A
    3. C.2 A         
    4. D.1.5 A
    6
    In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
    1. A.anywhere 
    2. B.emitter-collector
    3. C.collector-base
    4. D.base-emitter
    7
    Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
    1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
    2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
    3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
    4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
    1. A.2 and 4
    2. B.1 only
    3. C.3 and 4
    4. D.4 only
    8
    Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
    S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
    S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
    S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
    S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
    1. A.S1,S2 and S4
    2. B.S2 and S4
    3. C.S4 only
    4. D.S3 only
    9
    Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
    1. A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
    2. B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
    3. C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
    4. D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
    10
    According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
    1. A.same in all the medium
    2. B.lesser in rarer medium
    3. C.lesser in denser medium
    4. D.independent of the medium
    11
    10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
    1. A.between 7 and 8
    2. B.between 5 and 6
    3. C.between 6 and 7
    4. D.between 10 and 11
    12
    In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
    1. A.1.93 A         
    2. B.9.65 A
    3. C.19.3 A        
    4. D.0.965 A
    13
    The one which decreases with dilution is
    1. A.molar conductance
    2. B.conductance
    3. C.specific conductance
    4. D.equivalent conductance
    14
    Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
    1. A.28 mm   
    2. B.56 mm
    3. C.70 mm    
    4. D.140 mm
    15
    A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
    1. A.1 M solution of glucose
    2. B.0.05 M solution of glucose
    3. C.6% solution of glucose
    4. D.25% solution of glucose
    16
    In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
    1. A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
    2. B.to minimise the snow fall
    3. C.to minimise pollution
    4. D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
    17
    A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
    1. A.AB2 
    2. B.A2B
    3. C.AB
    4. D.AB3
    18
    In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
    1. A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
    2. B.decreases electron density at meta position
    3. C.increases electron  density at meta position
    4. D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
    19
    The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
    1. A.PCI5
    2. B.PCI3
    3. C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
    4. D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
    20
    The carbon bond length in benzene is
    1. A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
    2. B.same as in C2H4
    3. C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
    4. D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
    21
    The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
    1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
    2. B.the nature of the substrate
    3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
    4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
    22
    Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
    1. A.Water vapour
    2. B.Carbon monoxide
    3. C.Methane
    4. D.Oxygen
    23
    Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
    1. A.50%          
    2. B.75%
    3. C.0% 
    4. D.25%
    24
    An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
    1. A.fresh-water mussel
    2. B.tortoise
    3. C.frog
    4. D.jelly fish
    25
    Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
    1. A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
    2. B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
    3. C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
    4. D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat