Latest RRC WR Junior Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, Physics & Chemistry, Basics of Computers and Applications, Basics of Environment and Pollution Control, Civil Engineering
Question Bank RRC WR Junior Engineer Exam Stage II (Civil) - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which country test-fired the long-range ballistic missile kheibar ?
A
Israel
B
Iran
C
UAE
D
Ukraine
Question 12Single Answer
Which city is set to launch Kaveri 2.0 web-based property registration application ?
A
Chennai
B
Bengaluru
C
Pune
D
Mysuru
Question 13Single Answer
Araku Valley Coffee, which was seen in the news, is from which state ?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Assam
D
West Bengal
Question 14Single Answer
Which country recently launched its home grown space rocket Nuri ?
A
Russia
B
South Korea
C
Israel
D
UAE
Question 15Single Answer
Tina Turner, which was seen in the news, was associated with which profession ?
A
Author
B
Singer
C
Politician
D
Sports Person
Physics & Chemistry
Question 16Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 18Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 19Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 21Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 23Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 24Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 25Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 26Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 28Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 29Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 30Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Basics of Computers and Applications
Question 31Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 32Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 34Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 35Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 39Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 40Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Civil Engineering
Question 41Single Answer
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 42Single Answer
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Question 43Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A
40.5m3
B
50m3
C
75m3
D
94.7m3
Question 44Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank
Question 45Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 46Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l
Question 47Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 48Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when
A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Question 49Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A
5 m2
B
25 m2
C
10 m2
D
20 m2
Question 50Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
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Civil Engineering
Question 51Single Answer
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4
Question 52Single Answer
Sewage sickness relates to
A
Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment
B
Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage
C
reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil
D
Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
Question 53Single Answer
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
A
8.6
B
7.9
C
5.4
D
4.5
Question 54Single Answer
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?
A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 55Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 56Single Answer
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 57Single Answer
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
A
0.5m
B
1.25m
C
2.75m
D
4.25m
Question 58Single Answer
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
A
7.5%
B
9.5%
C
13.5%
D
16.5%
Question 59Single Answer
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
A
10 h 32 m 40 s AM
B
11h 32 m 39s PM
C
0 h 32 m 39s PM
D
11 h 32 m 39s AM
Question 60Single Answer
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
A
10 m
B
15 m
C
20 m
D
25 m
Question 61Single Answer
A transportation trip survey was undertaken between private car, and public car transportation. The proportion of those using private cars is 0.45. While using the public transport, the further choices available are Metro Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such a situation, the choice of interest in using a Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be respectively.
A
0.25, 0.3 and 0.45
B
0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
C
0.25, 0.45 and 0.3
D
0.3, 0.25 and 0.45
Question 62Single Answer
An airfoil of surface area 0.1 m2 is tested for lift L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22 kg/m3, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is measured to be 3.2 kgf. What is the lift coefficient? For a prototype wing of area 10 m2, what is the approximate lift at an air speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack of 5°?
A
0.572 and 700 kgf
B
0.603 and 700 kfg
C
0.572 and 570 kgf
D
0.603 and 570 kgf
Question 63Single Answer
Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional areas of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively, are connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = 0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is 3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m3 of water to flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h, where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2; also, may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m2.
A
535 seconds
B
516 seconds
C
485 seconds
D
467 seconds
Question 64Single Answer
The consistency and flow resistance of a sample of bitumen can be determined through which of the following tests?
A
Viscosity test
B
Penetration test
C
Ductility test
D
Softening point test
Question 65Single Answer
A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with 15 m difference in their water levels through a 1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge through the pipe?
A
104 lps
B
134 lps
C
165 lps
D
196 lps
Question 66Single Answer
Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of
A
Gravel, filler and 30/40 bitumen
B
Sand, filler and 30/40 bitumen only
C
Gravel, sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen
D
Sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen only
Question 67Single Answer
Consider a soil sample, for which tests yield the following results:
Passing 75 micron sieve 62%
Liquid limit 35%
Plasticity Index 14%
As per the group index classification of soil, what is the soil condition of the above soil sample?
A
Poor
B
Fair
C
Good
D
Excellent
Question 68Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ductility of bitumen:
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit bitumen to undergo large deformation without breaking.
2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally adhesive but do not have good cementing properties.
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different temperatures in order to pronounce on the suitability of the material.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
3 only
B
2 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 69Single Answer
What is the critical thickness of a prestressed concrete pavement (using Westergaard’s Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for impact. Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm2. Assume flexural strength of concrete as 50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3, and modulus of elasticity as 3 × 105 kg/cm2.
A
19.6 cm
B
21.6 cm
C
23.6 cm
D
25.6 cm
Question 70Single Answer
At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m and 5 m at the upstream and downstream, respectively. The channel is wide rectangular. The discharge per unit width is nearly
A
5.8 m2/s
B
6.4 m2/s
C
7.3 m2/s
D
8.3 m2/s
Question 71Single Answer
Overspeed and delay studies on a preselected section of a Highway are conducted by
A
Fast moving car method
B
Enoscope
C
Radar
D
Traffic contours
Question 72Single Answer
The surface tension of water at 20°C is 75 × 10–3 N/m. The difference in water surface within and outside an open-ended capillary tube of 1mm internal bore, inserted at the water surface, would nearly, be
A
7 mm
B
11 mm
C
15 mm
D
19 mm
Question 73Single Answer
Survey of India was publishing toposheets using a scale of
A
1 : 1000
B
1 : 5000
C
1 : 10000
D
1 : 50000
Question 74Single Answer
The maximum speed of a train on B.G. track having a curvature of 3° and cant of 10 cm with allowable cant deficiency of 76 mm, for conditions obtaining in India, is
A
87.6 km/h
B
99.6 km/h
C
76.6 km/h
D
65.6 km/h
Question 75Single Answer
The gradient for a B.G railway line such that the grade resistance together with curve resistance due a 4° curve which will be equivalent to a simple ruling gradient of 1 in 150 is
A
1 : 180
B
1 : 200
C
1 : 300
D
1 : 400
Question 76Single Answer
A pelton wheel works under a head of 400m. Friction loss through the pipe flow is limited to 10%. The coefficient of velocity for the jet is 0.98. What is the velocity of the jet?
Take g = 10 m/s2.
A
83 m/s
B
71 m/s
C
65 m/s
D
56 m/s
Question 77Single Answer
The value of porosity of a soil sample in which the total volume of soil grains is equal to twice the total volume of voids would be
A
30%
B
40%
C
50%
D
60%
Question 78Single Answer
A solid cylinder of length H, diameter D and of relative density S floats in neutral equilibrium in water with its axis vertical. What is the ratio of H to D if S = 0.6?
A
0.86
B
0.72
C
0.52
D
0.46
Question 79Single Answer
In a two-dimensional flow, with its stream function = 2xy, the velocity at a point (3,4) is
A
12.0 units
B
10.0 units
C
8.0 units
D
6.0 units
Question 80Single Answer
An open rectangular tank of dimensions 4m×3m×2m contains water to a height of 1.6m. It is then accelerated along the longer side. What is the maximum acceleration possible without spilling the water? If this acceleration is then increased by 10%, what amount of water will be spilt off?
A
1.472 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
B
1.962 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
C
1.472 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
D
1.962 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
Question 81Single Answer
While conducting the flow measurement using a triangular notch, an error of +2% in head over the notch is observed. The percentage error in the computed discharge would be
A
+7%
B
–3%
C
+5%
D
–4%
Question 82Single Answer
An orifice is located in the side of a tank with its centre 10 cm above the base of the tank. The constant water level is 1.0 m above the centre of orifice. The coefficient of velocity is 0.98. On the issuing jet, the horizontal distance from the vena-contracta to where the jet is 10 cm below vena-contracta is
A
1.62m
B
1.00m
C
0.62m
D
0.32m
Question 83Single Answer
The velocity of water at the outer edge of a 60cm diameter whirlpool, where the water level is horizontal is 2.5 m/s. The velocity of water at a level where the diameter of the whirlpool is 15 cm, is
A
1 m/s
B
5 m/s
C
8 m/s
D
10 m/s
Question 84Single Answer
In a trapezoidal channel with bed width of 2m, and side slopes of 2V on 1H, critical flow occurs at a depth of 1m. What will be the quantity of flow and the flow velocity?
Take g as 10m/s2.
A
7.22 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
B
6.82 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
C
7.22 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
D
6.82 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
Question 85Single Answer
A 7.5 m wide rectangular channel conveys 12 m3/s of water with a velocity of 1.5 m/s. The specific energy head of the flow is
A
1.18m
B
1.78m
C
2.18m
D
2.78m
Question 86Single Answer
The sequent depth ratio in a hydraulic jump formed in a rectangular horizontal channel is 10. The Froude number of the supercritical flow is
A
12.2
B
10.4
C
7.42
D
4.21
Question 87Single Answer
A partially open sluice gate discharges water at 6 m/s with a depth of 40 cm in a rectangular horizontal channel of width 5 m. What would be the post-jump depth of flow on the downstream of the gate by taking g as 10 m/s2?
A
1.51 m
B
1.70 m
C
1.85 m
D
1.95 m
Question 88Single Answer
What is the maximum power available at the downstream end of a pipeline 3 km long, 20 cm in diameter, if water enters at the upstream end at a pressure of 720 m of water, with the taking pipe friction coefficient as 0.03 and g as 10m/s2?
A
770 mhp
B
740 mhp
C
700 mhp
D
660 mhp
Question 89Single Answer
In the design of pipeline the usual practice is to assume that due to aging of pipelines:
1. The effective roughness increases linearly with time
2. The friction factor increases linearly with time 3. The flow through the pipe becomes linearly lesser with time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1,2 and 3
B
3 only
C
2 only
D
1 only
Question 90Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a constant. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a function of the flow Reynolds number.
3. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of relative roughness only.
4. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of the flow Reynolds number and relative roughness.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
2 and 4
D
1 and 4
Question 91Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 92Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 93Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia
Question 94Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 95Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 96Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 98Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 99Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 100Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00
Question 101Single Answer
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
A
Sprinkling water
B
Membrane curing
C
High-pressure steam curing
D
Infrared radiation curing
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
A
Compacting factor
B
Slump test
C
Vee-Bee test
D
Kelly Ball test
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 104Single Answer
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 107Single Answer
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
A
Inner Bark and Sap Wood
B
Pith and Heart Wood
C
Sap Wood and Heart Wood
D
Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Question 108Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 109Single Answer
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
A
Vertical displacements in a structure
B
Rotational displacements in a structure
C
System of forces in equilibrium
D
Stress-strain behavior of a material
Question 110Single Answer
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
A
2.5 and 2.5
B
2.5 and 5
C
5 and 1.67
D
6 and 2.50
Question 111Single Answer
The principal stresses at a point are 2 (tensile) and (compressive), and the stress at elastic limit for the material in simple tension is 210 N/mm2. According to maximum shear strain theory, the value of at failure is
A
70 N/mm2
B
105 N/mm2
C
140 N/mm2
D
210 N/mm2
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or hoisting loads.
2. With the use of dipper and stick, power shovels can be used as hoes.
3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often used comfortably in the working of a tractor.
4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines if the material is water-saturated.
A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 113Single Answer
Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are heated to a same temperature. Forces are applied at the ends of the bars to maintain their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the stress on the Aluminium bar if the stress on the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?
A
16.7 MPa
B
66.7 MPa
C
136.7 MPa
D
150.0 MPa
Question 114Single Answer
A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and bottom are 120 N/mm2 and 80 N/mm2, respectively. The depth of the natural axis from the top of the beam will be
A
120 mm
B
100 mm
C
80 mm
D
60 mm
Question 115Single Answer
In the analysis of beams subjected to loads, the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a
1. Point of Contraflexure
2. Point of Maximum Shear Force
3. Point of Inflection
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 116Single Answer
A tractor has a permissible loaded speed of 200 m/minute, which can increase by 25% when the load is removed/deposited. Generally, it is operated at 80% of the permissible speed (loaded unloaded). It works at a location where haul distance is 120 m. Rest allowance per round-trip is taken as 50 seconds on an average. Fixed time per trip, for loading and unloading and turnaround, etc., is 30 seconds. What is its effective cycle time?
A
157 seconds
B
161 seconds
C
173 seconds
D
182 seconds
Question 117Single Answer
The purpose of lateral ties in a short RC column is to
A
Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
B
Facilitate compaction of concrete
C
Increase the load carrying capacity of the column
D
Facilitate construction
Question 118Single Answer
When a two-hinged parabolic arch is subjected to a rise in ambient temperature, the horizontal thrust at the support will
A
Increase
B
Decrease
C
Remain same
D
Increase or decrease depending on the span
Question 119Single Answer
In the slope-deflection equations, deformations are considered to be caused by
A
Shear forces and bending moments only
B
Axial forces, shear forces and bending moments
C
Axial forces and bending moments only
D
Bending moments only
Question 120Single Answer
The maximum bending moment caused by a set of concentrated moving loads is
A
Always at the midpoint of span
B
Between the midpoint and concentrated load next to the midpoint of the span
C
Not definable
D
Always under a load close to the centroid of the set of loads
Question 121Single Answer
Force method of analysis of a structure is particularly preferred when
1. The degrees of freedom of the structure become large
2. The structure has less number of static, and more number of kinematic, indeterminacies
3. The structure has more numbers of static, and less numbers of kinematic, indeterminacies
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 122Single Answer
Stiffness matrix method is the category of
1. Compatibility method
2. Displacement method
3. Force method
4. Equilibrium method
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 123Single Answer
Muller-Breslau Principal for obtaining influence lines is applicable to
1. Statically determinate beams and frame
2. Statically indeterminate structures, the material of which is elastic, and follows Hooke’s law.
3. Any statically indeterminate structure
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 124Single Answer
The plastic neutral axis
1. Divides the given section into two equal halves
2. Divides the given section into two unequal parts
3. Lies on the centroidal axis of the section
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 125Single Answer
The plastic moment capacity MP is
A
Less than the yield moment
B
Equal to the yield moment
C
Greater than the yield moment
D
Dependent on section dimensions
Question 126Single Answer
Web crippling is caused by
A
Excessive bending moment
B
Failure of web under point loads
C
Width of flanges
D
Column action of web
Question 127Single Answer
The block shear failure of a bolted joint in tension occurs because of
1. Use of higher shear strength bolts
2. Use of paltes with higher bearing strength
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neithter 1 nor 2
Question 128Single Answer
As per IS code, the maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in bolted joints of tension members is nominally
A
12 times the thickness of the plate
B
12 times the diameter of the bolt
C
16 times the thickness of the plate
D
16 times the diameter of the bolt
Question 129Single Answer
ISMB 100 (rx = 40 mm, ry = 10 mm) has been used as a column in a industrial shed. Along the minor axis, the the column has restraints in the form of purlins at 1.0 m intervals. Effective length factor along major and minor axes are 1.2 and 1.0, respectively. If the slenderness ratio is restricted to 120, the maximum column height will be
A
1.0 m
B
2.4 m
C
4.0 m
D
4.8 m
Question 130Single Answer
As per IS 800 – 2007, the permitted slenderness ratio for a bracing member in case of hangers shall be
A
140
B
145
C
150
D
160
Question 131Single Answer
A rectangular beam of depth d is under bending. Load has been gradually increased when the top fibre has obtained five times the strain at the first yield. What depth of the beam will still respond by elastic conditions?
A
0.16 d
B
0.20 d
C
0.25 d
D
0.40
Question 132Single Answer
The ultimate moment capacity of a mild steel section is usually
A
Equal to the plastic moment capacity
B
More than the yield moment capacity
C
Let than the yield moment capacity
D
More than the plastic moment capacity
Question 133Single Answer
The portal bracing in a truss-bridge is used to
A
Transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
B
Maintain the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
C
Stiffen the structure laterally
D
Prevent the buckling of top chord under side sway
Question 134Single Answer
Consider the following cases in the design of reinforced concrete members in flexure:
1. Over-reinforced section
2. Tension failure
3. Compression failure
4. Under-reinforced section
Which of the above cases are considered for safe design of R.C members in flexure?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 135Single Answer
The bond between steel and concrete is mainly due to
1. Mechanical resistance
2. Pure adhesive resistance
3. Frictional resistance
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 136Single Answer
The carbonation process is demonstrated more by
A
Atmospheric corrosion
B
Chloride corrosion
C
Stress corrosion
D
Hydrogen embrittlement
Question 137Single Answer
When a sprially reinforced short column is loaded axially, the concrete inside the core is subjected to
A
Bending and compression
B
Biaxial compression
C
Triaxial compression
D
Uniaxial compression
Question 138Single Answer
In a reinforced concrete section, shear stress distribution is diagrammatically
A
Wholly Parabolic
B
Wholly Rectangular
C
Parabolic above NA and Rectangular below NA
D
Rectangular above NA and Parabolic below NA
Question 139Single Answer
As per IS 456 – 2000, the maximum permissible shear stress, TCmax' is based on
A
Diagonal tension failure
B
Diagonal compression failure
C
Flexural tension failure
D
Flexural compression failure
Question 140Single Answer
Footings shall be designed to sustain the
1. Applied loads
2. Moments and forces under relatable loading conditions
3. Induced reactions
A
1and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Basics of Environment and Pollution Control
Question 141Single Answer
"It is a complex of many variables, which surrounds man as well as the living organisms."
The given statement refers to which of the following ?
A
Atmosphere
B
Knowledge
C
Environment
D
None of these
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect regarding objectives of environmental studies ?
A
To enable children to have basic knowledge of various numerals, alphabets and the basic things we see everyday around us
B
To develop habit of performing task in a systematic manner and learn to carry out any activity with precision
C
Develop the habit of cramming in children for their lengthy task which help them in teaching-learning process
D
To make them understand simple graphs, maps, flowcharts and statistical tables.
Question 143Single Answer
Which environment includes the following means of transportation, agricultural fields, mills, economic activities, division of labour lifestyle ?
A
Physical environment
B
Social environment
C
Psychological environment
D
Natural environment
Question 144Single Answer
Consider the following statements
I. It is a inter disciplinary field based on men and environment relationships.
II. It is different from normal environment as each individiual has its own environment in which he/she lives.
III. Its subject matter includes types of environment, human attitude towards environment, efforts of culture etc.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct regarding psychological environment ?
A
I and II
B
Only II
C
I and II
D
All of these
Question 145Single Answer
Consider the following statements
I. It promotes the exploitation of natural resources.
II. It ensures that different form of nature remain favourable towards us.
III. It enables children to understand different facts of environment briefly.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct regarding the study of environment ?
A
Only I
B
Only III
C
I and III
D
II and III
Question 146Single Answer
When the rate of photosynthesis in the plants gets increased ?
A
When numbers of chloroplast increases
B
When the amount of chlorophyll increases
C
When sunlight increases
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 147Single Answer
Which is not the example of macronutrients ?
A
Carbon
B
Cobalt
C
Hydrogen
D
Oxygen
Question 148Single Answer
Which of the following is correct regarding heterotrophic components ?
A
These organisms feed on ready-made organic food
B
They also decompose the complex organic compounds
C
These are divided into micro and macro consumers
D
All of the above
Question 149Single Answer
"Men lived in caves, moved from one place to another and got affected by the environment." The sentence indicates which period of human development ?
A
Animal husbandry and herding period
B
Food accumulation period
C
Agriculture period
D
None of the above
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the following is the characteristic of agriculture period of human development ?
A
Men started to use natural resources for his needs and a trend of continuous consumption of resources begun.
B
Men started fencing, collecting fodder for animals
C
It was the process of growth of organic compounds according to human needs
= 2xy, the velocity at a point (3,4) is