The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 3Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 4Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 5Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 6Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 7Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 8Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 9Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 10Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 11Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 12Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 13Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 14Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 15Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 16Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 17Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 18Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 19Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 20Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 21Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 22Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 23Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 24Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 25Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 26Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 27Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 28Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 29Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 30Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 31Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
Question 32Single Answer
What is √0.0009 ?
A
0.003
B
0.03
C
0.3
D
0.09
Question 33Single Answer
What is √1156 ?
A
32
B
34
C
36
D
38
Question 34Single Answer
What is √2025 ?
A
35
B
40
C
45
D
50
Question 35Single Answer
If a * b = a2 + b2 and a ∙ b = a2 − b2, then the value of (5 * 2) ∙ 25 is ?
A
225
B
226
C
216
D
215
Question 36Single Answer
When the number 398 is divided by 5, the remainder is ?
A
3
B
4
C
1
D
2
Question 37Single Answer
If 3 ÷ [(4 ÷ 5) ÷ 6],C = [3 ÷ (4 ÷ 5)] ÷ 6 and D = 3 ÷ 4( 5 ÷ 6), then ?
A
A and D are equal
B
All are equal
C
A and B are equal
D
A and C are equal
Question 38Single Answer
In 2010, the population of a city is 30.3 million. This number is same as ?
A
3030000
B
30030000
C
30300000
D
303000000
Question 39Single Answer
The number of integers less than − 3 but greater than – 8 is ?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
6
Question 40Single Answer
The remainder obtained when 231 is dividd by 5 ?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 41Single Answer
1.66 x 1.66 + 0.66 x 0.66 – 1.32 x 1.66 is equal to ?
A
0.1
B
1
C
10
D
101
Question 42Single Answer
In Roman system, 98 is written as ?
A
CXVIII
B
XLVIII
C
XCVIII
D
LXVIII
Question 43Single Answer
the sum of the digits a and b is ?
A
13
B
12
C
15
D
14
Question 44Single Answer
The product of two whole numbers is 24. The smallest possible sum of these numbers is ?
A
10
B
12
C
9
D
9
Question 45Single Answer
The remainder obtained when 496 is divided by 6 is ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 4 and 9 ?
A
2368
B
2736
C
3954
D
3814
Question 47Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A
Sum of two prime numbers is always a prime number
B
1 is the smallest prime number
C
A composite number can be odd
D
There is no even prime number
Question 48Single Answer
The values of y for which the 4 - digit number 51 y3 is divisible by 9 is ?
A
2 or 3
B
0 or 9
C
0 or 3
D
3 or 9
Question 49Single Answer
The product of integers between − 7 and – 3 is ?
A
120
B
− 360
C
− 120
D
840
General Awareness
Question 50Single Answer
The district of Rajasthan which touches the boundary of Uttar Pradesh —
A
Bharatpur
B
Jaipur
C
Kota
D
Pali
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General Awareness
Question 51Single Answer
Who gave the name "Rajputana" for the Rajasthan State and in which year?
A
Col. Tod; 1806
B
Fahien; 633
C
George Thomas; 1800
D
Max Muller; 1815
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following districts of Rajasthan has longest boundary which touches Pakistan?
A
Barmer
B
Bikaner
C
Jaisalmer
D
Ganganagar
Question 53Single Answer
Rajasthan Day is organized on —
A
20th March
B
29th March
C
30th March
D
31st March
Question 54Single Answer
Which among the following states not touches the boundry of Rajasthan ?
A
Bihar
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Uttar Pradesh
Question 55Single Answer
Which area of Rajasthan State was known as 'Maru Kantar in the Ramayana' ?
A
Bagar Region
B
Shekhawati Region
C
South-East Plateau
D
Western Rajasthan
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following Pakistani District do not make border with Rajasthan—
A
Khairpur
B
Meerpur Khas
C
Sukkur
D
Tharparkar
Question 57Single Answer
The correct sequence in descending order of the given districts in terms of density of population in 2011 is —
A
Kota, Ajmer, Ganganagar and Churu
B
Jaipur, Bharatpur, Dausa and Alwar
C
Jaipur, Bharatpur, Alwar and Dausa
D
Alwar, Dausa, Ajmer and Churu
Question 58Single Answer
Adjacent district in Rajasthan are —
A
Churu, Jhunjhunu, Jaipur
B
Jhalawar, Bundi, Tonk
C
Sirohi, Barmer, Jaisalmer
D
Sirohi, pali, Nagaur
Question 59Single Answer
State bird of Rajasthan is —
A
Chinkara
B
Godawan
C
Neelgai
D
Peacock
Question 60Single Answer
"KUBADPATTI" of Rajasthan is located at —
A
Banswara - Dungarpur
B
Bharatpur - Alwar
C
Nagaur - Ajmer
D
Kota - Bundi
Question 61Single Answer
The smallest inter-state boundary of Rajasthan is with the state of —
A
Gujarat
B
Haryana
C
M.P.
D
Punjab
Question 62Single Answer
Which place is occupied by Rajasthan in terms of area in the country?
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 63Single Answer
What is the percentage of area of Rajasthan with respect to the area of India ?
A
4.6 %
B
5.8 %
C
8.2 %
D
10.4 %
Question 64Single Answer
To who did Col. James Tod dedicated his travelague "Travels in Western India" —
A
Lord Minte
B
Lord William Bentinck
C
William Hunter Blair
D
Yati Gyanchandra
Question 65Single Answer
As per 2011 census, the population Rajasthan is —
A
4.32 crores
B
5.8 Crores
C
6.8 Crores
D
7.1 Crores
Question 66Single Answer
Position occupied by Rajasthan related to population of India is —
A
First
B
Fourth
C
Eighth
D
Eleventh
Question 67Single Answer
Areawise place of Rajasthan in the country is —
A
First
B
Second
C
Sixth
D
Ninth
Question 68Single Answer
The Population growth rate in Rajasthan during 2001-2011 can be classified as —
A
High growth with definite sign of slowing down.
B
Rapid high gowth
C
Stagnant population
D
Steady growth
Question 69Single Answer
As per 2011 census the literacy rate of female in Rajasthan is —
A
39.7%
B
46.6%
C
48.0%
D
52.1 %
Question 70Single Answer
When was the Panchayati Raj system started in Rajasthan?
A
1959
B
1960
C
1961
D
1962
Question 71Single Answer
How many levels are there under the Panchayati Raj system in Rajasthan?
A
two
B
three
C
four
D
five
Question 72Single Answer
Which institution works at the village level under the Panchayati Raj system in Rajasthan?
A
Gram Panchayat
B
Panchayat Committee
C
District Council
D
none of the above
Question 73Single Answer
Which institution works at the district level under the Panchayati Raj system in Rajasthan?
A
Gram Panchayat
B
Panchayat Committee
C
District Council
D
none of the above
Question 74Single Answer
Who are called officials of Panchayati Raj system in Rajasthan?
A
Sarpanch
B
Deputy Sarpanch
C
ward member
D
all of the above
Question 75Single Answer
What is the highest mountain peak in the world?
A
K2
B
Kangchenjunga
C
Mount Everest
D
Lhotse
Question 76Single Answer
Which continent is known as the "Dark Continent"?
A
Asia
B
Africa
C
Australia
D
Antarctica
Question 77Single Answer
Which river flows through the Grand Canyon?
A
Colorado
B
Mississippi
C
Missouri
D
Rio Grande
Question 78Single Answer
What is the capital city of Brazil?
A
Rio de Janeiro
B
São Paulo
C
Brasília
D
Salvador
Question 79Single Answer
Which mountain range separates Europe from Asia?
A
Alps
B
Ural Mountains
C
Andes
D
Himalayas
Question 80Single Answer
Who founded the city of Jaipur in Rajasthan?
A
Raja Man Singh
B
Maharana Pratap
C
Maharaja Jai Singh II
D
Rao Jodha
Question 81Single Answer
Which dynasty ruled Marwar during the mediaeval period?
A
Sisodia
B
Rathore
C
Chauhan
D
Kachwaha
Question 82Single Answer
What was the capital of Mewar during the mediaeval era?
A
Udaipur
B
Chittorgarh
C
Jodhpur
D
Ajmer
Question 83Single Answer
Who led the Battle of Haldighati in 1576?
A
Maharana Pratap
B
Akbar
C
Raja Man Singh
D
Rao Jodha
Question 84Single Answer
Which fort was built by Rao Jodha in 1459?
A
Mehrangarh Fort
B
Chittorgarh Fort
C
Amber Fort
D
Kumbhalgarh Fort
Question 85Single Answer
Which crop is known as the “Golden Bean” in Rajasthan?
A
Mustard
B
Soybean
C
Bajra
D
Wheat
Question 86Single Answer
What is the primary food grain crop grown in Rajasthan?
A
Rice
B
Bajra
C
Maize
D
Barley
Question 87Single Answer
Which district in Rajasthan is the largest producer of mustard?
A
Alwar
B
Bharatpur
C
Sri Ganganagar
D
Jaipur
Question 88Single Answer
What is the main commercial crop grown in the Hadoti Plateau?
A
Cotton
B
Soybean
C
Groundnut
D
Sugarcane
Question 89Single Answer
Which crop is extensively cultivated in the irrigated areas of Sri Ganganagar?
A
Wheat
B
Bajra
C
Jowar
D
Pulses
Question 90Single Answer
What is the name of the campaign launched by CM Bhajanlal Sharma for water conservation in June 2025?
A
Jal Jeevan Mission
B
Vande Ganga
C
Narmada Abhiyan
D
Save Water Initiative
Question 91Single Answer
Which policy did the Rajasthan government aim to implement to train 1.5 lakh youth in the next two years?
A
Skill Policy
B
Education Policy
C
Health Policy
D
Tourism Policy
Question 92Single Answer
What was the duration of the ‘Vande Ganga’ water conservation campaign launched in June 2025?
A
June 1–15
B
June 10–25
C
June 5–20
D
June 15–30
Question 93Single Answer
Who was assigned special responsibilities for the ‘Vande Ganga’ campaign across 41 districts in Rajasthan?
A
District Collectors
B
Village Panchayats
C
Local NGOs
D
State Ministers
Question 94Single Answer
Which new exploration module was set to be launched by the Ministry of Coal on July 4, 2025, affecting Rajasthan’s coal sector?
A
Mining Safety Module
B
Coal Extraction Module
C
Digital Approval Module
D
Environmental Clearance Module
Question 95Single Answer
World AIDS Day is observed annually on December 1 to raise awareness about HIV/AIDS. Which theme was adopted for World AIDS Day 2025?
A
Ending the HIV Epidemic
B
Know Your Status
C
My Health, My Right
D
Zero Discrimination
Question 96Single Answer
India has been re-elected to the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) Council for the 2025-26 biennium. In which category did India secure the highest votes?
A
Category B (Economic Influence)
B
Category A (Major Maritime States)
C
Category C (Geographical Representation)
D
Observer Category
Question 97Single Answer
The Samudrayaan project, India's first manned deep-sea mission, faced delays in 2025 due to issues with components from which country?
A
United States
B
Russia
C
France
D
Japan
Question 98Single Answer
According to the Lowy Institute's Asia Power Index 2025, India has risen to which position in Asia?
A
3rd
B
2nd
C
1st
D
4th
Question 99Single Answer
Kashi Tamil Sangamam (KTS) 4.0 is scheduled to begin on December 2, 2025. Which ministry is hosting this event to strengthen cultural ties between Tamil Nadu and Varanasi?
A
Ministry of Culture
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Tourism
D
Ministry of External Affairs
Everyday Science
Question 100Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 101Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 102Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 103Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 104Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 106Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 107Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 108Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 110Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 111Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 112Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 113Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 114Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 115Single Answer
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A
Cyanohydrin
B
Dextran
C
Cyclohexane
D
Cyclonite
Question 116Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A
Phosphorus trichloride
B
Mercuric oxide
C
Graphite
D
Nitroglycerine
Question 117Single Answer
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A
Zinc and barium borosilicate
B
Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C
Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D
Pure silica and zinc oxide
Question 118Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A
Crystalline solid
B
Super cooled liquid
C
Condensed gas
D
Liquid crystal
Question 119Single Answer
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A
Ammonium nitrate
B
Ammonium sulphide
C
Ammonium phosphate
D
Ammonium sulphate
Question 120Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 121Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 122Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 123Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 124Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 125Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids
Question 126Single Answer
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
A
S–phase
B
G1–phase
C
G2–phase
D
M-phase
Question 127Single Answer
During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
A
Phophase
B
Metaphase
C
Anaphase
D
Telophase
Question 128Single Answer
Lysosome arises from
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
golgi apparatus
C
nucleus
D
mitochondria
Question 129Single Answer
The correct sequence of cell cycle is
A
S, G1, G2, M
B
S, M, G1, G2
C
G1, S, G2, M
D
M, G1, G2, S
Question 130Single Answer
Biological membranes are composed of
A
40% proteins and 60% lipids
B
50% proteins and 50% lipids
C
70% proteins and 30% lipids
D
60% proteins and 40% lipids
Question 131Single Answer
F1 particles / oxysome / elementary particles are present in
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
chloroplast
C
mitochondria
D
golgi complex
Question 132Single Answer
"Endomitosis" refers to
A
division of nucleus without chromosomal division
B
division of chromosome without nuclear division
C
division of cytoplasm
D
None of the above
Question 133Single Answer
When the concentration of water and solutes on either side of the cell membrane is same, the solution is said to be
A
hypertonic
B
isotonic
C
hypotonic
D
None of these
Question 134Single Answer
The function of nucleous is the synthesis of
A
DNA
B
m - RNA
C
r- RNA
D
t - RNA
Question 135Single Answer
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
A
0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
B
0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
C
0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
D
0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
Question 136Single Answer
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
A
~ 5 mg/l
B
~ 25 mg/l
C
~ 71.4 mg/l
D
~75 mg/l
Question 137Single Answer
What will be the concentration of 40 ppb SO₂ in µg/m³ unit at 25°C ?
A
~ 0.04 µg/m³
B
~ 1047 µg/m³
C
~ 104.7 µg/m³
D
~ 10.47 µg/m³
Question 138Single Answer
National Ambient air quality standards typically include following components :
A
Maximum and Minimum pollutant levels, adjustment for co - pollutants
B
Abetment strategies, non - attainment penalties
C
Ambient temperature, size distribution and relative humidity
D
Indicator (Chemical/Chemical class), Averaging time, Pollutant form and level
Question 139Single Answer
Primary air pollutants differ from secondary air pollutants as they :
A
are present in levels that can be weighed on filter paper
B
are directly emitted from identified sources
C
have undergone chemical transformation in air after release from identified sources
D
are designated as hazardous air pollutants
Question 140Single Answer
Continuity equation expresses the law of conservation of :
A
Momentum
B
Mass
C
Entropy
D
Energy
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following statements correctly represent the environmental wisdom worldwide ?
A
Our success depends on how well we manage the earth's life support systems mostly for our benefits
B
Our success depends on how well we manage the earth's life support systems for our benefit and for the rest of nature
C
Our success depends on learning how nature sustains itself and integrating such lessons from nature into the ways we think
D
Our success depends on using environmentally beneficial forms of economic growth and discourage environmentally harmful forms
Question 142Single Answer
Exposure concentration is _______ .
A
the amount of the chemical that is received by the target
B
the amount of chemical present in the medium with which an Organism has contact
C
the amount of the chemical that is excreted by the target
D
the amount of the chemical that is metabolized by the target
Question 143Single Answer
In ecotoxicology studies, ED - 50 is _______ .
A
the dose that affects 50% of the population or observed subjects
B
the dose that affects 95% of the population or observed subjects
C
the dose that affects 25% of the population or observed subjects
D
the dose that do not affect 50% of the total population
Question 144Single Answer
A hypothesis, that predicts a linear relationship in which rate of ecosystem processes is maximum with greatest number of species, is known as :
A
Rivet - popper hypothesis
B
Redundancy hypothesis
C
Diversity - stability hypothesis
D
Idiosyncratic hypothesis
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following is not a phase of secondary succession ?
A
Initiation
B
Continuation
C
Termination
D
Invasion
Question 146Single Answer
The Concept of r - and k - selection was originally given by :
A
MacArthur and Wilson (1967)
B
Grime (1979)
C
Molles (2008)
D
Mayr (1942)
Question 147Single Answer
The prefix "steno" and "eury” have been used for :
A
comparing the relative degree of tolerance of an organism to a given environmental factor
B
comparing the body size of organisms occurring in a given habitat
C
comparing the metabolic activity of organisms in a given habitat
D
comparing the distribution limits of organisms occurring across a biome
Question 148Single Answer
The strong and rapidly moving circumpolar upper air westerly circulation in a narrow belt of a few hundred kilometers width in the upper limit of the troposphere is called _______ .
A
Rossby waves
B
Jet streams
C
Walker streams
D
Hadley Circulation
Question 149Single Answer
Coriolis effect is :
A
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere
B
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air upwards in the Northern Hemisphere
C
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air towards the left in the Northern Hemisphere
D
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air downwards in the Northern Hemisphere