Latest RSSB Mahila Supervisor Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Hindi, General English, Mathematics & General Reasoning, General Knowledge, Managerial qualities, Nutrition and health knowledge and plans, Early child care and education
Question Bank RSSB Mahila Supervisor Exam - English
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 11Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 12Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 13Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 14Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 15Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 16Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 17Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 18Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 19Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 20Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
Question 21Single Answer
हिन्दी के अतिरिक्त कौन-सी भाषा देवनागरी भाषा में लिखी जाती है?
A
नेपाली
B
सिंधी
C
बांग्ला
D
पंजाबी
Question 22Single Answer
हिन्दी के सर्वप्रथम प्रकाशित समाचार पत्र का नाम है?
A
सम्मेलन पत्रिका
B
सरस्वती
C
उदन्त मार्तण्ड
D
नागरी प्रचारिणी पत्रिका
Question 23Single Answer
हिन्दी के प्रथम गद्यकार है?
A
राजा शिवप्रसाद सितारे
B
लल्लूलाल
C
भारतेन्दु हरिश्चन्द्र
D
बालकृष्ण
Question 24Single Answer
चारण काव्य की भाषा है?
A
डिंगल
B
प्राकृत
C
अवहटट्
D
ब्रजभाषा
Question 25Single Answer
'संदेश रासक' के रचनाकार हैं?
A
अमीर खुसरो
B
अब्दुर्रहमान
C
बिहारी
D
रहीम
General English
Question 26Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 27Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 28Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 29Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 30Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 31Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 32Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 33Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 34Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 35Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 36Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Mathematics & General Reasoning
Question 41Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 42Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 43Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 44Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 45Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
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Mathematics & General Reasoning
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 52Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 53Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 54Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 55Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 56Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 57Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 58Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 59Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 60Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 61Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 62Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 63Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 64Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 65Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
General Knowledge
Question 66Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 67Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 68Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 69Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 71Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 72Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 73Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 74Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 76Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 77Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 78Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 79Single Answer
What fraction of India's total area is covered by Rajasthan?
A
Around 5%
B
Around 15%
C
Around 10%
D
Around 20%
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A
Rajasthan's total geographical area is around 3.42 Lakh Sq. Km.
B
Total Populations of Rajasthan is around 10 crore.
C
Out of total population of Rajasthan, 24.9% people live in urban regions.
D
All of the above
Question 81Single Answer
Which district has highest population in Rajasthan?
A
Jaipur
B
Jaisalmer
C
Udaipur
D
Ajmer
Question 82Single Answer
What fraction of Rajasthan's total area is covered by Thar Desert?
A
Around 30%
B
Around 40%
C
Around 60%
D
Around 70%
Question 83Single Answer
The temple city of Osean in Rajasthan was established by which of the following Rajputs?
A
Gurjar Pratiharas
B
Chauhans
C
Solankis
D
Sisodias
Question 84Single Answer
The Jhamarkotra mines of Rajasthan are best known for which among the following minerals?
A
Mica
B
Zinc
C
Rock Phosphate
D
Lime Stone
Question 85Single Answer
What is the population of Scheduled Caste in Rajasthan?
A
20.3%
B
21%
C
17.8%
D
21.6%
Question 86Single Answer
According to census 2011, what is the literacy rate in Rajasthan?
A
60%
B
78%
C
66%
D
55%
Question 87Single Answer
How many people are working in Rajasthan (in percentage)?
A
56%
B
23%
C
43.6%
D
52.4%
Question 88Single Answer
The word 'Rajputana' for Rajasthan was first used by:
A
James Todd
B
George Thomas
C
Geogra Greeson
D
Kushal Labh
Question 89Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 90Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 91Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 92Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Question 93Single Answer
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge
Question 94Single Answer
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions
Question 95Single Answer
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A
4.0% of GDP
B
5.0% of GDP
C
4.5% of GDP
D
4.3% of GDP
Managerial qualities
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a type of communication?
A
Verbal
B
Non-verbal
C
Written
D
Automatic
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?
A
Email
B
Sign language
C
Text message
D
Telephone call
Question 98Single Answer
Which of the following is a barrier to effective communication?
A
Active listening
B
Clarity
C
Language differences
D
Feedback
Question 99Single Answer
What is the key to effective communication in professional settings?
A
Use of complex vocabulary
B
Clear and concise messaging
C
Frequent interruption
D
Overuse of non-verbal cues
Question 100Single Answer
Which of the following techniques is essential for improving communication during a meeting?
A
Frequent texting
B
Active listening
C
Speaking without pausing
D
Overuse of jargon
Question 101Single Answer
What is the purpose of feedback in communication?
A
To reprimand the speaker
B
To clarify and confirm understanding
C
To interrupt the conversation
D
To express disagreement
Question 102Single Answer
Which type of communication involves the use of body language, gestures, and facial expressions?
A
Verbal communication
B
Non-verbal communication
C
Written communication
D
Visual communication
Question 103Single Answer
What is the barrier to communication that involves emotional stress or prejudices?
A
Physical barrier
B
Emotional barrier
C
Cultural barrier
D
Language barrier
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following best defines effective communication?
A
Ensuring messages are clear and understood by all parties
B
Speaking without interruptions
C
Using complex language
D
Avoiding non-verbal cues
Question 105Single Answer
Which is an example of written communication?
A
A handshake
B
A telephone call
C
An email
D
A facial expression
Question 106Single Answer
Which type of communication involves speaking directly with another person?
A
Non-verbal communication
B
Written communication
C
Interpersonal communication
D
Public communication
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following is a method for ensuring clarity in communication?
A
Speaking quickly
B
Using complex words
C
Speaking slowly and clearly
D
Avoiding repetition
Question 108Single Answer
What is one of the main reasons why communication can fail?
A
The message is too simple
B
The listener is distracted
C
The message is too short
D
The speaker uses a low tone
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following can help overcome cultural barriers in communication?
A
Ignoring cultural differences
B
Using universal symbols
C
Understanding and respecting cultural diversity
D
Speaking in a common language only
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following is an effective technique for giving feedback?
A
Criticizing harshly
B
Being vague and indirect
C
Offering suggestions for improvement
D
Ignoring the recipient’s feelings
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective communication?
A
Empathy
B
Active listening
C
Arguing
D
Clarity
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of visual communication?
A
Telephone conversation
B
Presentation slides
C
Written instructions
D
Non-verbal cues
Question 113Single Answer
What is the key to successful communication in a public speaking setting?
A
Speaking quickly to get to the point
B
Using visuals to support the message
C
Speaking without pauses
D
Avoiding eye contact
Question 114Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier to communication?
A
Distraction from emotions
B
Poor internet connection
C
Language differences
D
Prejudices
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following can reduce language barriers in communication?
A
Using complicated phrases
B
Speaking louder
C
Using simple, clear language
D
Speaking without pauses
Nutrition and health knowledge and plans
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following is considered the most essential macronutrient for energy production in the body?
A
Proteins
B
Fats
C
Carbohydrates
D
Vitamins
Question 117Single Answer
Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in the human body?
A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamin B12
C
Vitamin C
D
Vitamin D
Question 118Single Answer
Which nutrient is necessary for muscle repair and growth?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Proteins
C
Fats
D
Vitamins
Question 119Single Answer
What is the primary source of dietary fiber?
A
Meat
B
Fish
C
Whole grains and vegetables
D
Dairy products
Question 120Single Answer
Which mineral is critical for the production of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
A
Calcium
B
Iron
C
Magnesium
D
Potassium
Question 121Single Answer
What does a balanced diet include?
A
Only fruits and vegetables
B
Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, water, and fiber
C
Only carbohydrates and proteins
D
Only vitamins and minerals
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following is a primary function of carbohydrates in the body?
A
Building muscles
B
Providing energy
C
Healing wounds
D
Producing hormones
Question 123Single Answer
Which nutrient is important for muscle growth and repair?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Protein
C
Fiber
D
Fats
Question 124Single Answer
Which vitamin is essential for bone health?
A
Vitamin C
B
Vitamin D
C
Vitamin A
D
Vitamin B12
Question 125Single Answer
What is the recommended daily intake of fiber for an adult?
A
5-10 grams
B
15-20 grams
C
25-30 grams
D
40-50 grams
Question 126Single Answer
Which nutrient is necessary for the formation of red blood cells?
A
Calcium
B
Iron
C
Magnesium
D
Sodium
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following is a source of healthy fats?
A
Butter
B
Fish, nuts, and olive oil
C
Fried foods
D
Processed meats
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following is not a macronutrient?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Proteins
C
Fats
D
Minerals
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following is true about a balanced diet?
A
It can be achieved by focusing on only one type of food.
B
It must include sufficient amounts of protein, fats, and carbohydrates.
C
It requires the exclusion of fats.
D
It does not need vitamins or minerals.
Question 130Single Answer
What disease is caused by a deficiency of protein?
A
Scurvy
B
Marasmus
C
Rickets
D
Goiter
Question 131Single Answer
Kwashiorkor is a condition caused by a deficiency of which nutrient?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Protein
C
Fats
D
Vitamins
Question 132Single Answer
What is a major symptom of malnutrition due to calorie deficiency?
A
Skin rashes
B
Weight gain
C
Fatigue and weakness
D
Increased appetite
Question 133Single Answer
A deficiency in calories can lead to which of the following?
A
Obesity
B
Malnutrition and underweight
C
Excessive growth
D
High blood pressure
Question 134Single Answer
Which deficiency can lead to poor absorption of fat-soluble vitamins?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Fats
C
Proteins
D
Vitamins
Question 135Single Answer
What is the primary function of fats in the body?
A
Provide energy and store vitamins
B
Promote digestion
C
Regulate body temperature
D
Promote muscle growth
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following is a consequence of protein deficiency?
A
High blood pressure
B
Muscle wasting and weakness
C
Excessive energy levels
D
Increased bone density
Question 137Single Answer
Which condition is caused by a lack of essential fatty acids?
A
Rickets
B
Essential fatty acid deficiency
C
Scorbutic disease
D
Beriberi
Question 138Single Answer
The best source of protein for individuals who are vegetarians includes which of the following?
A
Legumes and nuts
B
Meat and poultry
C
Dairy products
D
Fish and seafood
Question 139Single Answer
Which condition is caused by the deficiency of iodine?
A
Anemia
B
Goiter
C
Scurvy
D
Rickets
Question 140Single Answer
Which of the following is a primary source of carbohydrates?
A
Nuts and seeds
B
Meat and fish
C
Rice and bread
D
Eggs and milk
Question 141Single Answer
The condition known as rickets is primarily caused by a deficiency of which nutrient?
A
Calcium and Vitamin D
B
IronA
C
Vitamin A
D
Vitamin C
Question 142Single Answer
Marasmus is characterized by extreme wasting of the body. What is the primary cause?
A
Protein deficiency
B
Calorie deficiency
C
Vitamin deficiency
D
Fat deficiency
Question 143Single Answer
Which food is an excellent source of omega-3 fatty acids?
A
Leafy vegetables
B
Salmon and walnuts
C
Chicken and rice
D
Milk and cheese
Question 144Single Answer
To prevent vitamin A deficiency, which food should be included in the diet?
A
Carrots and spinach
B
Rice and bread
C
Chicken and beef
D
Tomatoes and cucumbers
Question 145Single Answer
To prevent iron deficiency anemia, which food is most beneficial?
A
Banana and apple
B
Spinach and lentils
C
Bread and butter
D
Rice and peas
Question 146Single Answer
How can one prevent calcium deficiency?
A
By consuming dairy products and leafy greens
B
By drinking soft drinks
C
By avoiding exercise
D
By consuming only fruits and vegetables
Question 147Single Answer
Which of the following is a good source of vitamin D?
A
Eggs and mushrooms
B
Bananas and oranges
C
Whole grains and rice
D
Red meat and fish
Question 148Single Answer
What is the best way to prevent protein deficiency in the diet?
A
Include a variety of protein-rich foods like meat, beans, and dairy
B
Consume fruits and vegetables only
C
Avoid consuming fats
D
Limit carbohydrates in the diet
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following foods is high in Vitamin B12?
A
Spinach
B
Milk
C
Orange
D
Potatoes
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the following is a method to prevent vitamin C deficiency?
A
Eating citrus fruits like oranges
B
Drinking alcohol in moderation
C
Reducing sugar intake
D
Avoiding dairy products
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following is a common source of zinc?
A
Leafy greens
B
Fish and shellfish
C
Whole grains
D
Nuts and seeds
Question 152Single Answer
How can one prevent dehydration, which is a risk from inadequate fluid intake?
A
Drinking enough water and fluids throughout the day
B
Eating salty foods
C
Consuming caffeinated drinks
D
Avoiding fruits and vegetables
Question 153Single Answer
Which of the following is a good source of vitamin E?
A
Sunflower seeds
B
Bananas
C
Potatoes
D
Milk
Question 154Single Answer
Which food is an excellent source of folate (Vitamin B9)?
A
Leafy green vegetables like spinach
B
Citrus fruits
C
Whole grains
D
Dairy products
Question 155Single Answer
What is the recommended daily intake of water for an average adult?
A
2-3 cups
B
6-8 cups
C
10-12 cups
D
15-20 cups
Question 156Single Answer
Which of the following foods is rich in antioxidants?
A
Broccoli
B
White bread
C
Fried food
D
Soft drinks
Question 157Single Answer
What type of fat is considered beneficial for heart health?
A
Saturated fats
B
Trans fats
C
Unsaturated fats
D
Hydrogenated fats
Question 158Single Answer
What is the primary benefit of including fiber in the diet?
A
Increases blood pressure
B
Aids digestion and promotes regular bowel movements
C
Promotes muscle growth
D
Increases cholesterol levels
Question 159Single Answer
Which of the following is a symptom of iron deficiency anemia?
A
Weight loss
B
Shortness of breath and fatigue
C
Hair growth
D
High blood pressure
Question 160Single Answer
How can one prevent vitamin A deficiency?
A
By consuming dairy products
B
By eating yellow and orange vegetables like carrots
C
By eating high-protein foods
D
By drinking plenty of water
Question 161Single Answer
What is a major food source of magnesium?
A
Apples
B
Leafy greens, nuts, and seeds
C
Bread and rice
D
Fish and meat
Question 162Single Answer
What is the function of iodine in the body?
A
Helps in digestion
B
Regulates thyroid hormones
C
Strengthens bones
D
Aids in protein synthesis
Question 163Single Answer
Which nutrient helps in the clotting of blood?
A
Vitamin K
B
Vitamin A
C
Vitamin D
D
Vitamin E
Question 164Single Answer
Which of the following foods is rich in calcium?
A
Leafy greens and dairy products
B
Fish and poultry
C
Bread and cereals
D
Fruits like bananas
Question 165Single Answer
What is the primary function of dietary fiber?
A
To increase fat content in the diet
B
To regulate blood sugar levels
C
To aid in digestion and prevent constipation
D
To increase cholesterol levels
Question 166Single Answer
What is the major source of vitamin D?
A
Sunlight
B
Leafy vegetables
C
Dairy products
D
Meat
Question 167Single Answer
Which vitamin is needed for the absorption of calcium?
A
Vitamin C
B
Vitamin B
C
Vitamin D
D
Vitamin K
Question 168Single Answer
Which of the following is a risk factor for vitamin B12 deficiency?
A
Strict vegetarian or vegan diet
B
Excessive consumption of dairy products
C
High intake of processed foods
D
High intake of fruits
Question 169Single Answer
What is the main cause of goiter and hypothyroidism?
A
Vitamin D deficiency
B
Iodine deficiency
C
Iron deficiency
D
Zinc deficiency
Question 170Single Answer
Which of the following is a primary source of iodine?
A
Leafy vegetables
B
Seafood and dairy products
C
Fruits
D
Nuts and seeds
Question 171Single Answer
Which condition is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin A?
A
Rickets
B
Night blindness
C
Anemia
D
Osteoporosis
Question 172Single Answer
What is a good dietary source of Vitamin A?
A
Carrots and sweet potatoes
B
Bananas and apples
C
Fish and meat
D
Bread and pasta
Question 173Single Answer
What disease is commonly associated with iron deficiency?
A
Goiter
B
Scurvy
C
Anemia
D
Osteoporosis
Question 174Single Answer
Which of the following foods is rich in iron?
A
Carrots
B
Red meat and poultry
C
Potatoes
D
Milk
Question 175Single Answer
What is the consequence of a deficiency in zinc?
A
Scurvy
B
Growth retardation and weakened immune system
C
Night blindness
D
Pellagra
Question 176Single Answer
Which food is a good source of zinc?
A
Fish
B
Meat, shellfish, and legumes
C
Bananas
D
Leafy greens
Question 177Single Answer
Which disease is linked to calcium deficiency?
A
Anemia
B
Osteoporosis
C
Pellagra
D
Beriberi
Question 178Single Answer
Which food is a good source of calcium?
A
Dairy products
B
Oranges
C
Chicken and eggs
D
Whole grains
Question 179Single Answer
What is the key prevention method for iodine deficiency?
A
Increasing iron-rich foods
B
Using iodized salt
C
Consuming citrus fruits
D
Drinking fortified water
Question 180Single Answer
Which vitamin is essential for healthy vision?
A
Vitamin B
B
Vitamin A
C
Vitamin C
D
Vitamin E
Early child care and education
Question 181Single Answer
The primary difference between growth and development is:
A
Growth refers to changes in height and weight, while development refers to changes in abilities and skills.
B
Growth and development are the same.
C
Growth refers to psychological changes, while development refers to physical changes.
D
Growth occurs only in infancy, while development continues throughout life.
Question 182Single Answer
Which of the following best describes "development" in children?
A
The increase in height and weight over time
B
The progression of motor skills and cognitive abilities
C
The occurrence of physical illnesses
D
The ability to socialize with peers
Question 183Single Answer
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of "growth" in the context of child development?
A
Increase in size or number of cells
B
Development of mental abilities
C
Learning to walk
D
Acuisition of speech
Question 184Single Answer
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between growth and development?
A
Growth and development are unrelated and occur independently.
B
Growth occurs before development and continues throughout life.
C
Growth and development occur simultaneously and are interrelated.
D
Development occurs before growth and continues until adolescence.
Question 185Single Answer
An important characteristic of development is that it:
A
Is continuous and orderly
B
Occurs only in infancy
C
Occurs suddenly and unpredictably
D
Is independent of environmental factors
Question 186Single Answer
According to Piaget, the first stage of cognitive development is known as:
A
Preoperational Stage
B
Sensorimotor Stage
C
Concrete Operational Stage
D
Formal Operational Stage
Question 187Single Answer
The ability to think logically about concrete events is characteristic of which of Piaget's stages?
A
Preoperational Stage
B
Sensorimotor Stage
C
Concrete Operational Stage
D
Formal Operational Stage
Question 188Single Answer
The stage where children begin to engage in symbolic play, as well as learn to manipulate symbols, is the:
A
Sensorimotor Stage
B
Preoperational Stage
C
Concrete Operational Stage
D
Formal Operational Stage
Question 189Single Answer
In Piaget's theory, the ability to perform abstract reasoning and understand hypothetical situations occurs in the:
A
Sensorimotor Stage
B
Preoperational Stage
C
Concrete Operational Stage
D
Formal Operational Stage
Question 190Single Answer
Piaget's concept of "object permanence" is first achieved in which stage?
A
Preoperational Stage
B
Concrete Operational Stage
C
Formal Operational Stage
D
Sensorimotor Stage
Question 191Single Answer
According to Erikson, the key conflict in the stage of infancy (0-18 months) is:
A
Trust vs. Mistrust
B
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C
Initiative vs. Guilt
D
Industry vs. Inferiority
Question 192Single Answer
The psychosocial challenge during early childhood (2-3 years) according to Erikson is:
A
Trust vs. Mistrust
B
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C
Initiative vs. Guilt
D
Integrity vs. Despair
Question 193Single Answer
In Erikson's theory, the primary psychosocial challenge during the school-age years (6-12 years) is:
A
Trust vs. Mistrust
B
Initiative vs. Guilt
C
Industry vs. Inferiority
D
Identity vs. Role Confusion
Question 194Single Answer
The psychosocial conflict in adolescence (12-18 years) is:
A
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
B
Initiative vs. Guilt
C
Industry vs. Inferiority
D
Identity vs. Role Confusion
Question 195Single Answer
According to Erikson, achieving a sense of competence and success in school and social interactions occurs during which stage?
A
Infancy
B
Early Childhood
C
School Age
D
Adolescence
Question 196Single Answer
Which of the following factors play a key role in influencing a child's development?
A
Genetics
B
Environmental factors
C
Both genetics and environment
D
None of the above
Question 197Single Answer
Heredity influences child development by:
A
Determining physical traits such as eye color and height
B
Determining a child's intelligence and personality traits
C
Affecting susceptibility to certain diseases or conditions
D
All of the above
Question 198Single Answer
The environment in which a child grows up affects development by:
A
Shaping social skills and emotional responses
B
Providing educational opportunities
C
Influencing health and nutrition
D
All of the above
Question 199Single Answer
Environmental factors that influence development include: