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Question for RUHS MO - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View RUHS Medical Officer 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in RUHS MO exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in RUHS MO exams.

Latest RUHS MO Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : MBBS

Question Bank RUHS Medical Officer Exam - English

MBBS

Q 1 :
Community medicine primarily focuses on :
  1. A.Individual patient care
  2. B.Preventive healthcare
  3. C.Specialized surgeries
  4. D.Emergency medicine
Q 2 :
Which of the following is a core principle of community medicine ?
  1. A.Curative care
  2. B.Early diagnosis
  3. C.Health promotion and disease prevention
  4. D.Surgery and interventions
Q 3 :
What is the main goal of primary healthcare ?
  1. A.Treating complex diseases
  2. B.Providing specialized surgeries
  3. C.Delivering essential healthcare to all individuals and families
  4. D.Managing chronic illnesses
Q 4 :
Which level of healthcare focuses on specialized medical and surgical services ?
  1. A.Primary healthcare
  2. B.Secondary healthcare
  3. C.Tertiary healthcare
  4. D.Quaternary healthcare
Q 5 :
The "Five A's" of healthcare delivery include all of the following except :
  1. A.Accessibility
  2. B.Affordability
  3. C.Accountability
  4. D.Acceptability
Q 6 :
Which of the following is a major component of community diagnosis ?
  1. A.Individual diagnosis
  2. B.Family diagnosis
  3. C.Hospital diagnosis
  4. D.Disease diagnosis
Q 7 :
What does FMT stand for ?
  1. A.Fecal Microbial Therapy
  2. B.Fecal Microbiota Transplantation
  3. C.Fecal Microbiome Treatment
  4. D.Fecal Medical Transplant
Q 8 :
FMT is primarily used to treat which of the following conditions ?
  1. A.Diabetes
  2. B.Hypertension
  3. C.Irritable Bowel Syndrome
  4. D.Migraine
Q 9 :
In FMT, where is the donated fecal material typically sourced from ?
  1. A.Animals
  2. B.Synthetic sources
  3. C.The patient's own stool
  4. D.Healthy donors
Q 10 :
What is the main purpose of FMT ?
  1. A.Treating bacterial infections
  2. B.Restoring gut microbial balance
  3. C.Boosting the immune system
  4. D.Replenishing blood cells
Q 11 :
FMT has shown promise in treating which of the following infections ?
  1. A.Influenza
  2. B.Tuberculosis
  3. C.Clostridium difficile infection
  4. D.HIV
Q 12 :
Which part of the body is primarily affected by FMT ?
  1. A.Heart
  2. B.Lungs
  3. C.Liver
  4. D.Intestines
Q 13 :
Which of the following microorganisms is known for causing tuberculosis ?
  1. A.Escherichia coli
  2. B.Staphylococcus aureus
  3. C.Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  4. D.Streptococcus pyogenes
Q 14 :
What is the primary mode of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ?
  1. A.Airborne transmission
  2. B.Vector - borne transmission
  3. C.Contact transmission
  4. D.Sexual transmission
Q 15 :
Which microorganism is responsible for causing strep throat and other respiratory infections ?
  1. A.Haemophilus influenzae
  2. B.Streptococcus pyogenes
  3. C.Neisseria meningitidis
  4. D.Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q 16 :
Which of the following diseases is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani ?
  1. A.Tetanus
  2. B.Tuberculosis
  3. C.Typhoid fever
  4. D.Cholera
Q 17 :
Which microorganism is responsible for causing food poisoning through the ingestion of contaminated food ?
  1. A.Salmonella
  2. B.Treponema pallidum
  3. C.Chlamydia trachomatis
  4. D.Helicobacter pylori
Q 18 :
Which of the following is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection known for causing genital ulcers ?
  1. A.Chlamydia
  2. B.Gonorrhea
  3. C.Syphilis
  4. D.Trichomoniasis
Q 19 :
Which microorganism is responsible for causing the common cold ?
  1. A.Influenza virus
  2. B.Coronavirus
  3. C.Rhinovirus
  4. D.Herpes simplex virus
Q 20 :
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of inflammation ?
  1. A.Redness
  2. B.Pain
  3. C.Decreased blood flow
  4. D.Swelling
Q 21 :
Which cellular organelle is responsible for protein synthesis ?
  1. A.Mitochondria
  2. B.Golgi apparatus
  3. C.Endoplasmic reticulum
  4. D.Lysosome
Q 22 :
Which type of tissue is responsible for transmitting electrical signals in the body ?
  1. A.Muscle tissue
  2. B.Nervous tissue
  3. C.Connective tissue
  4. D.Epithelial tissue
Q 23 :
What is the most common type of skin cancer ?
  1. A.Melanoma
  2. B.Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. C.Basal cell carcinoma
  4. D.Adenocarcinoma
Q 24 :
Which blood cell type is responsible for oxygen transport in the body ?
  1. A.Platelets
  2. B.Red blood cells
  3. C.White blood cells
  4. D.Plasma cells
Q 25 :
Which of the following is a type of autoimmune disease affecting the thyroid gland ?
  1. A.Rheumatoid arthritis
  2. B.Crohn's disease
  3. C.Hashimoto's thyroiditis
  4. D.Lupus
Q 26 :
What is the primary function of the lymphatic system ?
  1. A.Digestion of fats
  2. B.Regulation of blood sugar
  3. C.Filtration of blood
  4. D.Immune response and fluid balance
Q 27 :
What term describes the study of how drugs affect the body and how the body affects drugs ?
  1. A.Pathology
  2. B.Physiology
  3. C.Pharmacology
  4. D.Histology
Q 28 :
Which phase of drug development involves testing a new drug on healthy volunteers to determine its safety and dosage range ?
  1. A.Phase I
  2. B.Phase II
  3. C.Phase III
  4. D.Phase IV
Q 29 :
Which route of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action ?
  1. A.Oral
  2. B.Intravenous
  3. C.Subcutaneous
  4. D.Topical
Q 30 :
When the combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects, the interaction is called?
  1. A.Synergism
  2. B.Antagonism
  3. C.Additive action
  4. D.Indifference
Q 31 :
Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism ?
  1. A.Kidneys
  2. B.Liver
  3. C.Heart
  4. D.Lungs
Q 32 :
What is meant by the generic name of a drug?
  1. A.Its nonproprietary name
  2. B.Its manufacturer's brand name
  3. C.Its complete chemical structural description
  4. D.The name of the disease it treats
Q 33 :
Which class of drugs is commonly used to reduce fever and pain ?
  1. A.Antibiotics
  2. B.Antihypertensives
  3. C.Analgesics
  4. D.Anticoagulants
Q 34 :
What is the primary purpose of radio diagnosis in medicine ?
  1. A.To provide treatment options
  2. B.To perform surgeries
  3. C.To diagnose medical conditions
  4. D.To administer medication
Q 35 :
Which imaging technique uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of internal body structures ?
  1. A.X-ray
  2. B.Ultrasound
  3. C.MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
  4. D.CT scan (Computed Tomography
Q 36 :
Which type of imaging uses ionizing radiation to create images of the body's internal structures ?
  1. A.Ultrasound
  2. B.MRI
  3. C.X - ray
  4. D.PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography)
Q 37 :
Which imaging modality is most commonly used for evaluating bone fractures and lung conditions ?
  1. A.Ultrasound
  2. B.MRI
  3. C.X - ray
  4. D.CT scan
Q 38 :
CT scan provides ______ images of the body than a standard X - ray
  1. A.Fewer detailed
  2. B.More detailed
  3. C.Similar
  4. D.No
Q 39 :
Which imaging technique is used to visualize blood vessels and blood flow ?
  1. A.Ultrasound
  2. B.X - ray
  3. C.Angiography
  4. D.PET scan
Q 40 :
Which imaging technique is safe to use during pregnancy due to its lack of ionizing radiation ?
  1. A.X - ray
  2. B.CT scan
  3. C.Ultrasound
  4. D.MRI
Q 41 :
Which of the following is NOT a common indication for surgery in a medical officer's practice
  1. A.Appendicitis
  2. B.Gallstones
  3. C.Hypertension
  4. D.Hernia
Q 42 :
What term refers to the surgical removal of the gallbladder
  1. A.Gastrectomy
  2. B.Appendectomy
  3. C.Cholecystectomy
  4. D.Thyroidectomy
Q 43 :
A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and tenderness localized in the right lower quadrant. What condition is most likely responsible for these symptoms
  1. A.Gastroenteritis
  2. B.Diverticulitis
  3. C.Cholecystitis
  4. D.Appendicitis
Q 44 :
Which surgical procedure involves the removal of a portion of the stomach to treat conditions like gastric ulcers or stomach cancer
  1. A.Colectomy
  2. B.Nephrectomy
  3. C.Gastrectomy
  4. D.Splenectomy
Q 45 :
What is a hernia
  1. A.A type of heart surgery
  2. B.An abnormal connection between blood vessels
  3. C.An opening or weakness in the abdominal wall through which organs may protrude
  4. D.The removal of a damaged joint
Q 46 :
Which surgical procedure involves the removal of the appendix
  1. A.Appendectomy
  2. B.Hysterectomy
  3. C.Tonsillectomy
  4. D.Thyroidectomy
Q 47 :
What is the primary goal of a splenectomy
  1. A.To remove a portion of the liver
  2. B.To remove the spleen
  3. C.To remove kidney stones
  4. D.To remove a lung lobe
Q 48 :
Which of the following is NOT a common indication for surgery in a medical officer's practice ?
  1. A.Appendicitis
  2. B.Gallstones
  3. C.Hypertension
  4. D.Hernia
Q 49 :
What term refers to the surgical removal of the gallbladder ?
  1. A.Gastrectomy
  2. B.Appendectomy
  3. C.Cholecystectomy
  4. D.Thyroidectomy
Q 50 :
A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and tenderness localized in the right lower quadrant. What condition is most likely responsible for these symptoms ?
  1. A.Gastroenteritis
  2. B.Diverticulitis
  3. C.Cholecystitis
  4. D.Appendicitis

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