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Objective Questions

Latest Sangli Police Patil Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, General Maths, Police Law, Mental Ability

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General Knowledge

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 5Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 6Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 7Single Answer

A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is

A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge

Question 8Single Answer

convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is

A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m

Question 9Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 10Single Answer

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A

Question 11Single Answer

The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on

A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised

Question 12Single Answer

Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?

A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen

Question 13Single Answer

Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is

A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%

Question 14Single Answer

An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a

A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish

Question 15Single Answer

Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?

A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

Question 16Single Answer

Which city is the host of the second edition of ‘The Africa-India Field Training Exercise’ AFINDEX-2023 ?

A
Pune
B
Panaji
C
Cairo
D
Nairobi

Question 17Single Answer

‘New India Literacy Programme’ will be implemented as which type of scheme ?

A
Central Sector Scheme
B
Centrally sponsored Scheme
C
Core Scheme
D
Core of the Core Scheme

Question 18Single Answer

Which state/UT recently released the ‘Lake Development Programme’ ?

A
Tamil Nadu
B
Telangana
C
Odisha
D
West Bengal

Question 19Single Answer

A ‘Space System Design Lab’ has been recently inaugurated in which state/UT ?

A
Gujarat
B
Karnataka
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Kerala

Question 20Single Answer

India recently signed a ‘Defence Cooperation Agreement’ with which European country ?

A
Malta
B
Romania
C
Finland
D
Denmark

Question 21Single Answer

Which state’s ‘Gandhamardan Hill’ was recently (in March ’23) declared as India’s 37^th biodiversity heritage site ?

A
Odisha
B
West Bengal
C
Gujarat
D
Jharkhand

Question 22Single Answer

Which country has recently (in March ’23) committed Rs 7,084.5 crore to India for infrastructure projects in Patna (Bihar), West Bengal, and Rajasthan ?

A
France
B
Japan
C
Singapore
D
Germany

Question 23Single Answer

Name the personality who was recently (in March ’23) awarded Abel Prize 2023 for Mathematics .

A
Luis Angel Caffarelli
B
Lawrence C. Evans
C
Dennis Sullivan
D
Luigi Ambrosio

Question 24Single Answer

Who was recently (in March ’23) appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) ?

A
Vijay Kuradagi
B
Rajendra Kumar Gupta
C
Sanjay Kumar Panigrahi
D
Lalit Kumar Gupta

Question 25Single Answer

Which organisation of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has recently (in March ’23) developed application “Maaptol Grievance” to facilitate registration & redressal of consumer grievances ?

A
Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
B
Digital India Corporation
C
National Informatics Centre
D
Controller of Certifying Authorities

General Maths

Question 26Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 27Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 28Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 29Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 30Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 31Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 32Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 33Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 34Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 35Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 36Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 37Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 38Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 39Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 40Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 41Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 42Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 43Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 44Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 45Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 46Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 47Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 48Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 49Single Answer

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?

A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime

Question 50Single Answer

Product of all factors of 10 is ?

A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000

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Police Law

Question 51Single Answer

A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces

A
A B C D
2 3 1 4
B
4 1 2 3
C
3 4 1 2
D
1 2 3 4

Question 52Single Answer

Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 53Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935

A
1 and 2 are correct
B
2 and 3 are correct
C
1 and 3 are correct
D
None of the above

Question 54Single Answer

Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3

Question 55Single Answer

Which one is not correctly matched?

A
Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B
Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C
conscience
Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D
(d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice

Question 56Single Answer

The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the

A
Prime Minister
B
Vice- President
C
Chief Minister
D
Chief Justice

Question 57Single Answer

An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.

A
Codes:
1, 3, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
3, 1, 2
D
2, 1,3

Question 58Single Answer

Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the

A
75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B
76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C
77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D
78th Amendment to the Constitution of India

Question 59Single Answer

Match the following:
A. Right to go                  1. Bhim Singh's case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right            2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty             3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's             4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability

A
Codes:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3

Question 60Single Answer

A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding

A
Three months
B
Six months
C
Nine months
D
Twelve months

Question 61Single Answer

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A
Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B
Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C
Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D
Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.

Question 62Single Answer

Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.

A
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3

Question 63Single Answer

Match the following:

A
Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B
Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C
In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D
In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an

Question 64Single Answer

List-I List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and personal liberty
vs. State of MP
Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability

A
A B C D
4 2 3 1
B
5 4 3 2
C
4 3 2 1
D
5 3 2 1

Question 65Single Answer

List-I List-II
Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial functions 3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance

A
A B C D
2 1 4 3
B
3 4 1 2
C
2 4 1 3
D
3 I 4 2

Question 66Single Answer

The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:

Question 67Single Answer

List-I                       List-II
A Habeas corpus     1. Violation of natural justice
B. Mandamus           2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto       3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari              4. Non performance of public duty.

A
A B C D
2 4 3 1
B
1 3 4 2
C
2 3 4 1
D
1 4 3 2

Question 68Single Answer

The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3

Question 69Single Answer

If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?

A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth

Question 70Single Answer

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?

A
It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B
It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C
It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D
It allocates seats in the council of states.

Question 71Single Answer

The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:

A
Fundamental rights
B
DPSP
C
List of languages recognised by the constitution
D
Number of states and UTS

Question 72Single Answer

Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.

A
2nd schedule
B
5th schedule
C
8th schedule
D
10th schedule

Question 73Single Answer

At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.

A
8
B
10
C
12
D
11

Question 74Single Answer

The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.

A
30 days
B
45 days
C
60 days
D
90 days

Question 75Single Answer

When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.

A
The President
B
The prime minister
C
The chief justice of India
D
Council of ministers

Mental Ability

Question 76Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 77Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 78Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 79Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 80Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 81Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 82Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 83Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 84Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 85Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 86Single Answer

If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?

A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these

Question 87Single Answer

How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 88Single Answer

Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .

A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong

Question 89Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

Question 90Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 91Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?

A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four

Question 92Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.

Question 93Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 94Single Answer

If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?

A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these

Question 95Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 96Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 97Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 98Single Answer

If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?

A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these

Question 99Single Answer

If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?

A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four

Question 100Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

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