Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A
It is a financial establishment
B
It acts like a financial intermediary
C
It accepts deposits from the public
D
It provides safe locker facility
E
All the above
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A
A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B
They include general utility services and agency services.
C
A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D
A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E
A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A
Issuance of debit and credit cards
B
Providing safe custody of valuable items
C
ATM services
D
Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E
Online transfer of funds across the globe
Question 4Single Answer
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A
Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C
Banking Regulation Act 1949
D
Company Act 1956
E
None of the above
Question 5Single Answer
Banks in India are regulated by :
A
The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B
The Banking regulation Act,1949
C
The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D
The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E
None of the above
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A
Zero Hour
B
Input devices
C
Privilege motion
D
Sedimentary
E
Invest rate swap
Question 7Single Answer
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A
Investment Banking
B
Core Banking
C
Mobile Banking
D
National Banking
E
Specialized Banking
Question 8Single Answer
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A
Will
B
Registration
C
Nomination
D
Indemnity
E
Guarantee
Question 9Single Answer
Which of the following is not banking term?
A
Letter of credit
B
MIBOR
C
Factoring services
D
Entry load
E
None of the above
Question 10Single Answer
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A
Mutual Funds
B
Life Insurance Companies
C
Commercial Banks
D
Post office saving schemes
E
None of the above
Question 11Single Answer
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A
Mutual funds
B
Term deposits
C
Credit cards
D
All of these
E
None of the above
Question 12Single Answer
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A
1780
B
1790
C
1770
D
1802
E
1814
Question 13Single Answer
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A
Checking account
B
Saving account
C
Money market account
D
Certificate of deposit (CD)
E
Mutual Fund
Question 14Single Answer
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A
Business loan
B
Capital raisig
C
Checking account
D
Project finance
E
Term loan
Question 15Single Answer
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A
Commercial bank
B
Central bank
C
EXIM bank
D
Scheduled Bank
E
Development bank
Question 16Single Answer
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A
State Bank of India
B
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C
Export-Import Bank of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
E
None of the above
Question 17Single Answer
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A
Rs. 100
B
Rs. 400
C
Rs. 500
D
Rs.1000
E
Rs. 1500
Question 18Single Answer
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A
Position of profit on a particular date
B
Position of profit for a given period
C
Position of loss for a given period
D
Both 2 and 3
E
None of the above
Question 19Single Answer
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A
Fixed Deposit
B
Current Deposit
C
Recurring Deposit
D
All of the above
E
None of the above
Question 20Single Answer
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A
The Commercial Bank of India
B
Allahabad Bank
C
Oudh Commercial Bank
D
Punjab National bank ltd
E
None of the above
Question 21Single Answer
Which of the following scheme is not meant for investment purposes?
A
Letter of credit
B
National saving certificate
C
Infrastructure bonds
D
Mutual funds
E
None of the above
Question 22Single Answer
What is meant by development Oriented banking?
A
Infrastructure financing
B
Extending loans to State, which are undevelopment
C
Taking up the task of development of the economy by providing support to under privileged section of the society
D
All of the above
E
None of the above
Question 23Single Answer
The Reserve Bank of India was established in:
A
April 1935
B
June 1935
C
August 1934
D
May 1936
E
January 1949
Question 24Single Answer
14 major Indian commercial banks of the country were nationalized in:
A
July 1965
B
June 1960
C
July 1969
D
May 1970
E
January 1949
Question 25Single Answer
On the basis of suggestions of which of the following committee. The Banking Regulation Act was amended in 1983 to open the gates for the new private sector banks ?
A
Narasimham Committee
B
Rangrajan Committee
C
Rangrajan Committee
D
Goiporia committee
E
None of the above
Question 26Single Answer
When RBI made compulsory to the Best II norms for Banks?
A
March 31, 2007
B
March 31, 2008
C
March 31, 2010
D
March 31, 2011
E
March 31, 2009
Question 27Single Answer
Which Act is fully applicable to all commercial banks?
A
Companies Act, 1956
B
Partnership Act, 1932
C
Banking Regulation Act,1949
D
Sale of Goods Act, 1930
E
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Question 28Single Answer
What type of loan is granted by banks for purchase of white goods?
A
Mortgage loans
B
Personal loans
C
Consumption Loans
D
Home Loans
E
None of the above
Question 29Single Answer
Which of the following loans are granted for meeting social financial commitments like marriage etc?
A
Mortgage loans
B
Personal loans
C
Consumption Loans
D
Home Loans
E
None of the above
Question 30Single Answer
PPF account is opened for a period of
A
Mortgage loans
B
Personal loans
C
Consumption Loans
D
Home Loans
E
None of the above
Question 31Single Answer
Which of the followings facts substantiate the investment in public provident fund (PPF) account as a favorite tax saving option?
A
Deposits made in PPF account up to prescribed limits are eligible for relief under section 80C of income tax Act
B
Interest earned in PPF account is exempt from income tax
C
The balance in a PPF account is exempt from wealth tax
D
The balance in a PPF account cannot be attached under a court decree.
E
All of the above
Question 32Single Answer
What is the minimum amount premium is required to be deposited in case of a Public Provident Fund (PPF) Account?
A
Rs. 500
B
Rs. 750
C
Rs. 1000
D
Rs. 1500
E
Rs. 2000
Question 33Single Answer
National Saving Certificate matures at the end of:
A
Six years
B
Seven years
C
Ten years
D
Fifteen years
E
Twelve years
Question 34Single Answer
Normally banks accept fixed deposit for a maximum period of:
A
3 years
B
5 years
C
7 years
D
12 years
E
Any number years
Question 35Single Answer
Consider the followings Acts:
(A) Enactment of Banking Regulations Act
(B) Nationalisation of State Bank of India
(C) Nationalization of SBI subsidiaries
(D) Nationalisation of 14 major Banks.
Choose the right option for the correct chronological order of the above acts.
A
A-B-C-D
B
B-A-C-D
C
A-B-C-D
D
C-B-A-D
E
D-B-A-C
Question 36Single Answer
The Imperial Bank of India was nationalized and re-christened as State Bank of India in the year:
A
1949
B
1950
C
1955
D
1960
E
1969
Question 37Single Answer
IFRS stands for:
A
International Financial Regulatory Standards
B
International Financial Reporting Standards
C
International Financial Rating Standards
D
International Financial Reporting System
E
None of the above
Question 38Single Answer
Bridge loan refers to:
A
Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions
B
Loans granted to construction companies
C
Loans granted to PWD for construction of bridges
D
All of the above
E
None of the above
Question 39Single Answer
Payment of the demand draft can be stopped by
A
Holder
B
Purchaser
C
Payee
D
Bank
E
None of the above
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers?
A
SEBI
B
CIBIL
C
SBI
D
RBI
E
CRSIL
Question 41Single Answer
Loans / advance to framers is knows as:
A
Personal Loan
B
Business Loan
C
Priority Sector Loan
D
Home Loan
E
None of the above
Question 42Single Answer
FRBM stands for:
A
Fiscal Responsibility and Banking Management
B
Financial Responsibility and Budget management
C
Fiscal Responsibility and budget Management
D
Federal Responsibility and Business Management
E
Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management
Question 43Single Answer
When the New Bank of India was merged with Punjab National Bank?
A
1990
B
1993
C
1999
D
2001
E
2002
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following is / are major reasons for strict regulations of the banks by the government in India?
A
To protect the safety of the public’s savings
B
To control the supply of money and credit in order to achieve a nation’s broad economic goal
C
To ensure equal opportunity and fairness in the public’s access to credit and other vital financial services
D
To promote public confidence in the financial system so that savings are made speedily and efficiently
E
All the above
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following can be categorized as a Merchant banking service?
A
Consultancy on financial to a company
B
Advance in capital structure
C
Managing mergers
D
Helping in finalizing takeover
E
All of the above
Question 46Single Answer
Which instrument provides proprietary interest in company and which entitles a person to dividend on profit?
A
Bond
B
Debenture
C
Share
D
Warrant
E
None of the above
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following is the first development financial institution to be established in India in 1948?
A
LIC
B
IFCI
C
ICICI
D
EXIM Bank
E
IDBI
Question 48Single Answer
Co-operative Bank in India are operated under which of the followings acts?
A
Cooperative Societies Act in 1904
B
Cooperative Societies Act in 1912
C
Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
E
Company Act, 1934
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A
Export - Import / Bank of India – 1982
B
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) – 1990
C
National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) – 1982
D
Industrial Finance Corporation of India – 1948
E
IDBI Bank Limited – 1954
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a feature of saving bank account?
A
It is opened by individuals for the purpose of saving a part of their income.
B
Service Charges are payable in case of Saving Account.
C
It is operated by salary earners, small traders and others.
D
It earns a nominal rate of interest. At present, it is about 5% p.a. (in India).
E
It can be operated with lesser amount.
Important Questions Package
Saraswat Bank BDO Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy Saraswat Bank BDO Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in Saraswat Bank BDO question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
Saraswat Bank BDO Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question With Answer
₹231[₹500]
2.
Saraswat Bank BDO Exam - Hindi
Description : 2000 Question With Answer
₹231[₹500]
3.
Saraswat Bank BDO Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
4.
Saraswat Bank BDO Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
Reasoning Ability
Question 51Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 53Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 54Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 55Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 56Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 57Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 58Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 59Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 60Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 61Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 64Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 65Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 66Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 67Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 68Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 69Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 72Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 73Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 74Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 75Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
English
Question 76Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 77Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 78Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 81Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 85Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 86Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 87Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 88Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 89Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 90Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 91Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 92Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 93Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 94Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 95Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 101Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My neighbor along with his children
B
is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C
At Agra
D
No error
Question 102Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B
but the former is
C
greater than latter
D
No error
Question 103Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He has abandoned
B
the criminal activities
C
after returning from jail
D
No error
Question 104Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
We must have
B
sympathy for
C
needy and the poor
D
No error
Question 105Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Chinese is a very
B
difficult language to understand for those
C
who have never been to China
D
No error
Question 106Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The old women placed
B
kettle on fire
C
come back to the bedroom
D
No error
Question 107Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The singing is both
B
my vocation and avocation because it is a
C
source of joy and bread to me
D
No error
Question 108Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Snake we saw was
B
very deadly thought
C
it left the kitchen quietly
D
No error
Question 109Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Being M.A. only he
B
could not be appointed
C
to the post of a lecturer
D
No error
Question 110Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Our first trip was the most interesting one
B
but our second one
C
was even more interesting
D
No error
Question 111Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B
all the problems of future
C
but he did solve problems of
D
No error
Question 112Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Having finished his breakfast
B
he started working on the problem
C
that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D
No error
Question 113Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The new railway line will
B
greatly improve transport and communication
C
in eastern part of the country
D
No error
Question 114Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It being rainy day most of
B
the people out on the street
C
were carrying umbrellas
D
No error
Question 115Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
More you
B
think of it
C
the worse it becomes
D
No error
Computer Aptitude
Question 116Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 117Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 118Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 119Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 120Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 121Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 122Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 123Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 124Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 125Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 126Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 127Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 128Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 129Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 130Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 131Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 132Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 133Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 134Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 135Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 136Single Answer
What is a dialog box in a graphical user interface?
A
An on-screen window used to display information or obtain user input and selections
B
A tool used exclusively for audio and video calls
C
A hardware device used for voice commands
D
A program used exclusively to browse websites
Question 137Single Answer
A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is called as
A
Master
B
slide
C
document
D
worksheet
E
None of these
Question 138Single Answer
The meaning of double click is
A
pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
appearance of an icon
C
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 139Single Answer
The term drag and drop means
A
appearance of an icon
B
used for selecting text
C
to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into its new location
D
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
E
None of these
Question 140Single Answer
What does dragging with a mouse mean?
A
Holding down a mouse button while moving the mouse pointer
B
Closing an application
C
Double-clicking an icon without moving the mouse
D
Restarting the computer
Marketing
Question 141Single Answer
Marketing offers to a market :
A
Products
B
Services
C
Information
D
All of the above
Question 142Single Answer
Marketing concept focuses on :
A
Production
B
Customer needs
C
Environment
D
Product
Question 143Single Answer
The Traditional Marketing Style Involves :
A
Tele Marketing
B
Digital Marketing
C
Indirect Marketing
D
Direct Marketing
Question 144Single Answer
A true marketing requires :
A
command and other mindsets
B
control mindset
C
Passive mindset
D
Active mindset
Question 145Single Answer
For effective marketing, the salesman should have which of these qualities :
A
Creativity
B
Team spirit
C
Motivation
D
Effective communication skills
Question 146Single Answer
Market Research is needed for :
A
Checking the market area & deciding right time to sell
B
checking the right product to be sold
C
Making proper marketing decisions
D
All of these
Question 147Single Answer
Motivation means :
A
inspiring employees to perform better
B
better communication skills
C
Sales Coaching
D
Market Research
Question 148Single Answer
Meaning of Target market is :
A
Entire country
B
Entire city
C
Entire globe
D
That which consist of customers who need the identified product
Question 149Single Answer
Which company used the slogan “ The Complete Man” ?
A
DCM
B
GRASIM
C
RAYMONDS
D
VIMAL
Question 150Single Answer
Information about developments in the marketing enviroment that managers use to prepare and making markting plans :
A
Marketing Information
B
Descision support System
C
Database Marketing
D
None of these
Question 151Single Answer
Marketing the several different products under the same brand name :
A
Family Brand
B
Private Brand
C
co-branding
D
None of these
Question 152Single Answer
A range of techniques used to engage the purchaser Such as discounting coupons, guarantees free gifts, vouchers, demonstrations bonus commission and sponsorship are known as :
A
sponsorship
B
Advertising
C
Personal Selling
D
Sales promotion
Question 153Single Answer
When a company enters a new product category for which its current brand names are not appropriate, it will likely follow which of the following brand stratagies :
A
Product extensions
B
Line extensions
C
Brand extensions
D
New brands
Question 154Single Answer
It is the process of evaluating each market segments attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter :
A
Mass Marketing
B
Marketing Segmantation
C
Market Targeting
D
Market Positioning
Question 155Single Answer
Which of the following stages of the product life cycle focuses on expanding market and creating product awareness and trail :
A
Decline Stage
B
Introduction Stage
C
Growth Stage
D
Maturity Stage
Question 156Single Answer
If an advertiser wants flexibility, timeliness, good local market coverage, broad acceptability, and high believabilty, the advertiser Will probably choose which of the following mass media types :
A
Newspapers
B
Television
C
Direct mail
D
Radio
Question 157Single Answer
Relationship Marketing Means :
A
Improve profitability
B
Encourage utilization of products over the life span of the customer
C
Increase sales of new products
D
Developing strategic partnership with valued customers
Question 158Single Answer
The selection of appropriate media is based upon :
A
Media habits of target consumers
B
Nature and cost of the product
C
The type of message
D
All of the above
Question 159Single Answer
What are the advantages of radio advertising ?
(1) Relatively low cost
(2) High audience selectivity
(3) Good local acceptance
(4) High geographic selectivity
(5) High democratic selectivity
A
1 & 5
B
1, 4 & 5
C
All of the above
D
None of these
Question 160Single Answer
What is meant by the term ‘above the line' marketing ?
A
The use or point of sale materials such as cutouts of artists in record stores
B
A marketing term referring to promotional expenditure using independent media channels, such as television and radio
C
The accounting profit before profit and tax are deducted
D
Using various ways to promote fast moving consumer goods by changing there appearance or contents
Question 161Single Answer
What is the meaning of advertising ?
A
various ways of communicating the quality of products to potential consumers
B
The placing of advertisements in newspapers and magazines
C
Through the use of various media channels, the firm tries to inform potential customers of its products
D
Selling products to people
Question 162Single Answer
Which of the following is not role of wholesalers ?
A
Breaking bulk
B
Sharing the risk of new products with the manufacturer
C
servicing the needs of small customers
D
selling directly to consumers
Question 163Single Answer
In the mix marketing what is the meaning of “place” ?
A
The process of getting products to the places where customers can
buy them
B
The building in of realibility to a product
C
Launching a new product that extends the product range
D
None of these
Question 164Single Answer
A product me cycle :
A
shows how a products sales of profits, depending on the units used, may rise and fall over its life
B
Forecasts how long a product will sell for and make a profit
C
Is divided into three stages
D
Shows how profitable a product will be
Question 165Single Answer
Generic brands are :
A
unbranded
B
branded
C
Expensive
D
None of these
Question 166Single Answer
"Dus Ka dum" hosted by Salman Khan is an air on channel:
A
Sony
B
Star
C
Star one
D
Zee
Question 167Single Answer
The Advertisement of which of the following banks has the punch line "Much more to do with you in focus" ?
A
State Bank of India
B
ICICI Bank
C
Andhra Bank
D
Bank of Baroda
Question 168Single Answer
Big Adda social networking site belongs to :
A
Times Group
B
HT Group
C
Naukri.com
D
ADAG Group
Question 169Single Answer
Navratan oil is a brand of :
A
Emami
B
ITC
C
HUL
D
P&G
Question 170Single Answer
Which of the following statements describes a difference between advertising and publicity ?
A
Publicity is more expensive on a contact-per-cost basis than advertising
B
Publicity is usually directly paid, and advertising is usually indirectly paid
C
Advertising is usually directly paid, and Publicity is usually indirectly paid
D
Advertising provides an immediate feedback loop and publicity does not
Question 171Single Answer
Which of the following statements about direct marketing is true ?
A
Direct marketing uses mass selling
B
Direct marketing is always one- way communication
C
Direct marketing can take the of face to face selling,
D
direct mail, catalogue, telephone solicitations, direct response advertising, and online marketing
Question 172Single Answer
Customer value :
A
Will be the same for all customers
B
is easy to calculate in numerical formula
C
is a cost-to-benefit analysis by consumers
D
None of these
Question 173Single Answer
Your _______ is the picture and impression that other people have of the business ?
A
Business Image
B
Tools of promotion
C
Promotional budget
D
Marketing mix
Question 174Single Answer
It involves targeting specific areas where potential customers are likely to be using public information lists to help identify prospective clients is known as …………………
A
Direct mail
B
Physical design
C
Informational advertising
D
Transformational advertising
Question 175Single Answer
_________ category compromises of individual who have indicated that they are interested in your products/services.
A
Suspects
B
Prospects
C
Customers
D
Advocates
Question 176Single Answer
Marketers segments markets to achieve which of the following objectives ?
A
To accommodate new market segments
B
To guide repositioning or redesign products
C
To identify the most appropriate media for advertising to a target market segment
D
All of the above
Question 177Single Answer
Which of the following would not be used as base for segmentation ?
A
Geographic variables
B
Demographic variables
C
Marketing mix variables
D
Psychographic variables
Question 178Single Answer
It is an art and technology of enclosing and protecting products for distribution, storage, sale and use is known as ………………
A
Packaging
B
Labelling
C
Advertising
D
Selling
Question 179Single Answer
It is an element, word or design that differentiates one brand from another and is known as …………….
A
Logo
B
Mono
C
Hallmark
D
Label
Question 180Single Answer
It is a strategy that capitalizes on using two brand names and provides customers value from both brands & it is called ………….
A
Co-branding
B
Branding
C
Promotion
D
Brand Extension
Question 181Single Answer
AIDA stands for :
A
Advertisement, Interest, Demand, Acquire
B
Advertisement, Interest, Demand, Attention
C
Attention, Interest, Desire, Action
D
Action, Interest, Demand, Attention
Question 182Single Answer
DAGMAR :
A
Differentiate among geography and market analysis research
B
Defining advertising goals for measured advertising results
C
Demonstrate among geographic market along with research
D
None of above
Question 183Single Answer
Premiums, COUPONS, NICE reductions, reabates, sampling, contests, games, sweepstakes are the tools of :
A
Advertising
B
sales promotion
C
Personal selling
D
All of the above
Question 184Single Answer
Direct marketing involves :
A
Telemarketing
B
Face-to-face selling
C
Direct mail marketing
D
Kiosk marketing
E
All of the above
Question 185Single Answer
Sales forecasting means :
A
Sales Planning
B
Sales Pricing
C
Distribution Channels
D
Consumer tastes
E
All of these
Question 186Single Answer
A promotional strategy that encourages the various intermediates along the channel to stock and sell the product is called :
A
“Pull” Strategy
B
“Push” Strategy
C
Intermediatory Strategy
D
None of the above
Question 187Single Answer
________ is a means of helping customers to identify a particular suppliers product/services and to create and maintain the confidence to customers in the performance of the brand
A
Branding
B
Selling
C
Supplying
D
Planning
Question 188Single Answer
It simply means that consumers come in contact with the marketers message and is known as ……..
A
Perception
B
Exposure
C
Attention
D
Interpretation
Question 189Single Answer
With the globalization of markets, the tastes and preferences of consumers worldwide are :
A
Being encouraged by multinational organizations to become increasingly similar
B
So different that they can be ignored by international organization
C
Converging upon a global norm
D
Becoming similar to the tastes and preferences of American consumers
Question 190Single Answer
Slow feedback, high costs, and difficulty in measuring effects of sales are disadvantages of which promotion mix ingredient ?