Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A
It is a financial establishment
B
It acts like a financial intermediary
C
It accepts deposits from the public
D
It provides safe locker facility
E
All the above
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A
A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B
They include general utility services and agency services.
C
A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D
A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E
A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A
Issuance of debit and credit cards
B
Providing safe custody of valuable items
C
ATM services
D
Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E
Online transfer of funds across the globe
Question 4Single Answer
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A
Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C
Banking Regulation Act 1949
D
Company Act 1956
E
None of the above
Question 5Single Answer
Banks in India are regulated by :
A
The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B
The Banking regulation Act,1949
C
The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D
The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E
None of the above
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A
Zero Hour
B
Input devices
C
Privilege motion
D
Sedimentary
E
Invest rate swap
Question 7Single Answer
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A
Investment Banking
B
Core Banking
C
Mobile Banking
D
National Banking
E
Specialized Banking
Question 8Single Answer
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A
Will
B
Registration
C
Nomination
D
Indemnity
E
Guarantee
Question 9Single Answer
Which of the following is not banking term?
A
Letter of credit
B
MIBOR
C
Factoring services
D
Entry load
E
None of the above
Question 10Single Answer
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A
Mutual Funds
B
Life Insurance Companies
C
Commercial Banks
D
Post office saving schemes
E
None of the above
Question 11Single Answer
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A
Mutual funds
B
Term deposits
C
Credit cards
D
All of these
E
None of the above
Question 12Single Answer
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A
1780
B
1790
C
1770
D
1802
E
1814
Question 13Single Answer
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A
Checking account
B
Saving account
C
Money market account
D
Certificate of deposit (CD)
E
Mutual Fund
Question 14Single Answer
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A
Business loan
B
Capital raisig
C
Checking account
D
Project finance
E
Term loan
Question 15Single Answer
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A
Commercial bank
B
Central bank
C
EXIM bank
D
Scheduled Bank
E
Development bank
Question 16Single Answer
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A
State Bank of India
B
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C
Export-Import Bank of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
E
None of the above
Question 17Single Answer
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A
Rs. 100
B
Rs. 400
C
Rs. 500
D
Rs.1000
E
Rs. 1500
Question 18Single Answer
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A
Position of profit on a particular date
B
Position of profit for a given period
C
Position of loss for a given period
D
Both 2 and 3
E
None of the above
Question 19Single Answer
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A
Fixed Deposit
B
Current Deposit
C
Recurring Deposit
D
All of the above
E
None of the above
Question 20Single Answer
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A
The Commercial Bank of India
B
Allahabad Bank
C
Oudh Commercial Bank
D
Punjab National bank ltd
E
None of the above
Question 21Single Answer
Which of the following scheme is not meant for investment purposes?
A
Letter of credit
B
National saving certificate
C
Infrastructure bonds
D
Mutual funds
E
None of the above
Question 22Single Answer
What is meant by development Oriented banking?
A
Infrastructure financing
B
Extending loans to State, which are undevelopment
C
Taking up the task of development of the economy by providing support to under privileged section of the society
D
All of the above
E
None of the above
Question 23Single Answer
The Reserve Bank of India was established in:
A
April 1935
B
June 1935
C
August 1934
D
May 1936
E
January 1949
Question 24Single Answer
14 major Indian commercial banks of the country were nationalized in:
A
July 1965
B
June 1960
C
July 1969
D
May 1970
E
January 1949
Question 25Single Answer
On the basis of suggestions of which of the following committee. The Banking Regulation Act was amended in 1983 to open the gates for the new private sector banks ?
A
Narasimham Committee
B
Rangrajan Committee
C
Rangrajan Committee
D
Goiporia committee
E
None of the above
Question 26Single Answer
When RBI made compulsory to the Best II norms for Banks?
A
March 31, 2007
B
March 31, 2008
C
March 31, 2010
D
March 31, 2011
E
March 31, 2009
Question 27Single Answer
Which Act is fully applicable to all commercial banks?
A
Companies Act, 1956
B
Partnership Act, 1932
C
Banking Regulation Act,1949
D
Sale of Goods Act, 1930
E
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Question 28Single Answer
What type of loan is granted by banks for purchase of white goods?
A
Mortgage loans
B
Personal loans
C
Consumption Loans
D
Home Loans
E
None of the above
Question 29Single Answer
Which of the following loans are granted for meeting social financial commitments like marriage etc?
A
Mortgage loans
B
Personal loans
C
Consumption Loans
D
Home Loans
E
None of the above
Question 30Single Answer
PPF account is opened for a period of
A
Mortgage loans
B
Personal loans
C
Consumption Loans
D
Home Loans
E
None of the above
Question 31Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 32Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 33Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 34Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 36Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 37Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 38Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 40Single Answer
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A
Kuchipudi
B
Odissi
C
Bharatnatyam
D
Kathak
Question 41Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 42Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 43Single Answer
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud
Question 44Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 45Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 46Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 47Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 48Single Answer
The 'Kartarpur Corridor' connects India with which country?
A
Nepal
B
Bangladesh
C
Pakistan
D
Bhutan
Question 49Single Answer
Who was awarded the Booker Prize 2024 for Fiction?
A
Eleanor Catton
B
Sarah Bakewell
C
Karen Joy Fowler
D
Paul Lynch
Question 50Single Answer
What is the theme of the 'World Cities Day 2024' observed on?
A
Adapting Cities for Climate Resilience
B
Shaping Sustainable Futures
C
Cities and the Green Agenda
D
Urban Innovation for a Better Future
Important Questions Package
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in Saraswat Bank Junior Officer question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
2.
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam - Hindi
Description : 2000 Question with Answer.
₹151[₹500]
3.
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
4.
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer.
₹151[₹500]
5.
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
6.
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
7.
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
8.
Saraswat Bank Junior Officer Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 52Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 53Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 54Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 55Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 57Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 58Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 59Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 60Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 61Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 64Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 65Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 66Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 67Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 68Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 69Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 71Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 73Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 74Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 75Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 76Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 77Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 78Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 79Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 80Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 81Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 82Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 83Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 84Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 85Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 86Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 87Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 88Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 89Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 90Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 91Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 92Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 93Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 94Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 95Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 96Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 97Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 98Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 99Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 100Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 101Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 103Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 104Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 105Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 106Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 107Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 108Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 109Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 110Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 111Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 112Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 113Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 114Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 115Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 116Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 117Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 118Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 119Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 120Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 121Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 122Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 123Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 124Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 125Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 126Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 127Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 128Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 129Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 130Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
Question 132Single Answer
What is √0.0009 ?
A
0.003
B
0.03
C
0.3
D
0.09
Question 133Single Answer
What is √1156 ?
A
32
B
34
C
36
D
38
Question 134Single Answer
What is √2025 ?
A
35
B
40
C
45
D
50
Question 135Single Answer
What is (51^2) ?
A
2601
B
2501
C
2551
D
2651
Question 136Single Answer
7 8 18 57 ?
A
244
B
174
C
186
D
none of these
Question 137Single Answer
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A
25 years
B
27 years
C
26 years
D
24 years
Question 138Single Answer
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
A
2
B
-1
C
1
D
-2
Question 139Single Answer
How many factors does 100 have ?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 140Single Answer
If x = a – b, y = b – c, z = c – a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz will be
A
a + b + c
B
Zero
C
4 (a + b + c)
D
3 abc
Question 141Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 13 ?
A
819
B
845
C
871
D
899
Question 142Single Answer
A number leaves remainder 3 when divided by 5. What remainder when divided by 10 ?
A
3 or 8
B
3
C
8
D
Cannot determine
Question 143Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (9^{101}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 144Single Answer
How many prime numbers are between 10 and 20 ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following pair is co-prime ?
A
8 and 12
B
9 and 15
C
14 and 25
D
21 and 35
Question 146Single Answer
(43)2 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465
A
41
B
35
C
38
D
33
Question 147Single Answer
269 – 122 – 33 = X * 2
A
51
B
41
C
21
D
49
Question 148Single Answer
What is the remainder when 2100 is divided by 3 ?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
General English
Question 150Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 151Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 152Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 153Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 154Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 155Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 156Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 157Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 158Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 159Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 160Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 161Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 162Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 163Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 164Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 165Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 166Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 167Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 168Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 169Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 170Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 171Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 172Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 173Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 174Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 175Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My neighbor along with his children
B
is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C
At Agra
D
No error
Question 176Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B
but the former is
C
greater than latter
D
No error
Question 177Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He has abandoned
B
the criminal activities
C
after returning from jail
D
No error
Question 178Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
We must have
B
sympathy for
C
needy and the poor
D
No error
Question 179Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Chinese is a very
B
difficult language to understand for those
C
who have never been to China
D
No error
Question 180Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The old women placed
B
kettle on fire
C
come back to the bedroom
D
No error
Question 181Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The singing is both
B
my vocation and avocation because it is a
C
source of joy and bread to me
D
No error
Question 182Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Snake we saw was
B
very deadly thought
C
it left the kitchen quietly
D
No error
Question 183Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Being M.A. only he
B
could not be appointed
C
to the post of a lecturer
D
No error
Question 184Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Our first trip was the most interesting one
B
but our second one
C
was even more interesting
D
No error
Question 185Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B
all the problems of future
C
but he did solve problems of
D
No error
Question 186Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Having finished his breakfast
B
he started working on the problem
C
that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D
No error
Question 187Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The new railway line will
B
greatly improve transport and communication
C
in eastern part of the country
D
No error
Question 188Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It being rainy day most of
B
the people out on the street
C
were carrying umbrellas
D
No error
Question 189Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.