Latest SAU Agricultural Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Language Comprehension, Agricultural Assistant
Question Bank SAU Agricultural Assistant Exam - English
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 12Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 13Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 15Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 21Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 22Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 23Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 24Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 26Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 28Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 29Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 30Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 31Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 32Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 33Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 34Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 35Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 36Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 37Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 38Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 39Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 40Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 41Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 42Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 43Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 44Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 45Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 46Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 48Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 49Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 50Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Important Questions Package
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Quantitative Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 52Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 53Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 54Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 55Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Language Comprehension
Question 56Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 57Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 58Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 59Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 61Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 62Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 63Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 64Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 65Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 66Single Answer
"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?
A
વાતચીત
B
આક્રમણ
C
ખેડૂત
D
ધમાધમ
Question 67Single Answer
"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?
A
સંગઠન
B
વ્યવસ્થા
C
સંવિદાન
D
અનવરત
Question 68Single Answer
"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A
અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B
વિઘટન
C
વિદ્યા
D
આકર્ષણ
Question 69Single Answer
"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?
A
ધૂપ
B
દૂર
C
જગ્યા
D
આવેશ
Question 70Single Answer
"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?
A
ગોલ
B
ધબ્બુ
C
સાંજ
D
ઉદ્દેશ
Question 71Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 73Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 74Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 75Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 76Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 77Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above
Question 78Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above
Question 79Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947
Question 80Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan
Question 81Single Answer
Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
A
Syria
B
Iraq
C
Lebanon
D
Iran
Question 82Single Answer
What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
A
Nuclear disarmament only
B
Border security
C
Economic sanctions enforcement
D
Regime change in Tehran
Question 83Single Answer
Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
A
Mumbai
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Jammu & Kashmir
D
Karnataka
Question 84Single Answer
What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
A
EUR 10 million
B
EUR 100 million
C
EUR 50 million
D
EUR 20 million
Question 85Single Answer
Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Uttarakhand
D
Himachal Pradesh
Agricultural Assistant
Question 86Single Answer
Which principle of crop production emphasizes matching crop species with prevailing agro-climatic conditions?
A
Crop rotation
B
Crop adaptation
C
Monoculture
D
Mixed cropping
Question 87Single Answer
The law of diminishing returns in agronomy is primarily related to which input?
A
Solar radiation
B
Seed viability
C
Soil texture
D
Fertilizer application
Question 88Single Answer
Yield potential of a crop is mainly determined by which factor under ideal conditions?
A
Soil salinity
B
Weed pressure
C
Genetic makeup
D
Pest incidence
Question 89Single Answer
Which factor directly controls photosynthate partitioning in crops?
A
Atmospheric pressure
B
Soil pH
C
Crop density
D
Source–sink relationship
Question 90Single Answer
Harvest index is defined as the ratio of economic yield to which parameter?
A
Leaf area index
B
Root biomass
C
Biological yield
D
Total dry matter of soil
Question 91Single Answer
Which crop is classified as a Kharif cereal?
A
Wheat
B
Barley
C
Maize
D
Oat
Question 92Single Answer
Chickpea belongs to which crop group?
A
Oilseed
B
Fiber crop
C
Pulse
D
Tuber crop
Question 93Single Answer
Which oilseed crop is primarily grown under rainfed conditions in India?
A
Groundnut
B
Soybean
C
Mustard
D
Sunflower
Question 94Single Answer
Which crop is grouped under coarse cereals?
A
Rice
B
Wheat
C
Sorghum
D
Barley
Question 95Single Answer
Pigeon pea is botanically categorized as which type of crop?
A
Annual cereal
B
Biennial oilseed
C
Annual tuber
D
Perennial pulse
Question 96Single Answer
Lodging in cereals is mainly influenced by which factor?
A
Low temperature
B
Potassium deficiency
C
Zinc toxicity
D
Nitrogen excess
Question 97Single Answer
Soil bulk density directly affects which crop process?
A
Germination rate
B
Photosynthesis
C
Root penetration
D
Transpiration
Question 98Single Answer
Which nutrient deficiency reduces tillering in cereals?
A
Phosphorus
B
Potassium
C
Nitrogen
D
Sulphur
Question 99Single Answer
Yield reduction due to weed competition is maximum during which crop stage?
A
Maturity stage
B
Vegetative stage
C
Critical crop-weed competition period
D
Harvesting stage
Question 100Single Answer
Primary objective of primary tillage is to:
A
Destroy weeds only
B
Pulverize soil finely
C
Compact soil surface
D
Loosen soil deeply
Question 101Single Answer
Which implement is used for primary tillage in dryland agriculture?
A
Seed drill
B
Roller
C
Disc plough
D
Harrow
Question 102Single Answer
Zero tillage is most suitable for which cropping system?
A
Rice–rice
B
Rice–wheat
C
Cotton–cotton
D
Maize–maize
Question 103Single Answer
Which tillage system minimizes soil erosion?
A
Conventional tillage
B
Intensive tillage
C
Deep tillage
D
Conservation tillage
Question 104Single Answer
Puddling is mainly practiced in which crop?
A
Wheat
B
Rice
C
Maize
D
Barley
Question 105Single Answer
Broadcasting results in which major disadvantage?
A
Uniform plant spacing
B
High seed efficiency
C
Uneven crop stand
D
Reduced seed rate
Question 106Single Answer
Line sowing improves crop yield mainly due to:
A
Reduced evapotranspiration
B
Better weed control
C
Enhanced nutrient fixation
D
Increased rainfall use
Question 107Single Answer
Dibbling method is commonly used for which crop?
A
Rice
B
Wheat
C
Maize
D
Barley
Question 108Single Answer
Transplanting shock in seedlings occurs due to:
A
Nutrient toxicity
B
Root damage
C
Light stress
D
Pest attack
Question 109Single Answer
Optimum sowing depth ensures better:
A
Seed germination
B
Weed emergence
C
Soil aeration
D
Moisture loss
Question 110Single Answer
Physiological maturity of a crop is indicated by:
A
Leaf senescence
B
Stem drying
C
Grain shattering
D
Maximum dry matter accumulation
Question 111Single Answer
Which harvesting method reduces post-harvest losses?
A
Mechanical harvesting
B
Early harvesting
C
Manual cutting
D
Delayed harvesting
Question 112Single Answer
Shattering loss is common in which crop?
A
Rice
B
Wheat
C
Mustard
D
Maize
Question 113Single Answer
Harvest index decreases mainly due to:
A
Excess vegetative growth
B
Increase in grain yield
C
Improved translocation
D
Balanced nutrition
Question 114Single Answer
Which factor determines harvesting time most accurately?
A
Crop maturity indices
B
Soil moisture
C
Calendar days
D
Market demand
Question 115Single Answer
Seed viability refers to:
A
Germination capacity
B
Seed weight
C
Genetic purity
D
Seed size
Question 116Single Answer
Which test measures seed vigor?
A
Tetrazolium test
B
Germination test
C
Purity analysis
D
Electrical conductivity test
Question 117Single Answer
Certified seed is produced from which seed class?
A
Foundation seed
B
Breeder seed
C
Truthfully labeled seed
D
Nucleus seed
Question 118Single Answer
Genetic purity of seed is maintained by:
A
Grading
B
Drying
C
Roguing
D
Coating
Question 119Single Answer
Seed dormancy is primarily caused by:
A
Impermeable seed coat
B
High temperature
C
Excess moisture
D
High oxygen availability
Question 120Single Answer
Integrated weed management emphasizes:
A
Single herbicide use
B
Combination of control methods
C
Mechanical control only
D
Manual weeding only
Question 121Single Answer
Critical period of weed competition in rice is approximately:
A
15–45 days
B
0–10 days
C
50–70 days
D
80–100 days
Question 122Single Answer
Which herbicide is selective for grassy weeds in wheat?
A
Atrazine
B
2,4-D
C
Isoproturon
D
Paraquat
Question 123Single Answer
Mechanical weed control is least effective under:
A
Dry soil
B
Moist soil
C
Light soil
D
Heavy rainfall
Question 124Single Answer
Allelopathy refers to:
A
Crop competition for light
B
Nutrient depletion
C
Weed parasitism
D
Chemical inhibition by plants
Question 125Single Answer
Leaf Area Index greater than optimum leads to:
A
Higher yield always
B
Reduced light interception
C
Increased root growth
D
Mutual shading
Question 126Single Answer
Crop rotation helps mainly in:
A
Increasing pest resistance
B
Reducing harvest losses
C
Enhancing seed dormancy
D
Maintaining soil fertility
Question 127Single Answer
Intercropping advantage is best explained by:
A
Nutrient mining
B
Uniform maturity
C
Higher seed rate
D
Complementary resource use
Question 128Single Answer
Which crop is commonly used as a green manure?
A
Wheat
B
Barley
C
Mustard
D
Dhaincha
Question 129Single Answer
Which practice improves nitrogen availability biologically?
A
Deep tillage
B
Flood irrigation
C
Crop rotation with legumes
D
Stubble burning
Question 130Single Answer
Which growth stage of cereals is most sensitive to moisture stress?
A
Flowering
B
Tillering
C
Germination
D
Maturity
Question 131Single Answer
Crop stand uniformity is most influenced by which factor at sowing?
A
Fertilizer placement
B
Soil organic carbon
C
Seed rate and spacing
D
Atmospheric humidity
Question 132Single Answer
Which physiological process is most affected by high temperature stress?
A
Respiration
B
Translocation
C
Photosynthesis
D
Nutrient uptake
Question 133Single Answer
Which agronomic practice improves water-use efficiency?
A
Flood irrigation
B
Mulching
C
Excess nitrogen application
D
Close spacing
Question 134Single Answer
Sink limitation in crops results in:
A
Reduced photosynthesis
B
Increased transpiration
C
Poor root growth
D
Accumulation of assimilates in leaves
Question 135Single Answer
Plant population beyond optimum level generally causes:
A
Increased yield
B
Lodging and yield decline
C
Reduced competition
D
Improved harvest index
Question 136Single Answer
Which crop tolerates higher plant density best?
A
Cotton
B
Groundnut
C
Rice
D
Chickpea
Question 137Single Answer
Optimum spacing in crops ensures maximum:
A
Root penetration
B
Weed infestation
C
Soil temperature
D
Resource utilization
Question 138Single Answer
Rectangular planting is superior mainly because it:
A
Reduces seed cost
B
Enhances dormancy
C
Prevents pests
D
Improves intercultural operations
Question 139Single Answer
Plant density adjustment is most critical in which crop?
A
Sugarcane
B
Wheat
C
Maize
D
Paddy
Question 140Single Answer
Which nutrient is required in maximum quantity by crops?
A
Phosphorus
B
Nitrogen
C
Potassium
D
Sulphur
Question 141Single Answer
Luxury consumption of nutrients is most common with:
A
Calcium
B
Phosphorus
C
Nitrogen
D
Boron
Question 142Single Answer
Split application of nitrogen is recommended to:
A
Reduce volatilization losses
B
Increase soil pH
C
Improve phosphorus fixation
D
Enhance seed dormancy
Question 143Single Answer
Which nutrient deficiency causes purpling of leaves?
A
Nitrogen
B
Phosphorus
C
Potassium
D
Magnesium
Question 144Single Answer
Sulphur deficiency is most visible in which crop group?
A
Oilseeds
B
Cereals
C
Tubers
D
Fodders
Question 145Single Answer
After-ripening is required to break dormancy in:
A
Paddy
B
Barley
C
Wheat
D
Groundnut
Question 146Single Answer
Seed moisture content during safe storage should be:
A
Below 12%
B
15–18%
C
Above 20%
D
Above 25%
Question 147Single Answer
Orthodox seeds can be stored safely under:
A
High moisture
B
Low moisture and temperature
C
High temperature
D
Flooded conditions
Question 148Single Answer
Seed aging primarily affects which component first?
A
Genetic makeup
B
Seed coat
C
Endosperm size
D
Embryo viability
Question 149Single Answer
Hard-seededness is a characteristic of:
A
Pulses
B
Cereals
C
Oilseeds
D
Vegetables
Question 150Single Answer
Which weed reproduces mainly through vegetative propagation?
A
Chenopodium album
B
Phalaris minor
C
Cyperus rotundus
D
Amaranthus viridis
Question 151Single Answer
Perennial weeds are difficult to control mainly due to:
A
High seed production
B
Rapid germination
C
Deep root systems
D
Short life cycle
Question 152Single Answer
Which factor influences weed-crop competition most?
A
Soil color
B
Rainfall pattern
C
Time of weed emergence
D
Wind velocity
Question 153Single Answer
Which weed is commonly associated with wheat fields?
A
Phalaris minor
B
Echinochloa crus-galli
C
Cyperus iria
D
Commelina benghalensis
Question 154Single Answer
Weeds causing maximum yield loss usually compete for:
A
Light
B
Carbon dioxide
C
Water and nutrients
D
Oxygen
Question 155Single Answer
Pre-emergence herbicides are applied:
A
After crop emergence
B
Immediately after sowing
C
After weed emergence
D
Before sowing
Question 156Single Answer
Atrazine is commonly used in which crop?
A
Maize
B
Rice
C
Wheat
D
Mustard
Question 157Single Answer
Contact herbicides kill plants by affecting:
A
Root system
B
Only sprayed plant parts
C
Meristematic tissue
D
Seed viability
Question 158Single Answer
Systemic herbicides move within plants through:
A
Xylem and phloem
B
Only xylem
C
Only phloem
D
Root hairs only
Question 159Single Answer
Herbicide resistance develops mainly due to:
A
High rainfall
B
Repeated use of same herbicide
C
Mechanical weeding
D
Crop rotation
Question 160Single Answer
Delayed harvesting mainly increases:
A
Seed viability
B
Test weight
C
Shattering losses
D
Harvest index
Question 161Single Answer
Which crop is harvested at dough stage for fodder?
A
Sorghum
B
Rice
C
Wheat
D
Mustard
Question 162Single Answer
Mechanical threshing reduces losses caused by:
A
Rodents
B
Improper beating
C
Birds
D
Moisture stress
Question 163Single Answer
Which factor most affects combine harvester efficiency?
A
Crop height
B
Soil pH
C
Seed rate
D
Fertilizer dose
Question 164Single Answer
Harvest index is highest in:
A
Forage crops
B
Fibre crops
C
Green manure crops
D
Cereals
Question 165Single Answer
Multiple cropping increases:
A
Input wastage
B
Soil erosion
C
Pest attack
D
Cropping intensity
Question 166Single Answer
Relay cropping involves:
A
Simultaneous sowing
B
Monoculture
C
Seasonal fallow
D
Sowing next crop before harvesting previous crop
Question 167Single Answer
Which system reduces risk of total crop failure?
A
Sole cropping
B
Monocropping
C
Continuous cropping
D
Intercropping
Question 168Single Answer
Crop diversification mainly helps in:
A
Yield reduction
B
Soil compaction
C
Increased weed infestation
D
Income stability
Question 169Single Answer
Sustainable agriculture emphasizes:
A
Maximum chemical input
B
Intensive tillage
C
High seed rate
D
Resource conservation
Question 170Single Answer
Drought tolerance in crops is associated with:
A
Shallow roots
B
Soft tissues
C
High transpiration
D
Deep root system
Question 171Single Answer
Heat stress during grain filling causes:
A
Reduced grain weight
B
Increased grain size
C
Delayed maturity
D
Improved quality
Question 172Single Answer
Crop acclimatization refers to:
A
Physiological adjustment to environment
B
Genetic modification
C
Soil nutrient management
D
Weed adaptation
Question 173Single Answer
Antitranspirants are used to:
A
Increase transpiration
B
Enhance photosynthesis
C
Improve nutrient uptake
D
Reduce water loss
Question 174Single Answer
Which compound is used as an antitranspirant?
A
Kaolin
B
Urea
C
Gypsum
D
Lime
Question 175Single Answer
Precision agriculture primarily aims at:
A
Uniform field management
B
Blanket fertilizer use
C
Increased tillage
D
Site-specific management
Question 176Single Answer
Remote sensing in agriculture helps in assessing:
A
Soil texture
B
Harvest index
C
Seed dormancy
D
Crop health and stress
Question 177Single Answer
GPS technology is used for:
A
Weed identification
B
Fertilizer synthesis
C
Seed dormancy breaking
D
Field mapping
Question 178Single Answer
Variable rate technology helps in:
A
Precision input application
B
Uniform irrigation
C
Manual sowing
D
Deep ploughing
Question 179Single Answer
Precision farming reduces:
A
Environmental pollution
B
Input efficiency
C
Yield potential
D
Crop diversity
Question 180Single Answer
Crop simulation models are used to predict:
A
Weed species
B
Seed purity
C
Crop growth and yield
D
Soil texture
Question 181Single Answer
Phenological development of crops depends mainly on:
A
Soil fertility
B
Temperature accumulation
C
Weed density
D
Seed size
Question 182Single Answer
Growing degree days measure:
A
Rainfall requirement
B
Heat unit accumulation
C
Nutrient uptake
D
Water stress
Question 183Single Answer
Which stage determines final yield in cereals?
A
Germination
B
Grain filling
C
Tillering
D
Maturity
Question 184Single Answer
Crop yield stability refers to:
A
Consistent yield over years
B
Maximum yield
C
High fertilizer use
D
High seed rate
Question 185Single Answer
Excessive tillage leads to soil structure degradation?
A
False
B
True
C
Partially true
D
Conditional
Question 186Single Answer
Which crop is most sensitive to waterlogging?
A
Rice
B
Wheat
C
Sugarcane
D
Jute
Question 187Single Answer
Green manuring improves soil mainly by:
A
Adding organic matter
B
Increasing bulk density
C
Increasing salinity
D
Reducing microbial activity
Question 188Single Answer
Which practice minimizes nutrient leaching?
A
Broadcasting fertilizers
B
Flood irrigation
C
Deep ploughing
D
Split fertilizer application
Question 189Single Answer
Crop residue retention helps in:
A
Increasing evaporation
B
Pest multiplication
C
Weed proliferation
D
Soil moisture conservation
Question 190Single Answer
Which crop has the highest nitrogen fixation ability?
A
Wheat
B
Soybean
C
Maize
D
Rice
Question 191Single Answer
Rhizobium symbiosis occurs in:
A
Cereals
B
Legumes
C
Oilseeds
D
Fibre crops
Question 192Single Answer
Which soil condition favors weed emergence?
A
Compacted soil
B
Optimal moisture
C
High salinity
D
Low oxygen
Question 193Single Answer
Crop lodging reduces yield mainly due to:
A
Reduced photosynthesis
B
Poor pollination
C
Harvest difficulty
D
Root damage
Question 194Single Answer
Which agronomic practice reduces evapotranspiration?