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Latest SBI Special Management Executive Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, GK, English, Reasoning, Account
Question Bank SBI Special Management Executive Exam - English
GK
Q 1 :
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A.It is a financial establishment
B.It acts like a financial intermediary
C.It accepts deposits from the public
D.It provides safe locker facility
E.All the above
Q 2 :
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B.They include general utility services and agency services.
C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Q 3 :
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
B.Providing safe custody of valuable items
C.ATM services
D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
Q 4 :
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
D.Company Act 1956
E.None of the above
Q 5 :
Banks in India are regulated by :
A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E.None of the above
Q 6 :
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A.Zero Hour
B.Input devices
C.Privilege motion
D.Sedimentary
E.Invest rate swap
Q 7 :
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A.Investment Banking
B.Core Banking
C.Mobile Banking
D.National Banking
E.Specialized Banking
Q 8 :
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A.Will
B.Registration
C.Nomination
D.Indemnity
E.Guarantee
Q 9 :
Which of the following is not banking term?
A.Letter of credit
B.MIBOR
C.Factoring services
D.Entry load
E.None of the above
Q 10 :
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A.Mutual Funds
B.Life Insurance Companies
C.Commercial Banks
D.Post office saving schemes
E.None of the above
Q 11 :
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A.Mutual funds
B.Term deposits
C.Credit cards
D.All of these
E.None of the above
Q 12 :
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A.1780
B.1790
C.1770
D.1802
E.1814
Q 13 :
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A.Checking account
B.Saving account
C.Money market account
D.Certificate of deposit (CD)
E.Mutual Fund
Q 14 :
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A.Business loan
B.Capital raisig
C.Checking account
D.Project finance
E.Term loan
Q 15 :
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A.Commercial bank
B.Central bank
C.EXIM bank
D.Scheduled Bank
E.Development bank
Q 16 :
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A.State Bank of India
B.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C.Export-Import Bank of India
D.Reserve Bank of India
E.None of the above
Q 17 :
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A.Rs. 100
B.Rs. 400
C.Rs. 500
D.Rs.1000
E.Rs. 1500
Q 18 :
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A.Position of profit on a particular date
B.Position of profit for a given period
C.Position of loss for a given period
D.Both 2 and 3
E.None of the above
Q 19 :
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A.Fixed Deposit
B.Current Deposit
C.Recurring Deposit
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 20 :
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A.The Commercial Bank of India
B.Allahabad Bank
C.Oudh Commercial Bank
D.Punjab National bank ltd
E.None of the above
Q 21 :
Which of the following scheme is not meant for investment purposes?
A.Letter of credit
B.National saving certificate
C.Infrastructure bonds
D.Mutual funds
E.None of the above
Q 22 :
What is meant by development Oriented banking?
A.Infrastructure financing
B.Extending loans to State, which are undevelopment
C.Taking up the task of development of the economy by providing support to under privileged section of the society
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 23 :
The Reserve Bank of India was established in:
A.April 1935
B.June 1935
C.August 1934
D.May 1936
E.January 1949
Q 24 :
14 major Indian commercial banks of the country were nationalized in:
A.July 1965
B.June 1960
C.July 1969
D.May 1970
E.January 1949
Q 25 :
On the basis of suggestions of which of the following committee. The Banking Regulation Act was amended in 1983 to open the gates for the new private sector banks ?
A.Narasimham Committee
B.Rangrajan Committee
C.Rangrajan Committee
D.Goiporia committee
E.None of the above
Q 26 :
When RBI made compulsory to the Best II norms for Banks?
A.March 31, 2007
B.March 31, 2008
C.March 31, 2010
D.March 31, 2011
E.March 31, 2009
Q 27 :
Which Act is fully applicable to all commercial banks?
A.Companies Act, 1956
B.Partnership Act, 1932
C.Banking Regulation Act,1949
D.Sale of Goods Act, 1930
E.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Q 28 :
What type of loan is granted by banks for purchase of white goods?
A.Mortgage loans
B.Personal loans
C.Consumption Loans
D.Home Loans
E.None of the above
Q 29 :
Which of the following loans are granted for meeting social financial commitments like marriage etc?
A.Mortgage loans
B.Personal loans
C.Consumption Loans
D.Home Loans
E.None of the above
Q 30 :
PPF account is opened for a period of
A.Mortgage loans
B.Personal loans
C.Consumption Loans
D.Home Loans
E.None of the above
General Knowledge
Q 31 :
Which was the app launched by ‘FSSAI’ for license & registration to food businesses?
A.DigiNest
B.FSSAI Trace
C.Meghdoot
D.Food Safety Connect
Q 32 :
In October 2021, ____ partnered with ‘IRCTC’ to provide passengers with greater trust in communication by verifying the National Railways Helpline Number _____.
A.Google India; 139
B.Truecaller India; 109
C.Google India; 109
D.Truecaller India; 139
Q 33 :
Which Insurance Company recently (in October 2021) became the 1st life Insurer to join the Account Aggregator (AA) framework?
A.Tata AIA Life Insurance
B.Max Life Insurance
C.Aegon Life Insurance
D.SBI Life Insurance
Q 34 :
In October 2021, Shaktikanta Das, the _____ Governor of RBI, got a ____ tenure extension from the appointment Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
A.25th; 5-year
B.24th; 5-year
C.25th; 3-year
D.26th 5-year
Q 35 :
​In October 2021, which of the following countries has launched its first manned ocean mission “Samudrayan”?
A.India
B.Sri Lanka
C.Brazil
D.Maldives
Q 36 :
In October 2021, 30th edition of “Hunar Haat” has been inaugurated at which of the following cities?
A.Bangalore
B.Kolkata
C.Pune
D.Dehradun
Q 37 :
In October 2021, who among the following has been appointed as the High Commissioner of India to Brunei?
A.Suresh K. Reddy
B.Alok Amitabh Dimri
C.S. Balachandran
D.Sujan R. Chinoy
Q 38 :
In October 2021, which of the following states has announced the Mukhyamantri Awasiya Bhu-adhikar Yojna?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Bihar
C.Uttarakhand
D.Uttar Pradesh
Q 39 :
World Thrift Day is celebrated every year on October 31, across the world, but in India, the day is celebrated annually on which day?
A.27 October
B.28 October
C.30 October
D.31 October
Q 40 :
In October 2021, which of the following has approved a $250 million loan to support the Government of India’s National Industrial Corridor Development Program (NICDP)?
A.NDB
B.IMF
C.ADB
D.NABARD
Q 41 :
Mullaperiyar dam, located in Kerala, is in control of which state?
A.Karnataka
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Telangana
Q 42 :
Who is the Fund Manager of the SWAMIH Fund?
A.Aditya Birla Sun Life
B.SBI Cap
C.Kotak Mahindra
D.Canara Robeco
Q 43 :
Which institution released a report titled ‘The Road from Paris; India’s Progress Towards its Climate Pledge’?
A.NITI Aayog
B.NABARD
C.WWF
D.Natural Resources Defense Council
Q 44 :
US state of Georgia has announced to celebrate which Indian language as ‘Rajyotsava Day’?
A.Kannada
B.Tamil
C.Malayalam
D.Telugu
Q 45 :
Sitting Bull, who was seen in the news recently, was a native ________leader.
A.Greek
B.African
C.American
D.Australian
Q 46 :
Where was India’s 1st Manned Ocean Mission ‘Samudrayan’ launched by the Ministry of Earth Science?
A.Gurugram, Haryana
B.Noida, Uttar Pradesh
C.Mumbai, Maharashtra
D.Chennai, Tamil Nadu
Q 47 :
Which Country chaired the 13th Meeting of Heads of National Statistical Offices (NSO) of BRICS that was held virtually in October 2021?
A.Brazil
B.Russia
C.India
D.China
Q 48 :
Where was India’s largest landfill gas-to-compressed biogas plant launched (in Oct’21) by Ramky Enviro Engineers Limited (REEL)?
A.Gurugram, Haryana
B.Noida, Uttar Pradesh
C.Hyderabad, Telangana
D.Chennai, Tamil Nadu
Q 49 :
What is the theme of 14th Edition of Urban Mobility India (UMI) Conference 2021?
A.Mobility for All
B.Green Urban Mobility
C.Accessible and Liveable Cities
D.Emerging Trends in Urban Mobility
Q 50 :
Who authored the book, “The Nutmeg’s Curse: A Parable for a Planet in Crisis”?
A.Kiran Desai
B.Anita Desai
C.Vikram Seth
D.Amitav Ghosh
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SBI Special Management Executive Exam Question Bank Book - English
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 54 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 55 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 56 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 57 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 58 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 59 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 60 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 61 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 62 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 63 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 64 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 65 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 66 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 67 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 68 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 69 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 70 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Q 71 :
My father generously donated money to the church.
A.Money is generously being donated to te church by my father.
B.Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.
C.Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.
D.Money was generously donated to the church by my father.
Q 72 :
We will send you your laboratory reports as soon as they are ready
A.you would be sent your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
B.Your laboratory reports will be sent to you as soon as they are ready.
C.You would be send your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
D.Your laboratory reports should be sent to you as soon as they will be ready.
Q 73 :
I saw the master conducting the orchestra.
A.I saw that the orchestra was being conducted by the master.
B.I saw the orchestra being conducted by te master
C.The master was seen conducting the orchestra by me.
D.The master was conducting the orchestra and I saw that.
Q 74 :
The dog is being fed by us.
A.We fed the dog.
B.We have had been feeding the dog.
C.We are feeding the dog
D.We had been feeding the dog
Q 75 :
When did Rohit return my bike?
A.When was my bike returned by Rohit?
B.When was it that Rohit returned my bike?
C.Rohit returned my bike when?
D.When did my bike come back from Rohit?
Q 76 :
They are going to watch a drama tomorrow.
A.A drama is going to be watched by them tomorrow.
B.A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.
C.A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.
D.A drama was going to be watched by them tomorrow.
Tomorrow the drama is going to be watched by them.
Q 77 :
The event manager is making all the reservations.
A.All the reservations would be made by the event manager.
B.All the reservations are being made by the event manager.
C.All the reservations would have been made by the event manager.
D.All the reservations will have been made by the event manager.
Q 78 :
The Marathas surrendered their fort to the Mughals after the war.
A.After the war the Marathas had to surrender their fort to the Mughals.
B.The Mughals after the war took fort surrendered by the Marathas.
C.Their fort was surrendered by the Marathas to the Mughals after the war
D.the Marathas after the war surrendered their fort to the Mughals.
Q 79 :
Mother filled dark filtered coffee in the cup.
A.The cup was filled with dark filtered coffee by mother.
B.Mother filled in the cup coffee which was dark and filtered coffee.
C.The cup was being by mother with dark filtered coffee.
D.The filtered coffee which was dark was filled into the cup by mother.
Q 80 :
The most useful gift of my wedding was given to me by my aunt.
A.My aunt gave me the most useful gift of my wedding.
B.My aunt had given me the most useful gift of my wedding.
C.The gift which has been most useful has been given to me by my aunt.
D.My aunt has given me the most useful gift of my wedding.
Q 81 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 82 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 83 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 84 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 85 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 86 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 87 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 88 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 89 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 90 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Q 91 :
Deep-seated
A.Chronic
B.Temporary
C.inbred
D.Subconscious
Q 92 :
Vibrant
A.Drab
B.Gaudy
C.Jazzy
D.Vivid
Q 93 :
To scowl
A.To glower
B.To smirk
C.To Grimace
D.To grin
Q 94 :
Atheist
A.Skeptic
B.Pagan
C.Disciple
D.Agnostic
Q 95 :
Abdicate
A.Forgo
B.Usurp
C.Waive
D.Cede
Q 96 :
Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.
A.Little
B.Few
C.Many
D.Big
Q 97 :
A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-
A.Virtuoso
B.Linguist
C.Ventriloquist
D.Scholar
Q 98 :
Astringe
A. Liberate
B.Constringe
C.Circumscribe
D.Tauten
Q 99 :
The ………..of gurudakshina is very ancient.
A.habit
B.approach
C.perception
D.concept
Q 100 :
are regional variations of a language.
A.English
B.Mandarin Chinese
C.Home language
D.Dialects
Reasoning
Q 101 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 102 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 103 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 104 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 105 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 106 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 107 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 108 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 109 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 110 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 111 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 112 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 113 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 114 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 115 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 116 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 117 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 118 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 119 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 120 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Q 121 :
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A.8
B.1
C.9
D.2
E.None of these
Q 122 :
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.None of these
Q 123 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A.A
B.G
C.H
D.B
E.None of these
Q 124 :
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A.S 3 H *
B.T#H*
C.T*#H
D.S*H5
E.SH*1
Q 125 :
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A.1
B.8
C.3
D.5
E.None of these
Q 126 :
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A.FYH
B.GWG
C.HWH
D.GUF
E.None of these
Q 127 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.215
B.143
C.247
D.91
E.65
Q 128 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.78
B.48
C.72
D.54
E.42
Q 129 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.45
B.51
C.39
D.93
E.85
Q 130 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.39
B.27
C.48
D.42
E.24
Q 131 :
Given Set : (6, 15, 28)
A.(50,59,71)
B.(46, 56, 66)
C.(60, 69, 72)
D.(60, 69, 82)
E.None of these
Q 132 :
Given Set : (81, 77, 69)
A.(56, 52, 44)
B.(64, 61, 53)
C.(92, 88, 79)
D.(75, 71, 60)
E.None of these
Q 133 :
Kick : Football
A.Mop : Sweep
B.Dust : Rage
C.Wash : Dishes
D.Throw : Ring
E.None of these
Q 134 :
Rectangle : Pentagon
A.Triangle : Rectangle
B.Diagonal : Perimeter
C.Side : Angle
D.Circle : Square
E.None of the above
Q 135 :
Inherit : Acquire
A.Instinct : Habbit
B.Learn : Discover
C.Loss : Gain
D.Hierarchical : Succession
E.None of the above
Q 136 :
Court : Justic
A.Police : Crime
B.Teacher : Study
C.Doctor : Sickness
D.Auditor : Accuracy
E.None of these
Q 137 :
Coal : Thermal
A.Power : Energy
B.Bulb : Light
C.Air : Atmosphere
D.Water : Hydel
E.None of the above
Q 138 :
Statements I=H>C> N < E=S Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C > S
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion I is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 139 :
Statements G> R>E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I. T D
II. R > S
A.Only conclusion II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Either conclusion I or II is true
E.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q 140 :
Statements G>R> E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I J > G
II. J = G
A.Only conclusion II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Either conclusion I or II is true
E.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q 141 :
Statements S< L< I = P E> R : L > Q Conclusion
I. L> R
II.E> Q
A.Only conclusion II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Either conclusion I or II is true
E.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q 142 :
Statements C > W > E=R < B < S: H< R >D Conculsions
I. C > D
II.H < S
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 143 :
Statements V= D < Y < A > G> E :P= R : A < V Conclusions
I. E > P
II. P > E
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 144 :
Statements S>J =T< O :T< P Conculsions
I. S O
II. P < S
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 145 :
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 146 :
Statements C>W> E =R< B< S:H< R > D
Conculsions
I. B C
Ii.W D
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 147 :
Statements I=H > C> N < E = S Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C >S
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 148 :
Statements J < K > O = Z , K < Q< S Conculsions
I. Q > Z
II. S < Z
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 149 :
Statements P < I > V > O = T < S Conculsions
I. O > P
II. S > V
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 150 :
Statements G < R < I < =N; R > Q> S Colculsions
I. N > Q
II. N = Q
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Account
Q 151 :
Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
A.Henry Fayol
B.Elton Mayo
C.Chester Bernard
D.F. W. Taylor
Q 152 :
Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –
A.Promoters
B.Board of Directors
C.Debenture holders
D.Government
Q 153 :
Bonus Shares are issued to –
A.Equity Shareholders
B.Preference Shareholders
C.Debenture Holders
D.Secured Creditors
Q 154 :
Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
A.Subrogation
B.Utmost good faith
C.Contribution
D.Average clause
Q 155 :
Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –
A.Capital expenditure
B.Revenue expenditure
C.Deferred revenue expenditure
D.Capital loss
Q 156 :
EPS is calculated as –
A.EBIT / Equity shares
B.EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
C.EAT / Equity shares
D.EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
Q 157 :
Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
A.Line
B.Line and staff
C.Functional
D.Matrix
Q 158 :
In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
A.To machines
B.To paper work
C.To man
D.To production
Q 159 :
Standard costing is a technique of –
A.Planning
B.Organising
C.Coordination
D.Control
Q 160 :
‘Table A’ is an alternative to –
A.Prospectus
B.Articles of Association
C.Memorandum of Association
D.None of the above
Q 161 :
FEMA stands for –
A.Foreign Exchange Management Act
B.Funds Exchange Management Act
C.Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
D.Future Exchange Management Act
Q 162 :
What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?
A.It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
B.It is global in its membership
C.It has far wider scope than GATT
D.Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Q 163 :
……........… has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade .
A.ISRD
B.ADS
C.WTO
D.DIMF
Q 164 :
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A.The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
B.Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
C.Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
D.None of the above
Q 165 :
Advance Income-tax is shown in the –
A.Debit side of Profit and Loss Account
B.Liability side of the Balance Sheet
C.Credit side of Profit and Loss Account
D.Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Q 166 :
In the absence of a Partnership Deed, the rate of interest allowed on the partner’s loan to the firm is –
A.5%
B.6%
C.10%
D.None of the above
Q 167 :
Interim Dividend is shown –
A.In Profit and Loss Account
B.In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
C.On Asset side of Balance Sheet
D.On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
Q 168 :
Memorandum of Association contains –
A.Objective clause
B.Name clause
C.Capital clause
D.All of the above
Q 169 :
If a cheque presented through the Clearing House is returned unpaid for any reason, the banker has to enclose the cheque to a Returning Memo while returning the instrument to the customer. This provision has been prescribed under:
A.Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D.RBI Clearing House Rules
Q 170 :
By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
A.By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
B.By order of Registrar of Companies
C.By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
D.None of the above
Q 171 :
Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Duty Drawback Scheme ?
A.Relieving export goods of duties paid for components used for manufacturing the export goods
B.Providing cash incentives to exporters to compensate the duty paid by them in foreign countries
C.Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs
D.Providing a facility for withdrawing the duty paid by exporters if their exports are rejected in foreign countries
Q 172 :
In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ?
A.Loco price
B.C.I.F. price
C.Franco price
D.Landed price
Q 173 :
If the cost of goods sold is Rs. 1,00,000, the value of opening stock is Rs. 20,000 and the value of closing stock is Rs. 80,000, then the stock turnover ratio would be –
A.5 Times
B.4 Times
C.2 Times
D.1 Time
Q 174 :
If profit made during the year is Rs. 10,000; increase and decrease in the current assets is Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively, then the cash from operation equals –
A.Rs. 9,000
B.Rs. 10,000
C.Rs. 11,000
D.Rs. 19,000
Q 175 :
Commercial paper is a –
A.long-term corporate security meant for small investors
B.medium-term corporate security meant for institutional investors
C.treasury paper meant for corporate investors
D.short-term corporate security meant for large-scale investors
Q 176 :
A cartel is a combination of firms –
A.which are functioning in a particular industry
B.whose combined assets are worth more than 90% of total assets of the industry
C.who control major chunk of the market
D.whose combined profits are enormous
Q 177 :
One of the major difficulties improving the industrial efficiency in enterprises is –
A.low investment
B.low productivity
C.ineffective marketing
D.poor inventory control
Q 178 :
Exam Bank of India provides financial assistance to exporters and importers in India :
A.in foreign currency only
B.both in Indian currency and foreign currencies
C.as zero-interest loans
D.as subsidies
Q 179 :
‘Object Clause’ of a Memorandum of Association can be altered by –
A.Ordinary resolution
B.Special resolution
C.Special resolution and confirmation by Registrar of Companies
D.Special resolution and confirmation by Company Law Board
Q 180 :
The takeover of a company in which most of the purchase price is paid with borrowed money is referred to as –
A.hostile takeover
B.illegal takeover
C.leveraged buy-out
D.management buy-out
Q 181 :
A public company can start business –
A.After incorporation
B.After promotion
C.After registration
D.After getting certificate of commencement of business
Q 182 :
Impact of O & M is that –
A.promotion possibility becomes restricted
B.it leads to less scope for high salary and wages
C.entire organization is streamlined
D.work measurement is costly
Q 183 :
The term ‘Organisational climate’ best represents –
A.human environment prevailing in an organisation
B.union-management relations within an organisation
C.problems introduced by faulty organisational structure
D.socio-cultural environment in an organisation
Q 184 :
The Memorandum of Association shall be signed by each –
A.director
B.shareholder
C.subscriber
D.promoter and director
Q 185 :
Changing the name of a company requires –
A.special resolution and approval of Company Law Board
B.special resolution and approval of Securities and Exchange Board of India
C.special resolution and approval of Central Government
D.ordinary resolution and approval of Company Law Board
Q 186 :
Registration of Articles of Association is optional in the case of –
A.unlimited company
B.private company limited by shares
C.company limited by guarantee
D.public company limited by share
Q 187 :
The Base Rate system has replaced BPLR with effect from:
A.01.05.2010
B.01.06.2010
C.01.07.2010
D.01.08.2010
Q 188 :
Under the accrual concept which one of the following will not be shown as an asset/liability in the balance sheet of an entity ?
A.Interest due but not paid
B.Interest due but not received
C.Interest due and paid
D.Interest paid but not due
Q 189 :
Goods worth Rs. 24,000 were returned by X. The accountant however credited the sales returns account by Rs. 42,000. In order to rectify this error, what should be done ?
A.Debit the sale return by Rs.42,000
B.Credit the sales return account by Rs. 24,000
C.Debit the sales return account by Rs. 66,000
D.Debit the sales return account by Rs. 18,000
Q 190 :
A machine with a written down value of Rs. 10,000 has been sold for Rs. 13,000. The amount realized is a –
A.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Capital Reserve
B.Revenue receipt
C.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to General Reserve
D.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Profit and Loss A/c
Q 191 :
Provisions are amounts set aside out of profits and other surpluses for –
A.meeting a liability, the amount of which can be determined with exact figure
B.any known liability of which the amount cannot be determined with substantial accuracy
C.meeting an eventuality arising out of revaluation of assets in ordinary course of business
D.meeting a liability arising out of arbitration
Q 192 :
A Ltd. Company issues 3,000, 15% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 7•5% repayable at a premium of 5% at the end of 5 years. The loss on issue of debentures will be –
A.Rs. 22,500
B.Rs. 30,000
C.Rs. 37,500
D.Rs. 45,000
Q 193 :
X Ltd. has current ratio of 2– 1 and quick ratio of 1•5– 1. If its current liabilities are Rs. 80,000, then the value of stock would be –
A.Rs. 1,60,000
B.Rs. 1,20,000
C.Rs. 40,000
D.Rs. 80,000
Q 194 :
Test checking of entries in the audit work refers to –
A.the internal checks
B.the inernal controls
C.checking some sample items from a large number of similar items
D.checking the cash flow of business
Q 195 :
Share premium account can be used for –
A.Paying tax liability
B.Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
C.Paying Dividend on shares
D.Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Q 196 :
Ploughing-back of profits means –
A.Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
B.Non-declaration of dividend in any year
C.Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
D.Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Q 197 :
As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be –
A.Added to paid up capital
B.Deducted from called up capital
C.Added to capital reserve
D.Shown as a revenue reserve
Q 198 :
‘Profit objective’ is of least priority in case of –
A.Private enterprise
B.Public enterprise
C.Department undertaking
D.Cooperative society
Q 199 :
Partnership may come into existence by –
A.The operation of law
B.An express agreement only
C.An express or implied agreement only
D.Inheritance of property
Q 200 :
When a security is not treated in the Stock Exchange for a period of.........days prior to the date of valuation, it is treated as "Non- Traded" security:
